Answer: the cathexis and anticathexis control how the id utilizes its energy. Cathexis refers to the id's dispersal of energy while the anticathexis serves to block inappropriate uses of this energy.
Explanation:
Answer:
According to the Freudian Theory of Drives
According to psychoanalyst Sigmund Freud, the cathexis and anticathexis control how the id utilizes its energy. Cathexis refers to the id's dispersal of energy while the anticathexis serves to block inappropriate uses of this energy. Learn more about how this process works.
Sequence the events that take place when a motor neuron's action potential triggers a muscle contraction.
a) The motor neuron's action potential arrives at the neuromuscular junction.
b) Myosin cross‑bridges attach to actin fibers.
c) The muscle fiber's plasma membrane depolarizes in response to the arrival of acetylcholine.
d) Calcium ions bind to troponin, which changes the conformation of the tropomyosin so the actin-binding sites are exposed.
e) The sarcoplasmic reticulum becomes more permeable in response to the action potential, causing a release of calcium ions.
f) The action potential moves throughout the muscle fiber along transverse (T) tubules.
Answer:
A,C,F,E,D,B
Explanation:
The is the sequence of action potential transmission at at the neuromuscular junction. Generally the arrival of action potential from the presynptic neuron caused influx of ca+ which causes migration and the release of the the acetycholine to the synaptic cleft.
The acetycholine binds with the receptors on the saccolemma to causes opening of Na+ , its influx to causes depolarizarion of the sacolemma. The depolarization of the latter spreads along the transverse tubules, This depolarization causes increases in the permeability of the sacorplasmic reticulum, with opening of ca+ channels and diffusion of Ca+ out of the S. reticulum.
The Ca+ binds to troponin,and tropomyosin exposed the myosin-binding sites on actin filament . The myosin head forms the cross bridges with the filament, and therefore the sacomere shortens leading causing muscle contraction.
A motor neuron is a specialized type of brain cell where the neurons are located in the spinal cord of the brain. They are differentiated into the upper and lower neuron cells.
A. The motor neuron's action potential takes place at the neuromuscular junction. C. The muscle fiber's plasma membrane depolarizes. F. The action potential moves throughout the muscle fiber along transverse (T) tubules. E. The sarcoplasmic reticulum becomes more permeable in response to the action potential, causing a release of calcium ions.D. Calcium ions bind to troponin, which changes the conformation of the tropomyosin so the actin-binding sites are exposed. B. Myosin cross‑bridges attach to actin fibers.Hence the correct options are A, C, F, E, D, and B.
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What is mechanical digestion? And chemical digestion? What type of digestion occurs in the mouth.
Mechanical digestion involves physically breaking down food into smaller pieces through chewing and swallowing, and begins in mouth and stomach. Chemical digestion involves breaking down food into simpler molecules with enzymes, starting in the mouth but mainly occurring in the small intestine.
Mechanical digestion refers to the physical breakdown of large pieces of food into smaller pieces which can be further processed by enzymes. In the mouth, mechanical digestion involves the process of chewing, which grinds food down into smaller pieces, and the action of swallowing.
Chemical digestion, on the other hand, is the chemical breakdown of food into simpler molecules by digestive enzymes. In the mouth, salivary enzymes begin the chemical digestion of carbohydrates. Both mechanical and chemical digestion occur in the mouth. While mechanical digestion continues in the stomach, chemical digestion is most extensive in the small intestine, helped by secretions from the pancreas and liver.
True Or False?
It is possible for gases in the atmosphere to change the behavior of energy on Earth.
it would be true by it causes the earth to heat up or cool down so your answer is true
Answer:
it would be true by it causes the earth to heat up or cool down so your answer is true
Explanation:
it would be true by it causes the earth to heat up or cool down so your answer is true
Water-soluble vitamins dissolve in water, and excess intake is generally excreted. Fortification of foods in the United States has reduced the incidence of deficiencies for many of these vitamins, but inadequate intake is still possible. Toxicity is less likely since these vitamins are not stored in the body, but excessive intake can still cause undesirable symptoms in some cases.
Fill in the blanks with appropriate options.1. --------------------------: A deficiency of this vitamin causes beriberi, which is characterized by weakness, swelling, and tingling or numbness in the hands and feet.2. ------------------------------------ : A severe deficiency of this vitamin causes the disease pellagra.3.------------------------------ : A deficiency of this vitamin is very rare, but those with inadequate intakes can experience numbness, muscle cramps, and difficulty walking.4. ----------------------: A deficiency of this vitamin can lead to sore tongue, skin inflammation, depression, confusion, or anemia.5. -------------------------------: Neural tube defects, like spina bifata, can occur if this nutrient is not consumed in adequate amounts during pregnancy.6. ------------------- : Those who follow a vegan diet without supplementation are at increased risk of deficiency for this vitamin.7. --------------------------- : Scurvy symptoms, caused by a deficiency of this nutrient, include rough skin rash and wounds that will not heal.
Options:a. vitamin B6b. vitamin B12c. niacind. folatee. thiaminf. vitamin Ce. pantothenic acid
Answer:
1) e. thiamin, 2) c. niacin, 3) g. pantothenic acid, 4) a. vitamin B6, 5) d. folate, 6) b. Vitamin B12 7) f. vitamin C
Explanation:
1. Beriberi is a disease caused by the deficiency of Vitamin 1, also known as thiamine. The symptoms of beriberi includes swelling, weakness, and tingling or numbness in the hands and feet.
2. Pellagra is caused by lack of the vitamin niacin Symptoms include inflamed skin, dementia, diarrhea and sores in the mouth.
3. Vitamin B5 or pantothenic vitamin deficiency include symptoms such as insomnia, numbness, irritability, stomach pains, burning feet, muscle cramps and difficulty in walking.
4. Deficiency of vitamin B6 causes skin inflammation, sore tongue, depression and anemia.
5. Folate regulate the neural system and deficiency of folate causes defects in neural tube such as spina bifata during pregnancy.
6. Vitamin B12 is found in animal products such as meat, fish, poultry, milk, eggs, and milk products. This vitamin is absent in plant or vegan diet and are more prone to its deficiency.
7. Scurvy is caused by the deficiency of Vitamin C. Its symptoms include include depression, fatigue and connective tissue defects .
Hence, the correct answer for the blanks is 1) e. thiamin, 2) c. niacin, 3) g. pantothenic acid, 4) a. vitamin B6, 5) d. folate, 6) b. Vitamin B12 7) f. vitamin C.
Sunlight can be considered a food resource.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided
True
False
Answer:
True!!
Explanation:
Answer:
true
Explanation: edge 2020
You hypothesize that a transcriptional regulator may control expression of specific genes in LB medium, and want to find out what these genes are. You have made a set of strains (i.e., library) in which a promoterless lacZ was inserted at varied chromosomal locations. Design an experiment to identify these genes using agar plates with LB and X-gal. Describe the steps in this procedure.
Answer:
if the promoterless lacZ is inserted close to any gene(s) or operon, then the laz gene will also be transcribed when the operon gets expressed. The polycystronic RNA will eventually produce a beta-galactosidase protein(product of lacZ gene) which will cleave X-Gal( structural analog to lactose), which will produce blue chromogenic substance.
prepare LB agar. Allow it to cool, add X-gal before it solidifies, pour to plates.
create grids and patch plate each strain on it. Just pick the strain that looks blue, amplify the sequence upstream of the lacZ and sequence it.
Explanation:
Just pick the strain that looks blue, amplify the sequence upstream of the lacZ, and sequence it.
What is the value of biodiversity?
Answer:
Biodiversity boosts ecosystem productivity where each species, no matter how small, all have an important role to play. For example, A larger number of plant species means a greater variety of crops. Greater species diversity ensures natural sustainability for all life forms.
Biodiversity is valuable as it provides essential ecosystem services, supports human livelihoods and well-being, and adds to the richness and beauty of life on Earth.
What is biodiversity?Biodiversity is the variety of life on Earth, encompassing the diversity of species, ecosystems, and the genetic variation within species. Biodiversity is essential to the functioning of ecosystems and to the provision of a wide range of goods and services, including food, fuel, fiber, and medicine, as well as the regulation of the Earth's climate and the maintenance of soil fertility.
Biodiversity is also important for its own sake, as it provides a rich tapestry of life that has evolved over billions of years and is an essential part of our heritage and the heritage of future generations. The loss of biodiversity, through processes such as habitat destruction, overexploitation, and climate change, is a major environmental challenge that is undermining the capacity of the planet to support human well-being and the survival of other species.
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Geneticists analyze pedigrees to follow the inheritance of genetically controlled conditions. Three things must be determined in a pedigree analysis:
The mode of inheritance of the condition. In this tutorial, this means deciding if a condition is caused by an autosomal dominant or autosomal recessive allele.
The genotypes of individuals in the pedigree (as far as can be known) based on their phenotype and the phenotypes of their parents or children.
The probability that certain individuals will have the condition. This requires assigning probability values to some individuals whose genotypes cannot be determined with certainty. It also requires an understanding of how and when to apply the product and sum rules.
Part A - Determining the mode of inheritance
The pedigrees below show the inheritance of three separate, rare autosomal conditions in different families. For each pedigree, decide if the condition is betterexplained as recessive or dominant.
Drag the correct label to the appropriate location. Labels can be used once, more than once, or not at all.
The pedigrees have not been provided. They have been attached.
Answer:
Pedigree 1 : Autosomal recessive
Pedigree 2 : Autosomal dominant
Pedigree 3 : Autosomal recessive
Explanation:
It has been given that the traits are autosomal i.e. they are not controlled by X and Y genes. We have to further find out if they are inherited in recessive pattern (autosomal recessive) or in dominant pattern (autosomal dominant).
Pedigree 1: Out of the three generations, the trait is only observed in one. This usually happens in recessive inheritance as two recessive alleles must be together to express the condition and this event has less chances of occurring. Also, it is visible how normal parents in first generation had a daughter with the recessive trait. This is possible if the parents were heterozygous for the trait or "carriers". They contributed one recessive allele each in the next generation due to which the daughter showed the recessive phenotype. Thus, this is most probably a recessive condition.
Pedigree 2: Out of the four generations, the trait is expressed in three. This usually happens in dominant inheritance as only one allele is needed to express the trait so both dominant homozygous and heterozygous individuals will show it. Thus, this is most probably a dominant condition.
Pedigree 3: This trait also skipped generations which is a feature of recessive traits. As with pedigree 1, the trait disappeared in pedigree and reappeared when two recessive alleles came together again. Thus, this is most probably a recessive condition.
Final answer:
Pedigree analysis helps determine whether a genetic condition is autosomal dominant or recessive by studying how the condition is transmitted across generations. Genotypes are inferred based on family member phenotypes, and the probability of inheriting the condition is estimated using genetic principles and Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium considerations.
Explanation:
Geneticists analyze pedigrees to deduce the mode of inheritance of genetic conditions. This involves determining whether a condition is autosomal dominant (AD) or autosomal recessive (AR). For an autosomal dominant condition, the presence of the disease in each generation and the transmission from an affected individual to about half of their offspring suggests the AD pattern. In contrast, an autosomal recessive condition usually appears in siblings without appearing in earlier generations unless there is consanguinity (inbreeding), indicative of the AR pattern.
Additionally, genotypes of individuals in the pedigree are inferred using phenotypes of family members and applying principles like the product and sum rules to predict the probability of inheriting the condition. When a pedigree shows a condition affecting both genders equally and doesn't skip generations, it is likely autosomal dominant. However, if the condition skips generations and affected individuals are often the children of unaffected, related parents, it is likely autosomal recessive.
When the exact genotype cannot be determined, probabilities are assigned to various genotypes. With the Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, allele and genotype frequencies in a large, randomly-mating population remain constant across generations unless affected by factors like mutation or selection.
What process creates the sand dune
Answer:
A dune is a mound of sand formed by the wind, usually along the beach or in a desert. Dunes form when wind blows sand into a sheltered area behind an obstacle. Dunes grow as grains of sand accumulate. Every dune has a windward side and a slipface.
Hope it helps. Peace
Explanation:
Answer:
deflation
Explanation:
How might you distinguish between these possibilities? Drag the terms on the left to the appropriate blanks on the right to complete the sentences. ResetHelp If repressor inhibits RNA polymerase binding to the promoter, then one way to demonstrate this would be to incubate a plasmid containing the lac operon with lac If repressor inhibits R N A polymerase binding to the promoter, then one way to demonstrate this would be to incubate a plasmid containing the lac operon with lac blank. Then add R N A polymerase and subject the mixture to sucrose gradient centrifugation and analyze each fraction for R N A polymerase and repressor, using antibodies to the two proteins. A simpler method would be to analyze the mixture by gel electrophoresis and probe the gel ( blank ) with antibodies to R N A polymerase and repressor ( blank ). Another experiment could involve footprinting; carry out blank assays, asking whether repressor inhibits R N A polymerase binding or vice versa.. Then add RNA polymerase and subject the mixture to sucrose gradient centrifugation and analyze each fraction for RNA polymerase and repressor, using antibodies to the two proteins. A simpler method would be to analyze the mixture by gel electrophoresis and probe the gel (
Answer:
all the given blanc spaces will be filled accordingly as below
Repressorwestern blotin separate gelscompetitive bindingExplanation:
In the cell, newly made proteins move directly from the ribosomes into the rough where they are chemically modified.
Answer:
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum
The journey of newly synthesized proteins involves their movement from ribosomes to the rough endoplasmic reticulum, where they undergo initial chemical modifications such as glycosylation and folding. Subsequently, the Golgi apparatus further refines and sorts these proteins before packaging them for transport to their final cellular locations.
The intracellular journey of newly synthesized proteins involves a well-coordinated process within the cell. After being produced by ribosomes, proteins move into the endoplasmic reticulum (ER) for further processing. The endoplasmic reticulum comes in two forms: rough endoplasmic reticulum (RER) and smooth endoplasmic reticulum (SER). In this context, the rough endoplasmic reticulum plays a crucial role in the initial stages of protein synthesis.
As proteins emerge from the ribosomes, they enter the lumen of the rough endoplasmic reticulum. The ribosomes associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum impart a studded appearance, indicative of their involvement in protein synthesis. Within the rough endoplasmic reticulum, these newly synthesized proteins undergo crucial post-translational modifications, including glycosylation and folding.
Glycosylation involves the addition of sugar molecules to the protein, contributing to its stability and functionality. Proper folding is essential for the protein to attain its functional three-dimensional structure. The modified and folded proteins are then transported to the Golgi apparatus for further processing and sorting. The Golgi apparatus is responsible for additional chemical modifications, sorting, and packaging proteins into vesicles for transport to their final cellular destinations.
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The question probable may be:
How is the intracellular journey of newly synthesized proteins facilitated, and where do they undergo chemical modifications after being produced by ribosomes?
True or false most mammals belong to group known as invertebrates
Answer:
False
Explanation:
All mammals are vertabrates, because they are in the phylum chordata, meaning that all of the animals there have vertebrae. In fact, all mammals have exactly 7 neck vertebrae, no matter how long their neck is.
Four weather satellites are orbiting the Earth at a height of 825 kilometers. Some characteristics of the satellites are shown in the table below. Upon which satellite does the Earth’s gravity exert the greatest force?
Answer:
The satellite to which the Earth's gravity exert the greatest force is:
The fourth.
Explanation:
The reason behind this is that in the first place there is no correlation between gravity force and length of an object. In the second place, the distance between all o them and the earth is the same. Now in the third place, the mass of the fourth Satelite is bigger than the rest, therefore it is the one that is dragged to the earth's gravity with a stronger pull because with bigger mass bigger gravity force.
Answer:
Its D on study island
Explanation:
if you're not sure that its D these are the numbers that should be in the chart:
5.6, 825, 903
RNA synthesis is always 5' to 3' because: A. the unwinding of the double-stranded DNA can only move one direction B. the structure of ATP restricts 3' to 5' polymerization into RNA C. RNA synthesis can move in the 3' to 5' direction D. None of these E. nucleotides can only be added to an available 3'-OH group on the transcript terminus F. nitrogenous bases cannot pair up in the 3' to 5' direction
Answer:
The correct answer is option E. "nucleotides can only be added to an available 3'-OH group on the transcript terminus".
Explanation:
RNA synthesis is catalyzed by an enzyme called RNA polymerase. RNA polymerase always catalyze the synthesis of new RNA from 5' to 3' because nucleotides can only be added to an available 3'-OH group on the transcript terminus. This has been confirmed in labeling experiments with γ-32P substrates which establish the presence of a triphosphate moiety in transcripts with either pppG or pppA.
Answer:
The correct answer is: E) nucleotides can only be added to an available 3'-OH group on the transcript terminus.
Explanation:
RNA synthesis is a key process that happens in the nucleus and is important for the synthesis of proteins. In order to Transcription (the process in which a strand of RNA is synthesized from a specific gene) to occur, the enzyme RNA Polymerase is needed to catalyze it. However, this process has a particular way to operate, since the synthesis of the new RNA strand can only be from 5' to 3' because the nucleotides can only be added to an available 3'-OH group on the transcript terminus.
Even before the structure of DNA was elucidated, experimental evidence indicated that the hereditary material had to have three key properties. Choose a correct combination of the options : a. must allow faithful replication. b. must have informational content. c. must be able to change on rare occasions. d. must be in the nucleus. e. must be degenerate
Answer:
The correct combination for the 3 key properties is:
a. must allow faithful replication.
b. must have informational content.
c. must be able to change on rare occasions.
Explanation:
Since every cell in one particular body essentially contains the same DNA, it has to be copied accurately every time a cell divides. The information that the DNA codes for is the proteins that get translated and accounts for every feature that organism will have. These rare changes are known as mutations and they are critical to introducing variation in the species and allowing them to evolve in response to environmental stimulation.
Hope that answers the question, have a great day!
There are several possible mutations in the trp operon:
1.
trpP - is a mutation in the promoter sequence that prevents RNA polymerase from binding to the promoter and initiate transcription of the trp operon genes.
trpOc is a mutation in the operator sequence that prevents the trp repressor protein from binding to the operator to block transcription of the trp operon genes.
trpR- is a mutation in the repressor protein that either prevents repressor protein from being made or produces a mutant repressor that cannot bind to the operator region.
trpRs is a mutation in the repressor protein that causes the repressor to be more sensitive to tryptophan levels. This mutant repressor binds the operator region even when tryptophan is low.
2. If you were to make a partial diploid with the genotype trp R+ trpOc / trpRs trpO+, what would happen? What is the dominance relationship between trpOc and trpRs?
a. trp genes will be expressed constitutively; trpRs is dominant to trpO c.
b. trp genes will not be expressed; trpO c is dominant to trpR s.
c. trp genes will not be expressed; trpR s is dominant to trpOc.
d. trp genes will be expressed constitutively; trpO c is dominant to trpRs.
e. trp genes will be expressed normally (repressible); trpO c and trpRs cancel each other out.
3.The trp repressor binds to the operator region of DNA as a dimer (two repressor protein subunits bound together as a unit).
You isolate a new mutant E.coli strain that you call Rnovel. In this strain, the repressor protein cannot attach to DNA (it cannot bind trpO+), but it can make dimers.
In this strain, how is the expression of the trp operon regulated?
a. constitutive
b. inducible
c. repressible
d. noninducible
4. You make a partial diploid of this new strain by introducing a wild type F' plasmid.
trpRnovel trpO+ / trpR+ trpO +
Given what you know about the "novel" mutation, how will the expression of the trp operon be regulated in this partial diploid?
a. Expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRnovel is recessive to trpR+.
b. The expression of trp genes will be repressible. trpRnovel is recessive to trpR+.
c. The expression of trp genes will be repressible. trpRnovel is dominant to trpR+.
d. The expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRnovel is dominant to trpR+.
5. Now predict the outcome of a partial diploid of your novel dominant-negative mutation (trpR d-) and a trpR s mutation.
trpRd- trpO+ / trpRs trpO+
How would trp genes be regulated in this partial diploid?
a. There will be no expression of trp genes. trpRd- is recessive to trpRs.
b. The expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRd- is dominant to trpRs.
c. The expression of trp genes will be constitutive. trpRd- is recessive to trpRs.
d. There will be no expression of trp genes. trpRd- is dominant to trpRs.
Answer:
2b. 3a. 4d. 5a.
Explanation:
1. Summary
trpP - Malfunction promotertrpOc - Malfunction operatortrpR - Malfunction repressor protein (non-working protein)trpRs - Repessor protein overworks2. Partial diploid: trpR + trpOc/ trpRs + trpOc
b. trp genes will not be expressed; trpOc is dominant.A gene includes promoter, operator, and coding region, in which the promoter and operator play a role in controlling gene expression.Because trpOc makes the operator not to accept repressor protein. It means that whatever the repressor proteins, the gene will not be expressed. And thus, trpOc is more dominant.3. Rnovel: repressor protein cannot bind to DNA, but can make dimers.
a. constitutiveBecause repressor protein cannot bind to DNA and regulate gene expression. DNA gene expression is continued.4. trpRnovel & trpO+/ trpR+ & trpO+
d. The expression of trp genes will be constituted. trpRnovel is dominant.trpRnovel leads to repressor protein not binding to DNA, then it is dominant than the normal one.5. trpR d- & trpO+/ trpRs & trpO+
a. There will be no expression of trp genes. trpRd-is recessive.trpRd- is a negative mutation, so it does not affect the work of the protein.trpRs produces sensitive repressor protein, which will block the expression.The table below shows the average annual precipitation over a period of five years in three locations of
Florida.
Locations
Amount of precipitation
Between 45 to 65 inches
2
More than 96 inches
Less than 8 inches
Which of these statements is most likely true for Location 3? (3 points)
It is the most populated location
It is very far away from the ocean
Its people would depend on rivers for water
Its people would leave and migrate to other locations
The most likely scenario for Location 3 with less than 8 inches of annual precipitation is that its people would depend on rivers for their water supply.
Given that precipitation exceeds evaporation in most continental areas, rivers become crucial for supplying water to regions with low rainfall. In areas with annual precipitation less than 250 mm, human populations typically depend on alternative water sources, such as rivers, groundwater, or imported water, for their livelihoods and agricultural needs.
Moreover, areas with low precipitation might not support large populations effectively, so it would be less likely that Location 3 is the most populated. The statement about migration is speculative and cannot be determined from precipitation data alone.
The statement "Its people would depend on rivers for water" is most likely true for Location 3.
The correct option is (c).
Given that Location 3 receives less than 8 inches of precipitation annually, it falls into the category of regions with very low precipitation. In such areas, access to water sources becomes critical for human survival and various activities. Since the location receives minimal rainfall, people residing there would likely rely heavily on alternative water sources such as rivers for their water needs, including drinking, irrigation, and other domestic purposes.
While the other statements may be possible depending on additional factors, such as population density or geographical features, the statement about depending on rivers for water is the most directly related to the low precipitation levels experienced in Location 3.
which of the following could protect fish from being extinct by over fishing?
An available niche after extinction can lead to speciation because it allows the emergence of genetic variation in other competing species that could protect fish from being extinct by over fishing.
What is speciation?Speciation has a slow process which has been associated with the emergence of the reproductive isolation barriers in the population. These barriers lead to the absence of the gene flow as well as eventually to the emergence of the new species. In the conclusion an available niche will be lead to the speciation in other competing species.
The Ordovician mass extinction. Jawless fish and ocean reefs were devastated by the end of the Ordovician mass extinction. Overfishing is one of the major concern no a days in aquatic systems. overfishing is resulting in the extinction of aquatic organisms and it can lead to several damage to other living organism.
Therefore, An available niche after extinction can lead to speciation because it allows the emergence of genetic variation in other competing species that could protect fish from being extinct by over fishing.
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Some years ago, it was suggested that the function of the poly(A) tail on a eukaryotic message may be to ′′ticket′′ the message. That is, each time the message is used, one or more residues is removed, and the message is degraded after the tail is shortened below a critical length. Suggest an experiment to test this hypothesis. Match the words in the left column to the appropriate blanks in the sentences on the right.
Answer:
The hypothesis that whether the poly (A) tail degrade after certain limit or not certain limit can be detected by critically analyzing the sample containing bulk amount mRNA (messenger ribonucleic acid). If certain parts were found having certain minimum length, then the hypothesis would be correct. This would show that all the mRNAs with short tails have got degraded.
Explanation:
One such test could involve measuring the distribution of poly(A) chain lengths in bulk mRNA . If the "ticketing" hypothesis is correct, then shorter poly(A) tails would be underrepresent.
The experiment to test the poly(A) tail "ticketing" hypothesis is to measure the distribution of poly(A) chain lengths in bulk mRNA as a function of translation.
If the hypothesis is correct, then shorter poly(A) tails should be underrepresented in actively translated mRNA.
This is because the poly(A) tail is shortened each time the mRNA is translated.
For example, investigating the localization of RNA with different lengths of poly(A) tails in the cell would not tell us whether the poly(A) tail is shortened during translation.
Similarly, overexpressing poly(A) polymerase would not tell us whether the poly(A) tail is shortened during translation, since poly(A) polymerase is responsible for adding poly(A) tails to mRNA, not removing them.
Here is a more detailed description of the experiment:
Isolate mRNA from cells that are actively translating the mRNA of interest. This can be done using a variety of methods, such as affinity chromatography or RNA sequencing.
Measure the length of the poly(A) tails on the mRNA. This can be done using a variety of methods, such as gel electrophoresis or PCR.
Compare the distribution of poly(A) tail lengths in the actively translated mRNA to the distribution of poly(A) tail lengths in total cellular mRNA.
If the poly(A) tail is shortened during translation, then the distribution of poly(A) tail lengths in the actively translated mRNA should be shifted towards shorter poly(A) tails.
This experiment can be repeated with cells that are translating the mRNA of interest at different rates.
For example, cells can be treated with antibiotics that slow down translation or with amino acids that stimulate translation.
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What are the four basic characteristics that result in natural selection? Explain how bacteria encountering an antibiotic exhibit each of these characteristics. How was "cycling" supposed to slow the evolution of antibiotic resistant bacteria? What situation did Carl build a model of? What did that model predict? How did he test his model? Describe one situation in which you could use an experiment to test a hypothesis about evolution. What are some of the benefits of using a computer model to test an idea instead of an experiment?
Answer:
Explanation:
1) Four characteristics that results in natural selection are: 1)reproduction,
2)heredity,
3)variation in fitness
4)variation in individual
Antibiotic resistance of bacteria can not be described as instance of evolution but as a kind of variation arround some kind of bacteria.
Antibiotics refers to substances that are secreted by bacteria and fungi to destroy other bacteria that can be competing for small nutrients with them.this substances is used in treatment of people today
Some bacteria have become resistant to antibiotics by different type of alterations as well as mutations, in each their DNA.
Bacteria that are resistant to modern antibiotics has been detected in dead bodies that has been frozen before the discoveries of the antibiotics
Bacteria can become resistance by these different ways such as;
1. Through mutation
2) through Gene transfer( DNA swapping
An antibiotic kills a bacterial cell by simply disrupting a critical function. This is achieved in the cell in much the same way that a saboteur can cause a massive jetliner to crash by simply cutting the hydraulic lines.
2) Antibiotic cycling refers to process in which antibiotic heterogeneity takes place.it is a method use in ICU where the emergency of resistance that takes place because of small antibiotics class is reduced.
3)Carl's modeling evolution is found in antibiotic resistance process, modelling of new human pathogens, especially HIV. He also model on how evolution of pathogens is affected by immune system . modeling gives room to make predictions about evolution.
4)Some experiment were conducted by Charles Darwin to support hypothesis of evolution, such experiment included phototropism also insectivorous nature of Drosera.
5)The Main benefit of using
computer model to test an idea instead of an experiment are to do the thorough Study the behavior of a system even you haven't build it. The results from the simulation is usually accurate when , compared to analytical model. It is very simple to perform and helps to detect un-expected phenomenon about the system
The four basic characteristics that lead to natural selection are variation, inheritance, high rate of population growth, and differential survival and reproduction. These are illustrated when bacteria encounter antibiotics, with resistant bacteria surviving and passing their genes to subsequent generations. Computer models offer an efficient and ethical alternative for studying long-term evolutionary processes.
The four basic characteristics that result in natural selection are variation, inheritance, high rate of population growth, and differential survival and reproduction. When bacteria encounter antibiotics, these principles come into play. First, there is variation within the population of bacteria as some may possess genes that confer resistance to the antibiotic. Through inheritance, these genes can be passed on to the next generation. With the selective pressure of the antibiotic, which kills the non-resistant bacteria, the resistant ones survive and reproduce. This differential survival and reproduction mean that over time, the population evolves to consist mostly of antibiotic-resistant bacteria.
The idea of “cycling” antibiotics was to slow this evolution by regularly changing the type of antibiotics used, thereby reducing the constant pressure for the bacteria to develop resistance to any one type.
Regarding the mention of Carl's model, without additional context, it is challenging to address what situation Carl built a model of, what it predicted, and how he tested it. Therefore, that part of the question can't be answered confidently.
In terms of testing a hypothesis about evolution, one could design an experiment where one group of bacteria is exposed to an antibiotic and another is not. Over time, the genetic makeup of the two groups can be compared to observe evolutionary changes.
Computer models are advantageous as they can save time and resources, allow for the study of long-term processes, and mitigate ethical or practical constraints associated with real-world experiments.
What are the subcomponents of DNA?
Answer:
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It consists of a 5-carbon sugar (deoxyribose), phosphate group, and nitrogen bases. ... DNA's nitrogen bases are called: adenine, thymine, cytosine, and guanine.
Which clas does honey bee belong too?
Answer:
Insect
Explanation:
Are you looking for class or kingdom?
Answer:
The honey bee belongs to the INSECT class
Explanation:
elements are joined chemically
mixuture or compound
Answer:
compounds
Explanation:
compounds are chemically combined
mixtures are not chemically combined
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A cell that neither gains nor loses a net amount of water at equilibrium when it is immersed in a solution is ________. Group of answer choices hypertonic to its environment hypotonic to its environment metabolically inactive isotonic to its environment
Answer:
Isotonic to its environment
Explanation:
Isotonic means 'the same'. A cell that is isotonic to its environment is the type of cell that doesn't lose or gain water because equal amounts go in and out of the cell. The environment extracellular fluid has the same osmolarity as the cell thus, there will be no net movement of water into or out of the cell.
Biology shows us the fossil record and comparative anatomies. Chemistry shows us that organic molecules can come from inorganic matter. Geology shows us that organisms that used to live together are found on separate continents due to continental drift. Which fields of science provide evidence for evolution?
Answer:
All of this fields of science is very important that provide evidence for evolution. if we look at biology, it shows how the organism change over time. geology can get us information about the fossils, soil and other things and chemistry can show us every molecule in our body to environment.
Explanation:
Biology, geology, and chemistry all the three field of science provide evidence for the evolution of species. Thus, all the options are correct.
What is Evolution?Evolution of a species can be defined as the gradual process of development. Evolution is the change in heritable traits of the biological populations of different species over successive generations. Evolutionary processes helps to give rise to diversity at every biological organization level. All the different life forms on earth shares a common ancestor known as the last universal ancestor.
Biology shows fossil record and comparative anatomies. Chemistry shows the age of fossils and their nature. Geology shows that the organisms which live together have separated into different continents with time.
Therefore, all the options are correct.
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A strand of DNA that is 36 nucleotides long codes for how many amino acids?
Answer:
See answer below
Explanation:
Hi there,
Assuming this DNA strand is fully capable of being mature mRNA (5' m7G cap and PolyA tail), nucleotides lead to an mRNA codon, which is 3 nucleotides per codon. In turn, 1 codon leads to 1 amino acid. However, as a single strand, it must be capable of terminating translation, which always requires a stop codon, and thus 3 nucleotides. Hence, we must subtract this from the total amount of codons first.
[tex]36 \ ncltd \ \frac{1 \ codon}{3 \ ncltd} = 12 \ codon\\12 \ codon - 1 \ codon \ = 11 \ codon\\11 \ codons\ \frac{1 A.A.}{1 \ codon} = 11 \ A. A.[/tex]
Hence, only 11 amino acids will be coded by a single DNA strand 36 ncltd long.
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Which of the following statements is true? Multiple Choice In the United States, molds and parasitic worms are responsible for most cases of food-borne illness. In the United States, most fruits, vegetables, mushrooms, and deli meats undergo irradiation to preserve them. Pregnant women, very young children, and people who have weakened immune systems have high risk of food-borne illness. Sulfites are added to grain products during the enrichment process.
Answer:
Pregnant women, very young children, and people who have weakened immune systems have high risk of food-borne illness.
Explanation:
Immune system in the body helps to fight against pathogenic organisms which gets into the body. The organisms are capable of causing varying illnesses according to their form and types.
This explains why Pregnant women, very young children, and people who have weakened immune systems have high risk of food-borne illness. This is because their immune system won’t be able to fight well against these pathogens.
The statement Pregnant women, very young children, and people who have weakened immune systems have high risk of food-borne illness is true.
This statement is true because these groups are more vulnerable to foodborne pathogens.
Sulfites are not commonly added to grain products during the enrichment process. Instead, they are often used as preservatives in dried fruits and wine.
Microorganisms such as bacteria, viruses, parasites, and prions are the common causes of foodborne diseases in the United States.
A researcher is measuring the oxygen consumption of subjects while they are seated and performing 5 repetitions of concentric isotonic contractions at the rate of 0.5/second on an isolated muscle, the biceps brachii, loaded with 33% of the minimum isometric load. On the next day, the same subjects are required to perform 50 contractions at the same rate with the same load. What is likely to be different about the sarcomere functions during the second-day trials?
a. Greater power output
b. Higher cellular ATP/ADP ratio
c. Less oxygen consumption per second
d. More calcium release
e. Slower cross-bridge cycling
Answer:
c. Less oxygen consumption per second
Explanation:
The sarcomere is a functional unit of muscle tissue. During repeated muscle contractions, the oxygen delivery to the muscle is reduced. As noted in the question, the rate and load of muscle contractions are the same under both conditions but the differences in the number of contractions in the second day experiment only increase. So as the number of contractions increases, more time is required to work. But continuous work can lead to a shortage of oxygen. Therefore, due to low availability, less oxygen per second is consumed. Lactic acid production by anaerobic respiration through muscle tissue causes muscle fatigue. Considering other dubious options, there is no increase in load and there is not much power generation. At the same time, ATP consumption increases due to continuous contraction, so the cellular ATP / ADP ratio is generally reduced. Since the calcium release by the sarcomere is reduced during continuous muscle contraction and the contraction rate does not change, the cross-bridge cycling speed is not affected.Christiane Nüsslein-Volhard and her colleagues carried out several experiments in an attempt to understand what determines the anterior and posterior ends of a Drosophila larva (reviewed in C. NüssleinVolhard, H. G. Frohnhofer, and R. Lehmann. 1987. Science 238:1675– 1681). They isolated fruit flies with mutations in the bicoid gene (bcd−). These flies produced embryos that lacked a head and thorax. When they transplanted cytoplasm from the anterior end of an egg from a wild-type female into the anterior end of an egg from a mutant bicoid female, normal head and thorax development took place in the embryo. However, transplanting cytoplasm from the posterior end of an egg from a wild-type female into the anterior end of an egg from a bicoid female had no effect. Explain these results in regard to what you know about proteins that control the determination of the anterior–posterior axis.
Answer:
Explanation:
Bicoid gene is the maternal effect gene whose protein concentration gradient patters the anterior-posterior axis in Drosophila embryogenesis. It was the primary protein that is demonstrated to act as a morphogen. Morphogens are proteins whose concentration gradient will affect the developmental fate of the surrounding region.
The specified bicoid gene is the one which codes for bicoid protein. This protein is being existing in a gradient manner in the egg and thus its concentration is higher at the anterior end and lower in posterior end.
This bicoid protein is responsible for the stimulation of the development of the anterior end.
The posterior region (including the hindgut) expands and extends towards the anterior pole along the dorsal side of the embryo. At this time, segments of the embryo become visible, creating a striped arrangement along the anterior-posterior axis.
Which of the statements regarding DNA replication are true? Replication takes place in the 5 ′ 5′ to 3 ′ 3′ direction on the leading strand and in the 3 ′ 3′ to 5 ′ 5′ direction on the lagging strand. Replication usually takes place in the 5 ′ 5′ to 3 ′ 3′ direction. Eukaryotic chromosomes have more than one origin of replication. Leading strand fragments (Okazaki fragments) are synthesized semi‑discontinuously and must be joined by DNA ligase. New nucleotides add to the 5 ′ 5′ phosphate of the growing DNA molecule.
Answer:
replication takes place from 5' to 3'
Explanation:
DNA replication goes from 5' to 3' for both the leading and lagging strands. However, lagging strand replication is semi-discontinuous, occurring via Okazaki fragments which are then linked by DNA ligase. Eukaryotic chromosomes do indeed have several replication origins.
Explanation:You're right that DNA replication typically takes place from the 5' to 3' direction, and this pattern holds true for both the leading and lagging strands. During replication, DNA polymerase adds new nucleotides to the 3' end of the growing strand, resulting in a 5' to 3' directionality. However, the replication method differs between the leading and lagging strand. For the leading strand, DNA replication is continuous. For the lagging strand, DNA replication takes place in chunks known as Okazaki fragments, which are later joined together by DNA ligase - hence, it is described as being synthesized semi-discontinuously. Additionally, it's accurate that eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication to speed up the process.
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