Answer:
the is c
Explanation:
hope this helps
Answer: C The plant produces sperm cells and egg cells.
Explanation:
What is it called when a user begins moving toward another cell and the cellular phone automatically associates with the base station of that cell during a call? A. handoff B. roaming C. hunting D. multiplexing
Answer:
Handoff
Explanation:
Handoff sometimes referred to as handover is the process of transferring a call that is active or a data session from a cell in a cellular network to another cell in a cellular network. It occurs when the base station signal is changed as the cell is shifted and does not result to any form interaction in the data session or active call.
A data session user or active caller would experience no interruption in service when the handoff is well implemented.
What can we conclude about a mutational event that renders is1 unable to transpose?
Answer:
It can be concluded that the mutation is located in one of the inverted repeat sequences at the ends of the element
Explanation:
IS stands for insertion sequence. It is basically a short stretch of DNA that has the ability to transpose and it is an example of a simple transposable element. IS1 is an example of an insertion sequence transposon. The structure of this transposon basically consists of a coding region which is flanked on either side by the inverted repeats. The inverted repeats flanking the transposon are essential for the transposase enzyme to perform its function as the enzyme recognizes these repeats and thus, it knows where to cut the transposon and then its transposition can occur. If a mutational event occurs that makes IS1 incapable of transposing then it can be concluded that there is a mutation in one of the inverted repeat sequences.A burner on a stove gets red
and heats up because it:
A) creates static charge
B)creates resistance
C)creates current
Answer:
The answer is B)creates resistance
Explanation:
Resistance mean a force opposing the flow of electron current in a conductor.
HOMEWORK: CHARGING BY INDUCTION
1. Which of the following are examples of charging by induction? Explain how you
know (2 marks)
(a) static Cling on clothes
(b) bringing a charged rod near a neutral electroscope
(c) attracting pieces of foam with a charged comb
(d) hair standing on end after you have taken off a hat.
All of these are examples of charging by induction.
What is charging by induction?(a) Static cling on clothes is an example of charging by induction. When clothes are taken out of the dryer, they become charged due to friction. The negatively charged electrons on the clothes repel each other and accumulate on the surface of the clothes, leaving a positive charge on the other surface. This causes clothes to stick together, known as static cling.
(b) Bringing a charged rod near a neutral electroscope is an example of charging by induction. When a charged rod is brought near a neutral electroscope, it repels electrons to the opposite end of the electroscope. This causes a separation of charge and a potential difference, resulting in a net charge on the electroscope.
(c) Attracting pieces of foam with a charged comb is an example of charging by induction. When a charged comb is brought near pieces of foam, it repels electrons to the opposite end of the foam. This causes a separation of charge and a potential difference, resulting in a net charge on the foam.
(d) Hair standing on end after you have taken off a hat is an example of charging by induction. When a hat is removed from the head, the hair gets charged due to the friction between the hat and the hair. The negatively charged electrons on the hair repel each other and accumulate on the surface of the hair, leaving a positive charge on the other surface. This causes the hair to stand on end.
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Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals are _________.a. more numerous than blood capillaries. b. necessary for the transport of dietary lipids. c. located primarily in the large intestine. d. part of the fenestrated capillary group. e. All of the answers are correct.
Answer: Option B.
Necessary for the transport of dietary lipids
Explanation:
Lacteals are specialized lymphatic capillaries that are finger like projections that extend into the small intestine. They are found in the intestinal villi of small intestine.
They transport absorbed dietary fats from the small intestine into the blood stream.
Final answer:
Lacteals are specialized lymphatic capillaries in the small intestine b. necessary for the transport of dietary lipids and forming chyle, which enters the bloodstream.
Explanation:
Specialized lymphatic capillaries called lacteals are necessary for the transport of dietary lipids. Located in the lining of the small intestine, lacteals play a crucial role in absorbing fatty acids from digestion. These capillaries are different from regular blood capillaries, which absorb most nutrients. Instead, lacteals absorb mainly fatty acids into the lymph, forming a fatty-acid-enriched fluid known as chyle. This chyle is then transported through the lymphatic system to the bloodstream.
The effects that one’s emotions have on other people refer to the ____ functions of emotions.
Answer:
This question lacks options, options are:
A. Intrapersonal.
B. Interpersonal.
C. Existential
D. Phenomenological
The correct answer is B.
The effects that one’s emotions have on other people refer to the interpersonal functions of emotions.
Explanation:
Emotion is a complex state of the organism characterized by an excitement or disturbance that predisposes to an organized response. Interpersonal functions describe the effects or impact of emotions on the relationships with others, that is, the expression of emotions inform the person himself/herself and communicate to others how we feel and the intentions that can be derived from that emotional state, therefore it facilitates the appearance of appropriate social behaviors. Emotions also serve to influence others and promote social ties and interpersonal relationships, facilitating empathy by generating positive attitudes towards oneself and others, which in turn favor interpersonal relationships.
Answer:
The correct answer is "interpersonal".
Explanation:
The missing options of this question are:
a. existential
b. intrapersonal
c. phenomenoogical
d. interpersonal
The correct answer is option d. "interpersonal".
Interpersonal, is a term used to describe the relationships that arise from the communication of two or more people. Basically, interpersonal could be defined as anything that involves the action of more than one person. This term is applied to emotions as well, where the interpersonal functions of emotions refers to the effects that one's emotions have on other people.
A geneticist examines the karyotype of a diploid cell from a particular species of frog and determines that 12 chromosomes are present. If a germ-line cell from this species divides by meiosis, then at the end of meiosis I each cell will have
Answer:
6 chromosomes each
Explanation:
Meiosis is the cell division that results in daughter cells with a reduced number of chromosomes (by half). Meiosis is used only by sexually-reproducing organisms to produce gametes. Since meiosis reduces the chromosomal number, it occurs in a two-step division process viz: Meiosis I and Meiosis II.
Meiosis I involves separation of homologous chromosomes (similar but non-identical chromosomes received from each parent). In the Anaphase stage of meiosis 1, each homologous pair of chromosomes that makes the organism diploid (2n) is separated. Hence, the resulting cells of meiosis I will have a reduced chromosome number (haploid,n).
In this case of a diploid frog with 12 number of chromosomes. If a germline cell or reproductive cell divide by meiosis, in meiosis I, each pair of the 6 pairs of homologous chromosomes of the frog will separate into opposite cells. Hence, at the end of meiosis I, each daughter cell will have 6 chromosomes in a haploid state.
In meiosis II, sister chromatids (replicated chromosomes) separate instead. Each separated chromatid becomes a full chromosome in each gamete.
At the end of meiosis I, each of the resultant cells from a diploid frog cell containing 12 chromosomes will have 6 chromosomes. Meiosis I reduces the chromosome number through the separation of homologous chromosomes.
Explanation:In the process of meiosis, a diploid cell undergoes two divisions to produce four haploid cells. Since the frog species in question has a diploid cell with 12 chromosomes, at the end of
meiosis I, each cell will have half the number of chromosomes, which is 6. This is because in meiosis I, the homologous chromosomes - pairs of chromosomes containing genes for the same traits - are separated into two different cells. This reduction of chromosome number is critical, as it allows for the production of haploid sex cells or gametes (the germ-line cells in the question) that can combine during fertilization without leading to an increase in chromosome number for the species.
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Nucleotides can be radiolabeled before they are incorporated into newly synthesized DNA and, therefore, can be assayed to track their incorporation. In a set of experiments, a student-faculty research team used labeled T nucleotides and introduced these into a culture of dividing human cells at specific times. Which of the following questions might be answered by using the method described?
A. When do spindle fibers attach to chromosomes?
B. How many picograms of DNA are made per cell cycle?
C. What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle?
D. How many cells are produced by the culture per hour?
Answer:
C. What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle?Explanation:
Such type of technique that is used to tack or identified the passage or location of the metabolic reaction, organelles and some other during the research or experiment is known as radiolabelling. During the study of the synthesis of the DNA, the nucleotides are labeled to check the S phase of the cell cycle. Since the synthesis of the DNA takes place during this phase so the time and length of the S phase can be easily obtained during the experiment. This technique is also used for different purposes during the biomolecular experiment and some other disciplines.The S phase is the DNA replication phase of the cell cycle, it is the phase
that occur between the G₁ and G₂ phases.
The question that might be answered by using the method described is; D. What is the length of the S phase of the cell cycle?Reasons:
The S phase, or synthesis phase, is the cell division phase in which the
DNA of the cells are replicated such that the number the genome is
doubled, before the cell enters into the meiosis mitosis stage.
The synthesis that takes place during the s-phase includes the synthesis of
nucleotides.
Therefore, the radiolabeled nucleotides can be incorporated in the s-phase
after the DNA is synthesized, and therefore, the length of the S-phase of
the cell cycle can be determined.
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The purpose of mitosis includes all of the following, EXCEPT:
A. Repair of skin tissue damaged by a burn.
B. Formation of sperm by a frog.
C. Replacement of cells lost due to scraping a knee.
D. Lengthening the long bones of a child during a growth spurt.
The purpose of mitosis includes all of the following, EXCEPT Formation of sperm by a frog. Thus option B is correct.
What is mitosis?
In a cell cycle, Mitosis can be defined as the process in which new cell are produced from parent cell and it occur both in unicellular and multicellular organisms.
In this division, the cell where the number of chromosomes remains the same, except in the case of germ cells where half number of chromosomes are produced.
Here the nucleus of a cell is divided into two daughter nuclei having equal amount of genetic material and produce both the daughter nuclei.
The nuclear division followed by cytoplasmic division which is important for the growth of the cells and the replacement of worn-out cells.
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Mitosis is a biological process used for growth, development, and repair in organisms but it is not involved in the formation of sperm or eggs. This is accomplished by another process known as meiosis.
Explanation:The purpose of mitosis mainly involves the growth, development, and repair of an organism. Mitosis is involved in generating new cells for repair such as in skin tissue repair due to a burn (Option A) and replacement of cells due to a knee scrape (Option C). It also partakes in the growth phase, contributing to the lengthening of long bones during a growth spurt (Option D). However, mitosis is not responsible for the formation of sperm by a frog (Option B). The formation of sperm or eggs in organisms occurs through another process called meiosis, which results in four haploid cells.
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People suffering from cystic fibrosis have a mutant version of the gene called cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator (CFTR) that makes a non-functional or less functional membrane transport protein. Normal people also have the same gene. What is different between the two?
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disease caused by a mutation in the CFTR gene. The CFTR gene is involved in the formation of certain ABC channels in the membrane which are involved in the influx and efflux of the chloride ions in the cell.
The disease is caused when both the copies of the mutated genes each from father and mother are present in the progeny that is it is caused by the recessive allele.
The person with a normal allele of CFTR genes is normal and does not develop the affected organs like the lungs, kidney, pancreas, and others but a person with the mutated genes form a thick mucus in their organs especially the lungs but also in the kidney, pancreas.
A small hollow within the brain that is filled with cerebrospinal fluid
Answer:
Ventricles:One of the hollow spaces within the brain, filled with cerebrospinal fluid.
Explanation:
cerebrospinal fluid
A clear fluid, similar to blood plasma, that fills the ventricular system of the brain and the subarachnoid space surrounding the brain and spinal cord.
Ventricle of brain
The ventricles of the brain are a communicating network of cavities filled with cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) and located within the brain parenchyma. The ventricular system is composed of 2 lateral ventricles, the third ventricle, the cerebral aqueduct, and the fourth ventricle.
The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by the first meiosis are called:______.
1. spermatozoa.
2. spermatogonia.
3. primary spermatocytes.
4. secondary spermatocytes.
5. spermatids.
Answer:
Spermatogenesis
Explanation:
The first meiotic division of each main spermatocyte produces a pair of secondary spermatocytes, which carry out the second division of meiosis. Spermatids are the haploid cells that result from this process. Thus, option E is correct.
What is function of spermatids?Sertoli cell function is governed and controlled by spermatids. Sertoli cells regulate the metabolism, cell division, and development of spermatogonia or germ cells.
The haploid male gametic known as the spermatid is produced when secondary spermatocytes divide.
Each spermatid only has half as much genetic material as the original primary spermatocyte as a result of meiosis. Testicle germinal epithelium. Rat testicular tubule in transverse section.
Therefore, the cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by the first meiosis are called spermatids.
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Petals:
a. are present mainly to protect the stamens and carpels.
b. serve to attract insects to collect and disperse fruit.
c. serve as landing pads for pollinators.
d. serve to attract animals to collect and disperse pollen.
e. serve all of the above purposes.
Answer:
Petals d. serve to attract animals to collect and disperse pollen.
Explanation:
Petals serve to attract animals to collect and disperse pollen. This is because petals are modified leaves that surround the reproductive parts of flowers protecting them. They have super bright colors and different shapes so they attract pollinators and animals. Petals have different functions depending the type of plant repelling or attracting specific pollinators.
Arrange the following in correct sequence:
(1) gustatory cell depolarizes
(2) action potential stimulated in gustatory neurons
(3) food substance dissolves in saliva
(4) neurotransmitter released by gustatory cell
(5) food substance enters taste pore and attaches to receptor on gustatory hair
A. 5, 4, 1, 2, 3
B. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
C. 5, 3, 1, 4, 2
D. 3, 1, 4, 5, 2
E. 3, 2, 1, 5, 4
Answer:
c. 3, 5, 1, 4, 2
Explanation:
1. (3) food substance dissolves in saliva
2. (5) food substance enters taste pore and attaches to receptor on gustatory hair
3. (1) gustatory cell depolarizes
4. (4) neurotransmitter released by gustatory cell
5. (2) action potential stimulated in gustatory neurons
Saliva has digestive functions that help food to be easily swallowed. We need saliva to taste foods because it dissolves the chemicals. The sense of taste is called gustation. We taste something with our tongue and then sensations would be carried via the facial (VII) cranial nerve. One of the newest taste to be described is umami.
Sahib drew a picture showing that the heart is made mostly of muscles. He wants to write a sentence about the muscles to go with his picture. Based on this evidence, what should he claim to be the function of the muscles?
a. transport fluidsb. protect organsc. push and move structuresd. produce new cells
Answer:
The aim of the muscles in the heart is to transport blood,which is the fluid. As for protection the pericardium fluid is responsible
Sahib should claim that the function of the muscles is "c. push and move structures" because the heart is a muscular organ responsible for pumping and moving blood throughout the body.
The heart is a vital organ in the circulatory system, and its main function is to pump blood to all parts of the body. The heart's pumping action is made possible by its muscular walls. These muscles contract and relax in a coordinated manner, creating the rhythmic heartbeat. As the heart contracts (systole), it pushes blood out into the arteries. When it relaxes (diastole), it allows the heart chambers to refill with blood.
By claiming that the function of the heart muscles is to "push and move structures," Sahib correctly identifies the essential role these muscles play in the heart's functioning. The heart muscles enable the heart to generate the force needed to pump blood effectively, maintaining circulation and supplying oxygen and nutrients to tissues and organs throughout the body. Without the muscular walls, the heart would not be able to perform its vital function of circulating blood, and it would severely impact overall health and well-being.
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A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it. Which receptor has initiated this reflex?
Answer:
The answer is option C.
Explanation:
The question is not complete, here is the complete question:
A person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it. Which of the following receptors has initiated this reflex?
A) Free Nerve Ending
B) Lamellae Corpuscle
C) Tendon Organ
D) Bulbous Corpuscle
The answer is option C, the tendon organ. Tendon organ, located in the skeletal muscles, takes on the role of sensing the tension in the muscle so that it can be adjusted appropriately. In this case, the weight of the suitcase was not estimated correctly so the tension of the skeletal muscle was not enough to hold the suitcase.
I hope this answer helps.
Answer:
Tendon organ.
Explanation:
Tendon organ reflex:
An increase in the muscle tension activates receptors (Golgi tendon organ) in the tendon. The muscle relaxes and lengthens in response to an antagonist's contraction.
D-T reflex inhibits the agonist and excites the antagonist. It helps to regulate a smooth start and stop for a contraction. Input from the Golgi tendon organs are sent to the cerebellum and the cortex.
As in the given scenario, a person picks up a heavy suitcase in order to estimate its weight and reflexively drops it, tendon organ receptor has initiated this reflex.
A research team began a study of a cultured cell line. Their preliminary observations showedthem that the cell line did not exhibit either density-dependent inhibition or anchoragedependence. What could they conclude right away?
A) The cells originated in the nervous system.
B) The cells are unable to form spindle microtubules.
C) They have altered series of cell cycle phases.
D) The cells show characteristics of tumors. E) They were originally derived from an elderly organism.
Answer:
D)
Explanation:
Based on the scenario being described within the question it can be said that they can conclude right away that the cells show characteristics of tumors. This is because cancer cells do not exhibit these characteristics which is what allows them to continuously reproduce without anything stopping them, which in term cause tumors.
Answer:
The cells show characteristics of tumors.
Explanation:
The left side of the brain controls the left side of the body
Answer:
the answer is The right side of the cerebrum controls the left side of the body
and the left side of the cerebrum controls the right side of the body.
The left hemisphere of the brain controls the right side of the body due to the crossing over of neural connections in the brainstem. This lateralization also extends to cognitive functions such as language. The communication between both brain hemispheres for coordination of functions is facilitated by the corpus callosum.
Explanation:The statement that the left side of the brain controls the left side of the body is actually incorrect. In truth, the left hemisphere of the brain controls the right side of the body and vice versa. This is due to the crossing over of neural connections in the brainstem. This phenomenon of 'lateralization' also extends to some cognitive functions. For instance, language functions are predominantly processed in the left hemisphere — a feature seen in about 95% of the population — and are therefore predominantly controlling the right side of the body. This is achieved through connections in structures like the corticospinal tract and the ascending tracts of the spinal cord. Communication between both hemispheres of the brain is facilitated by the corpus callosum, allowing for coordination of motor and sensory functions.
It is an oversimplification and a popular myth that people are distinctly 'right-brained' or 'left-brained'. In reality, many brain functions, such as language, are distributed globally around the cerebrum.
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In the graph to the right:
Trial A (no immunity) is the _ line. Trial B (25% immune) is the _ line. Trial C (50% immune) is the _ line.
The trial in which the disease spread the least was Trial _.
In Trial C, of the 10 people who were not immune, _ people never got the disease.
Answer:
Trial A is the blue line.
B is the orange line.
C is the green line.
The trial in which the disease spread the least was Trial C.
3 people never got the disease.
Explanation:
The more immune, the less the disease spread.
In Trial C, if 10 people were immune and 7 were infected and there were 20, then 3 never got infected.
Trial A (no immunity) is the blue line. Trial B (25% immune) is the orange line. Trial C (50% immune) is the green line. The trial in which the disease spread the least was Trial C.
What is Immunity?Immunity may be defined as the capability of the individual's body to recognize foreign substances and prevent them from causing any type of illness or disease. It generally protects the body from infectious diseases.
According to the context of this question, the more immunity, the less the chances of disease spread. So, when there is no immunity in the blue line, the number of infected people is significantly high.
And when immunity is maximum in the green line (50%), there would be less number of infected individuals. In Trial C (green line) if there would be 10 people who possess a high level of immunity and 7 were infected and if there were 20, then 3 never got infected.
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The most recent blood work of a client with a diagnosis of heart failure indicates increased levels of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP). What is the most likely effect of these peptides on the client's physiology?
Optiosn are not provided in the question. The complete question s as following:
The most recent blood work of a client with a diagnosis of heart failure indicates increased levels of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP). What are the most likely effects of these peptides on the patient's physiology?
A. Water retention
B. Increased tubular sodium reabsorption
C. Counteracting the effects of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
D. Sympathetic nervous stimulation
Answer:
C. Counteracting the effects of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system
Explanation:
Atrial and ventricular volume / pressure expansion trigger the production of atrial natriuretic peptide (ANP) and brain natriuretic peptide (BNP) which are endogenously produced peptides.
The ANP and BNP plasma levels increase according to the extent of the heart failure. Myocardial stretching is a key factor in stimulating ANP and BNP secretion, while neurohumoral factors also play a role in the secretion process.
Natriuresis, Vasodilatation and activation of renin-angiotensin-aldosterone (RAA) and sympathetic nervous systems are the main physiological effects of ANP and BNP; both of which are expected to prevent the development of heart failure.
Hence, the correct option is C.
If the grasses contain 10,000 kcal, how much of that will a hawk consume?
A.10,000kcal
B.1,000kcal
C.100kcal
D.10 kcal
Answer:
10 kal
Explanation:
as energy goes through the pryamid it loses most of it energy and only ten percent of the energy will be passed on
The Glasgow Coma Scale is a common screening tool used for patients with a head injury. During the physical exam, the nurse documents that the patient is able to spontaneously open her eyes, obey verbal commands, and is oriented. The nurse records the highest score of:
Answer:
The highest score of Glasgow Coma Scale in this patient is 15.
Explanation:
The Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) is the most common screening scale used to describe the level of consciousness in a person after a traumatic brain injury.It has three components
1. eye response
2.verbal response
3. motor response
The lowest possible GCS is 3 which represents deep coma or death in patient, while the highest is 15 which represents fully alert and oriented patient.
Which of the following correctly describes one of the paths through which energy flows in this ecosystem? A. Puffins receive energy from herring, herring receive energy from krill, and krill receive energy from phytoplankton. B. Phytoplankton receive energy from krill, krill receive energy from jellyfish, and jellyfish receive energy from sea turtles. C. Mussels receive energy from copepods, copepods receive energy from phytoplankton, and phytoplankton receive energy from krill. D. Lobsters receive energy from codfish, codfish receive energy from herring, and herring receive energy from krill.
Answer:
A. Puffins receive energy from herring, herring receive energy from krill, and krill receive energy from phytoplankton.
Explanation:
A food chain represents the unidirectional network or path of the flow of energy and the matter in an ecosystem.
The aquatic food chain begins from the small or microscopic organisms called phytoplankton which is autotrophic therefore are considered the producers.
The phytoplanktons are eaten by a variety of other organisms in which the krills which live in the deep sea feeds on these phytoplanktons. The krills are the primary consumers who are eaten by small fish like herring which acts as secondary consumers. These herring are then eaten by the bird-like puffins and large fish which acts as tertiary consumers.
Thus, Option-A is the correct answer.
which winds are found primarily in the tropics:
Answer: Trade Winds.
Explanation:
Y e s.
Answer:
Trade Winds
Explanation:
How many synapses does a nervous signal have to cross when moving from an interneuron in the spinal cord to activate an effector organ for the somatic motor division?
Answer:
Two synapses.
Explanation:
Synapse or Synaptic cleft is the space two neurons or between a neuron or target organ where the signal is carried by neurotransmitter. Nerve signal first travel through interneuron to motorneuron passing through the first synapse, then the signal will travel to effector organ from motor neuron by passing through second synapse.
Describe the symmetry in members of phylum echinodermata?
Answer: Bilateral Symmetry
Explanation:
Echinoderms evolved from bilateral symmetric species.
Even though adult echinoderms have five-sided or pentaradial symmetry, echinoderm larvae are ciliated, free-swimming species that form in bilateral symmetry making them look like embryonic chordats. Example of echinodermata is starfish.
Bilateal symmetry allows them to move anywhere in the water. That when a predator is trapped by 2 arms, the other arms can be used effectively by continuously placing pressure on the body part to pressurerise the animal to open.
Hence, phylum echinodermata have bilateral symmetry.
Unattached earlobes are a dominant trait. Finn and Maggie both have unattached earlobes but their daughter, Celia, does not. If Finn and Maggie have a second child, what is the probability that it will have attached earlobes?A. 1/4B. 1/2C. 3/4D. 1E. 1/8
Answer:
Explanation:
It is in Spanish but you put it in the translator and the calculations are international
Over 95% of incoming UV-B radiation is absorbed in the stratosphere.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
True or false
Answer:
T
Explanation:
This is a diagram that shows the gene combinations that might result from a genetic cross.
Answer: punnett square
Explanation:
Answer:
Punnet square
Explanation:
In December, Bill was driving through Florida with his family. As they drove closer to the coast, Bill noticed that the air grew a little cooler. Which of the following statements best explains the temperature difference?
1. Air expands at higher temperatures.
2. Warm air moves toward the coastline from inland areas.
3. The land heats up faster than water, creating a sea breeze.
4. The water heats up faster than the land, creating a land breeze.
Answer:
3. The land heats up faster than water, creating a sea breeze.
Explanation:
In Florida, the average high-temperature is 72.9°F (22.7°C), and the average low-temperature is 52.3°F (11.3°C) in the month of December. A sea breeze can be described as it is a wind that blows from the ocean inland towards the land. This breeze occurs most often when there is a temperature differences between the ocean and nearby land, particularly in the afternoon when the land is at maximum heating from the sun.
The sun heats up both the ocean surface and the land during the day. Water and land, both absorb the energy from the sun. Water heats up much more slowly than land and so the air above the land will be warmer compared to the air over the ocean. The warm air over the land will rise throughout the day, causing low pressure at the surface. Over the water, high surface pressure will form because of the colder air. To compensate, the air will sink over the ocean. The wind will blow from the higher pressure over the water to lower pressure over the land causing the sea breeze.