A part of the auditory pathway responsible for auditory reflexes is the
The part of the auditory pathway responsible for auditory reflexes is the superior olivary complex, which operates within the complex network of ascending and descending auditory pathways.
The auditory reflexes in the human body are an integral part of the auditory pathway. A part of the auditory pathway responsible for auditory reflexes is the superior olivary complex.
The ascending auditory pathway includes various brainstem nuclei like the cochlear nuclear complex and superior olive before ascending to the midbrain's inferior colliculus, the thalamic medial geniculate nucleus, and finally to the primary auditory cortex. The comprehensive pathway ensures that sound is heard, localized, and processed effectively.
In addition to the ascending auditory pathway, the descending auditory pathways also play a crucial role in hearing and auditory reflexes. These pathways start from the primary auditory cortex, projecting downward to influence lower structures such as the medial geniculate nucleus, inferior colliculus, and cochlear nuclear complex. One of the functions of these descending pathways is to modulate auditory reflexes in response to loud noises or other important auditory cues.
Madeline is 9 years old and considered obese. While her parents acknowledge that they could adopt a healthier lifestyle, they blame genetics for her weight problem. How many genes are estimated to influence Madelines weight?
A. 1
B. 25
C. 100
D. more than 200
Answer:
Option-D
Explanation:
Obesity refers to a disease in which the person accumulates a high amount of fat due to lifestyle with less physical activity but a very high amount of energy intake.
Obesity is not just influenced by the environment but by genetics also. The genetic studies on the accumulation of fat involve more than 200 genes in which one of the genes is fat mass and obesity-associated gene or FTO gene. This gene can cause increased hunger level, reduced satiety, and influence other genes.
Thus, Option-D is correct.
You sampled 1000 individuals from a population of mosquitoes to test whether they are in Hardy-Weinberg Equilibrium for a gene D, where a recessive allele (d) is responsible for conferring pesticide resistance. After genotyping your 1000 sampled mosquitoes, go obtain the following number of individuals for the three possible genotypes: a. Genotype dd: 22 individuals b. Genotype Dd: 188 individuals c. Genotype DD: 790 individuals
Answer:
The population is not following the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium.
Explanation:
Hardy-Weinberg proposed that the population will remain in the equilibrium if they are not affected with the external natural force like genetic drift, mutation and many others. The gene pool of a population will remain in equilibrium state for generations.
The mathematical expression for the Hardy-Weinberg are
Genotypic frequency is p²+q²+2pq=1
Allele frequency is p+q=1
where p-dominant allele,
q-recessive allele
Therefore,calculating expected frequency of allele q,
q² (recessive genotype)- q²+2pq/1000
= 22+188/1000
=210/1000
= 0.21
q= 0.45
Calculating expected frequency of allele p,
Using p+q=1
p=1-q
p= 0.55 (expected)
Calculating observed value of frequency of p,
p²= p²+2pq/1000
= 790+188/1000
= 978/1000
= 0.978
p = 0.988 (observed)
Since the expected frequency does not match the observed frequency therefore the population is not under the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and the gene pool is disturbed.
In the context of a mosquito population, the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and the principles of population genetics can help one understand the distribution of a recessive allele conferring pesticide resistance. Deviations from the equilibrium suggest microevolutionary changes, probably due to selective pressures such as pesticide use. Using these principles can guide decisions in managing pesticide resistance in mosquito populations.
Explanation:The subject of your question relates to Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium and population genetics within a population of mosquitoes. Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium predicts the frequency of two alleles in a gene pool, represented by the mathematical equation p² + 2pq + q² = 1, if five conditions are met: no mutations, no gene flow, random mating, no genetic drift, and no selection. In your mosquito population, deviations from this equilibrium could indicate microevolutionary changes, possibly due to factors such as pesticide resistance conferred by a recessive allele (d).
You've obtained genotypic figures: 22 individuals carry the genotype dd, 188 individuals carry the genotype Dd, and 790 individuals carry the genotype DD. This indicates that your mosquito population is not in static equilibrium, and there is likely a shift in allele frequency, potentially due to selective pressures like pesticide use. The Hardy-Weinberg principle can offer insights into this, providing a snapshot of genetic variation in a population at a given time.
Examining the genotype frequencies and using the allele frequency calculations from the Hardy-Weinberg principle can help you identify the proportion of the mosquitoes that are likely to be resistant to pesticides, and predict future changes in your population. The value of understanding these dynamics lies in their application to real-world challenges such as managing pesticide resistance in mosquito populations.
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Examine the physical characteristics of the frog and
determine if it is a vertebrate or an invertebrate. Be
sure to justify your answer.
The frog should be treated as the vertebrate organisms. Here vertebrates means the animal which comprise of backbone.
What are vertebrate organisms?All animals that contain a backbone are known as the vertebrates. They are considered normally the most familiar of animals, and involved the fish, amphibians, reptiles,etc. Since the frogs contains the vertebrae’s that should be located in the backs so they should fall in the vertebrate animal class.
Therefore, we can conclude that The frog should be treated as the vertebrate organisms.
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People are most successful at noticing an analogous relationship between problems if they focus on
Answer:
The correct answer is "structural features".
Explanation:
The missing options of this question are:
structural features.
surface features.
mental sets.
operators.
The correct answer is "structural features".
Regarding problem-solving scenarios, structural features are defined as causal relationships involved in problem situations. According to the 1987 scientific article "Surface and structural similarity in analogical transfer" by Keith J. Holyoak & Kyunghee Koh, structural features have a greater impact on people's problem solver’s ability than surface features, which do not have a causal role.
A DNA molecule contains FIFTY base pairs of nucleotides. Thirty of the nucleotides are paired with adenine. How many of the nucleotides are paired with guanine? *
A. 20
B. 50
C. 40
D. 30
Answer:
A. 20
Explanation:
According to Chargaff's rule, the ratio of purine to pyrimidine bases in a DNA sequence must be 1:1. More specifically, the number of guanine should balance that of cytosine while the number of adenine should balance that of thymine.
Hence, if 30 nucleotides are paired with adenine and only thymine can paired with adenine, it means that the remaining base pairs which is guanine/cytosine is 20. Therefore, the remaining 20 nucleotides (out of 50) must be paired with guanine.
The correct option is A.
Answer:
A. 20
Explanation:
A DNA molecule consists of two long polynucleotide chains made up of four types of nucleotides viz: Adenine, Guanine, Cytosine and Thymine. Each chain is called STRAND. The complementary base pairing rule proposed by Chargaff states that, in a DNA molecule, Adenine nucleotide will always hydrogen bond to Thymine nucleotide i.e. A-T while Cytosine nucleotide will always hydrogen bond to Guanine nucleotide i.e. G-C.
According to Chargaff, the amount of each base is equal to the amount of its complementary pair i.e. Adenine=Thymine and Guanine=Cytosine. Based on this, if 30 of the 50 nucleotides are paired with adenine, this means that Thymine nucleotides are 30 in the DNA molecule.
However, the remaining 20 (50-30) nucleotide pairs will contain a pairing of Guanine to Cytosine. This means 20 of the Cytosine nucleotides will be paired with Guanine.
Lobsters are crustaceans related to crayfish, crabs, and shrimp. Most lobsters are a reddish brown color, but on rare occasions, they can be orange, blue, or even multicolored. These color differences can be caused by__________.
Different organisms have changed thier colors as caused by evolution and natural selection as they better adapt in thier habitat.
What is evolution?The term evolution has to do with the changes that occurs in an organism as they move from one form to another.
Many different organisms have changed thier colors as caused by evolution and natural selection as they better adapt in thier habitat.
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Final answer:
Lobsters' color differences can be due to genetic mutations or environmental influences, leading to rare blue or multicolored appearances among the predominantly reddish brown crustaceans.
Explanation:
The color differences in lobsters can be caused by genetic mutations or variations in their environment. While most lobsters appear reddish brown due to the mix of pigments in their shells, on rare occasions, lobsters can be blue, orange, or even multicolored. These unique colorations result from different levels or the absence of certain pigments. For example, a blue lobster has a genetic mutation that causes an overproduction of a particular protein, leading to the blue pigment. The colorful variations, although infrequent, showcase the biodiversity within the subphylum Crustacea, which includes a vast array of aquatic and a few terrestrial species ranging from shrimp and krill to woodlice.
When an animal confronts a "fight-or-flight" situation, the release of epinephrine promotes glycogen breakdown in the liver, heart and skeletal muscle. The end product of glycogen breakdown in the liver is glucose, but in muscle, it is pyruvate. What is the reason for the different products of glycogen breakdown in the two tissues? What is the advantage of these specific glycogen breakdown routes to an animal that must fight or flee?
Answer: and Explanation:
A.)The reason for the different products of glycogen breakdown in the two tissues is that glucose 6-phosphotase which is
a known enzyme that brings about hydrolysis of glucose 6-phosphate as a result of the creation of a phosphate group and free glucose is not available in heart and skeletal muscle, therefore,any glucose 6-phosphotase that is produced will just enters the glycolytic pathway and get converted to lactate through pyruvate, in the absence of Oxygen O2.
B) Whenever a situation involving fight or flight arises, the concentration of glycolytic precursors becomes high in order to prepare for muscular activity. Since the membrane is impermeable to any charged species, and at the same time glucose 6-phosphotase enzyme cannot be moved through the glucose transporter, then there cannot be a release of Phosphorylated intermediates from the cell. The blood glucose level must be maintained by the liver by releasing of glucose.
glucose that is later formed from glucose 6-phosphotase then enters the bloodstream.
Which class of immunoglobulins sensitizes cells to allergens?
Immunoglobulin E (IgE) is the class of immunoglobulins that sensitizes cells to allergens, playing a crucial role in the body's immune response.
Explanation:The class of immunoglobulins that sensitizes cells to allergens is Immunoglobulin E (IgE). These antibodies are typically found at low concentrations in the blood, but they play a crucial role in the body's immune response to allergens. When an allergen enters the body, it can be recognized and bound by IgE. The allergen-IgE complex then binds to receptors on mast cells and basophils, which triggers these cells to release substances like histamines that result in allergic reactions.
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IgE is the class of immunoglobulins that sensitizes cells to allergens. These antibodies bind to mast cells and trigger the release of histamines and other chemical mediators.
Explanation:The class of immunoglobulins that sensitizes cells to allergens is IgE. Upon initial exposure to a potential allergen, an allergic individual synthesizes antibodies of the IgE class. These IgE antibodies bind to mast cells, and on subsequent exposure to the same allergen, the mast cells release histamines and other chemical mediators that affect the symptoms of allergy.
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What is not generally an implication stemming from an increase in the number of facilities?
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
The question is not complete, here is the complete question:
Which of the following statements is NOT generally an implication stemming from an increase in the number of facilities?
A) decreased total logistics cost
B) quicker response
C) increased customer satisfaction
D) increased facility costs
Among the given options, having a decreased logistics cost would not be an implication of an increase in the number of facilities. All the other options are correct implications for a facility increase.
I hope this answer helps.
Which organism in the food web contains the most energy
Answer:
The answer is grass
Explanation:
The organism that is having the highest energy here is grass, the correct option is B.
What is energy in ecosystem?Energy is transferred from producers to consumers by organisms in food webs.
Organisms use energy to carry out complex daily tasks. The vast majority of energy in food webs comes from the sun and is converted or transformed into chemical energy by the photosynthesis process in plants.
An ecosystem is a geographical area in which plants, animals, and other organisms, as well as weather and landscape, coexist to form a life.
Ecosystems contain both biotic including living ones along with abiotic means nonliving components.
The producers store the most energy. Around 10% of the light energy converted into chemical energy by photosynthesis, as well as 10% of the energy produced, is transferred to the subsequent trophic levels.
Thus, the correct option is B.
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Place the steps involved in the process of bacterial transformation in the correct order.
A. Donor cell DNA binds to a receptor site on the recipient cell.
B. One strand of the donor cell DNA is degraded.
C. Transformed DNA pairs with homologous region on the recipient cell chromosome.
D. Transformed DNA recombines with the recipient cell chromosome.
E. Donor cell lyses, releasing pieces of its chromosome into the environment.
Answer:
E-A-B-C-D
Explanation:
The steps involved in the process of bacterial transformation in the correct order are;
E. Donor cell lyses, releasing pieces of its chromosome into the environment.
A. Donor cell DNA binds to a receptor site on the recipient cell.
B. One strand of the donor cell DNA is degraded.
C. Transformed DNA pairs with homologous region on the recipient cell chromosome.
D. Transformed DNA recombines with the recipient cell chromosome.
Answer:
(A) Donor cell lyses, releasing pieces of its chromosome into the environment.
(b) Donor cell DNA binds to a receptor site on the recipient cell.
(c) One strand of the donor cell DNA is degraded.
(d) Transformed DNA pairs with homologous region on the recipient cell chromosome.
(E) Transformed DNA recombines with the recipient cell chromosome.
Explanation:
Process of bacteria transformation
This is a process of gene transfer that occurs in an horizontal manner; means by which some bacteria take up foreign genetic material from the environment. Such bacteria are usually termed as competent cells and can be used in artificial selection processes.
Theodor W. Engelmann illuminated a filament of algae with light that passed through a prism, thus exposing different segments of algae to different wavelengths of light. He added aerobic bacteria and then noted in which areas the bacteria congregated. He noted that the largest groups were found in the areas illuminated by the red and blue light. Which of the following statements describes a relationship that Engelmann's experiment helped to determine?A. amount of carbon dioxide and the rate of photosynthesis B. wavelengths of light and the rate of aerobic respiration C. wavelengths of light and the rate of photosynthesis D. amount of carbon dioxide and the rate of anaerobic respiration
Answer:
C. wavelengths of light and the rate of photosynthesis
Explanation:
The experiment by Theodor W. Engelman demonstrated the relationship between wavelengths of light and the rate of photosynthesis.
Various experiments have reported that the optimal regions of white light that drive photosynthesis is the red and blue regions.
During photosynthesis, carbon dioxide and water is utilized to synthesize glucose and oxygen is produced as a result. Hence, the rate of production of oxygen is directly proportional to the rate of photosynthesis.
Therefore, the more the photosynthesis rate, the more the oxygen produced and the more the growth of aerobic bacteria. This is why more bacterial growth was observed around the red and blue region of white light according to Engelmann's observation.
The correct option is C.
Theodor W. Engelmann's determined the relationship between different wavelengths of light (specifically, red and blue light) and the rate of photosynthesis.
experiment
Explanation:Theodor W. Engelmann's experiment was designed to elucidate the relationship between wavelengths of light and the rate of photosynthesis, thus the best option from the given ones would be C. wavelengths of light and the rate of photosynthesis.
During Engelmann's experiment, different segments of algae were exposed to different wavelengths of light. He noticed that the largest bacterial clusters were positioned where the algae were exposed to red and blue light. Engelmann deduced that these areas must be producing the most oxygen (a byproduct of photosynthesis), which attracted the aerobic bacteria.
This experiment indirectly determined the rates of photosynthesis associated with specific light wavelengths, showcasing that blue and red light promote the highest rate of photosynthesis.
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Who grouped humans with primates in the same genus?
Answer:
Linnaeus
Explanation:
Take __ away from microbes by using __ in jams and
putting___
on foods like meat was helpful in days before
refrigeration to stop microbes from growing.
a.SALT, SUGAR, WATER
b.WATER, SUGAR, WATER
c.WATER, SALT, SUGAR
d.WATER, SUGAR, SALT
Answer:
d. Water, sugar , salt.
Explanation:
Sugar in jams helps by drawing water from its surroundings, any microbe that tends to be arround then becomes dehydrated as water will be drawn through the cell wall making it difficult for them to grow and cause death. Salt also works in this same manner of sucking up water. This process used by salt and water is known as OSMOSIS.
What is the term for a process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one, thus equalizing the concentrations on each side of the membrane?
Answer: OSMOSIS
Explanation:
OSMOSIS is a process by which molecules of a solvent tend to pass through a semipermeable membrane from a less concentrated solution into a more concentrated one, thus equalizing the concentrations on each side of the membrane. It's very useful in biological systems and is dependent on the following factors:
- osmotic pressure and
- osmotic gradient.
Osmotic pressure: this is defined as the least pressure that needs to be applied in a solution to discontinue the transfer of solvent across a semipermeable membrane.
Osmotic gradient: this compares the concentration of solutions divided by a semipermeable membrane. The concentration of a specific particle dissolved in a solution is known through osmotic gradient.
Which of the following is false?
A. Fertilizers can maintain soil fertility and productivity into the distant future-even if the soil is eroding.
B. Soil erosion is occurring throughout most of the densely inhabited regions of the world.
C. Both the direct and indirect costs of soil erosion is estimated at hundreds of billions of dollars worldwide.
D. Soil that has eroded could take centuries to be replaced.
E. Loss of soil, combined with exponential population growth, could lead to serious food shortages.
Answer:
Option A, Fertilizers can maintain soil fertility and productivity into the distant future-even if the soil is eroding.
Explanation:
The top layer of the soil known as top soil is essential for its productivity because it contains essential nutrients such as phosphorus and potassium.
If this topsoil is lost, the inherent soil fertility is also lost. In order to restore the soil fertility, additional inputs in the form of fertilizers and manures are used.
Fertilizers help in restoring soil fertility but only if the essential subsoil material are present. In short it can be said that continuous soil erosion for a longer period of time will result into infertile land parcels whose fertility cannot be restored by fertilizers.
Hence, option A is correct
Substance R is too large to diffuse across the cell membrane or to be transported across by a protein. Molecules of Substance R can, however, cross the membrane and exit the cell. By which of the listed processes do they cross?
A. Active transport
B. Facilitated diffusion
C. Osmosis
D. Diffusion
Answer:
A. Active transport
Explanation:
The process is called Exocytosis which falls under the Active transport system.
Active Transport describes the processes of moving materials through the cell membrane that requires the use of energy. Substance R was said to be too large to diffuse so it will certainly need some form of energy to make it pass through the membranes. This makes Active transport the correct choice.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
.facilitated Diffusion is the form of assisted diffusion through special protein channels in the membrane of cells. It is a passive form of diffusion because it still depends on the movements of the particular substance down the concentration gradient . It is the transport methods for large polar molecules e.g amino acids, glucose and ions to reach the inside of the cells.
The special proteins involved are the carrier, gated channels, and channels protein. These proteins provides hydrophylic medium for theses molecules to reach the cells.
Generally the channels proteins are fixed in shape , while the carrier proteins can change between the two shapes
Use the following information to answer the question. Nudibranchs, a type of predatory sea slug, can have various protuberances (that is, extensions) on their dorsal surfaces. Rhinophores are paired structures, located close to the head, which bear many chemoreceptors. Dorsal plumules, usually located posteriorly, perform respiratory gas exchange. Cerata usually cover much of the dorsal surface and contain nematocysts at their tips. The stingers of honeybees have a function most similar to that of ________. a rhinophores b dorsal plumules c cerata d chemoreceptors
Final answer:
The bee's stinger is functionally similar to the cerata of nudibranchs, both being used for defense and predation, whereas rhinophores and chemoreceptors are sensory, and dorsal plumules are for respiration.
Explanation:
The stingers of honeybees serve a defensive role similar to the cerata of nudibranchs. The cerata typically cover much of the dorsal surface of nudibranchs and contain nematocysts at their tips for defense and predation, which is analogous to the role of the bee's stinger. The other options provided do not serve a similar purpose: rhinophores are sensory organs for detecting chemicals; dorsal plumules are involved in gas exchange; and chemoreceptors are also involved in sensing the environment, not in defense or stinging.
Women can inherit alleles of a gene called BRCA1 that puts them at higher risk for breast cancer. The alleles associated with elevated cancer risk are dominant. Of the genotypes listed below, which carries the lowest genetic risk of developing breast cancer?
A. All carry equal risk.
B. BB
C. Bb
D. bb
E. BB and Bb carry less risk than bb.
A complex nervous system usually includes a And several Organs
A complex nervous system usually includes a And several Organs like pinal wire, nerves, and ganglia.
What are parts of nervous system ?The nervous system includes the mind, spinal wire, sensory organs, and all the nerves that join those organs with the relaxation of the frame. Together, those organs are answerable for the manage of the frame and communique amongst its components.
These, in turn, include diverse tissues, which include nerve, blood, and connective tissue. Together those perform the complicated function of the nervous system.
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The student's question is about the components of a complex nervous system, which includes the brain and various nervous organs like the spinal cord and nerves. The central nervous system and the peripheral nervous system work together to control and process information within the body.
Explanation:A complex nervous system usually includes a brain and several nervous organs, such as the spinal cord and a network of nerves. In humans, the nervous system is divided into two main parts: the central nervous system (CNS), which includes the brain and spinal cord, and the peripheral nervous system (PNS), which is a network of branching nerves that travel throughout the body.
The brain is the control center of the nervous system and is the most complex organ in the human body. It contains around 100 billion neurons and is responsible for mental processes, interpreting sensory information, and controlling physical processes. The spinal cord works together with the brain to relay information and execute motor commands. The CNS and PNS coordinate to regulate and maintain bodily functions, ensuring that the organism operates smoothly as a whole.
Other animals have different structural arrangements of their nervous systems, ranging from very simple to highly complex, as in the case of insects. Within the greater context, the nervous system is one part of the organ systems that work together to form the complete organism, thus highlighting the multiple levels of organization in living systems.
which of the following best describes a living cell?
cause infections
make and use energy
smallest unit of life
respond to stimuli
reproduce
hijack living organisms
The smallest unit of life is the best that describes a living cell.
Explanation:
The cells are the smallest unit of living thing. A living thing is composed of one cell or more cells are known as organism. All living organisms are made up of cells they are the structural unit of organization.
The organisms that are made up of one cell is known as unicellular and the organisms that are made up of multiple cells are known as multicellular. Each and every organisms need energy to survive.
The group of similar cells combine and perform specific function is known as tissues.
How do plants get the carbon dioxide they need for photosynthesis?
A
Carbon dioxide is produced in a chemical reaction inside their chloroplasts.
B
Carbon dioxide enters their leaves from the atmosphere.
c
Carbon dioxide enters their roots from the soil.
D
Carbon dioxide is produced in a chemical reaction inside their mitochondria.
Filtrate becomes less concentrated as it flows down the medullary collecting ducts, toward the renal pelvis.
True
False
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Medullary collecting ducts courses down from the cortex through the hypertonic medulla before joining the collecting tubules from other nephrons to form a single ureter in each kidney.
It is the principle site of action for ADH (antidiuretic hormone) which stimulates the expression of water channel protien, aquaporin-2 in the cell membrane. ADH causes reabsorption of the water through these channels thus resulting in increased concentration of the filtrate.
Hence, the statement filtrate becomes less concentrated as it flows down the medullary collecting ducts, toward the renal pelvis is completely false.
Read the description below:
Another way that plant systems and tissues work together is in the transport of materials such as food, called translocation. Auxins are plant hormones produced in the parenchyma. For a plant to grow, certain auxins move through the phloem to the cells of the collenchyma ground tissue in the apical meristem. These auxins tell those cells that they need to divide. In order to do this, those cells need the sugars transported from the leaves through the phloem vascular tissue.
Which of the following tissues and systems were involved in translocation? Check all that apply.
1) roots
2) stem
3) leaves
4) dermal tissue
5) vascular tissue
6) ground tissue
Answer:
Stem, Leaves, Vascular tissue, ground Tissue
Explanation:
Answer:
B, C, E, F edu 2020
Explanation:
I just did it
An organism's reproductive strategy includes all of the following except
A . The number of offspring produced
B . The length of the time parental care is given
C . The adaptions passed to an offspring
D . The amount of energy expended in producing offspring
Answer: A
Explanation:The reproductive system included as the knowledge of knowing that it will take up a lot of energy and about 9 months and you know that the parents genes will passed to them but they don’t know how much kids they will have
Answer:
The adaptations passed on to an offspring
Explanation: I selected the answer choice "the number of offspring produced" but it was marked incorrect and the correct answer was given as "the adaptations passed on to an offspring"
The Lotka–Volterra models show that coexistence is more likely if A. Niche overlap is small and the carrying capacities are different. B. Niche overlap is large and the carrying capacities are similar. C. Niche overlap is small and the carrying capacities are similar. D. Niche overlap is similar and the carrying capacities are different. E. None of the above.
Answer:
C. Niche overlap is small and the carrying capacities are similar.
Explanation:
The Lotka-Volterra model is used to predicts if coexistence of two species is possible .The Lotka–Volterra models show that coexistence is more likely if niche overlap is small and the carrying capacities are similar.
Why is it ineffective to treat viral disease with antibiotics? Why is it ineffective to treat viral disease with antibiotics? Pathogenic RNA viruses have a high rate of mutation, producing new genetic varieties that are insensitive to antibiotic treatment. Due to excessive antibiotic use, most viruses have evolved to be resistant to antibiotics. Antibiotics inhibit enzymes specific to bacteria and have no effect on virally encoded enzymes.
Answer:
Antibiotics inhibit enzymes specific to bacteria and have no effect on virally encoded enzymes
Explanation:
The specificity of the antibiotics to inhibits some bacterial enzymes is one of the major reasons why antibiotic do not affect viruses.In addition antibiotics are designed to have a significant destructive effects on the mechanisms of biochemical reactions in bacteria and its physiology, e,g on the cells walls,( inhibiting the formation of peptydoglycans) on certain organelles e,g ribisomes (inhibiting protein synthesis) and on the DNA(disrupting replication). The virus physiology is different from bacteria, therefore the design of antibiotics will nor affect these same mechanisms in viruses, thus no specificity for the antibiotic to act on in virus
Answer:
Antibiotics inhibit enzymes specific to bacteria and have no effect on virally encoded enzymes
Explanation:
Viruses can be inhibited by different approaches depending on the type of virus (viruses are classified into DNA or RNA viruses, single or double-stranded viruses, etc).
One of the most commonly used techniques to protect against viral infections is by vaccination
When the supplies of a product decrease, the price of the product tends to increase. How might continuing increases in the price of fossil fuels affect research on the development of renewable resources, such as wind power and solar energy?
Continuing increases in the price of fossil fuels can lead to increased research and development of renewable resources such as wind power and solar energy. Higher prices of fossil fuels can create a market for innovation and development in the renewable energy sector, as consumers seek cheaper alternatives. Government support and policies can also further encourage the adoption of renewable energy sources.
Explanation:Continuing increases in the price of fossil fuels can have a significant impact on research and development of renewable resources like wind power and solar energy. As the prices of fossil fuels such as oil increase, the demand for renewable resources increases. This increased demand leads to more investment in research and development of renewable energy technologies.
For example, as the price of oil increases, consumers may start using solar energy or wind power as a cheaper alternative. This increased demand for renewable energy sources creates a market for innovation and development in the renewable energy sector.
Moreover, higher prices of fossil fuels can also lead to increased government support and policies promoting the adoption of renewable energy sources. Governments may provide subsidies and tax incentives to encourage investment in renewable energy technologies.
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Which regions of the nephron function independently of hormonal control for the most part?
Answer:
Renal corpuscle, proximal tubule, and loop of henle.
Explanation:
Renal corpuscle is blood filtering part of the nephron which consist of Bowman's capsule and glomerulus. It works independently of hormonal control and filter the blood circulate through this glomerulus.
Proximal tubule is the component of nephron which starts from the renal pole of Bowman's capsule to the loop of henle and it involves in the selective reabsorption of glucose, peptides, water and other nutrients from tubule to the blood. It works independently of hormonal control.
Loop of henle is the U shaped part of nephron which is responsible for absorption of water and sodium chloride from urine to back into blood circulation. It is also work independently of hormonal control.
Answer:
Renal corpuscle, proximal tubule, and loop of Henle are the regions of the nephron which function independently from harmone.
Explanation:
These three parts of the nephron work without the intervention of harmones. Renal corpuscle is an important part of nephron which is responsible for the removal of waste material from the blood by filtration. Proximal tubule helps in the regulation of pH of the blood and also releases organic acids into the filtrate while loop of Henle reabsorp water and salts such as sodium chloride from the urine and added to the blood.