Answer:
If calcium were removed from the tissue then the polarity will be established within the cell but polarity will be lost in the tissue.
Explanation:
Cell polarity is the cellular components like cytoplasm, plasma membranes and other various cell organelles in the asymmetric order. The coordinated arrangement of this cell polarity in tissue plane is called as planar cell polarity (PCP). Calcium is the major component in the tissues that helps in formation of bones and other parts of body, if it is removed then the polarity will not be seen in the tissue, but in the cell the polarity will be established.A student travels to Brazil by boat on the Amazon River, without visiting the doctor prior to traveling for recommended vaccinations for travel to South America. The student becomes ill during the trip and is quarantined. Which of the diseases listed below does the student most likely have?
A) hantavirus
B) yellow fever
C) Ebola
D) Q fever
Answer:
The correct answer is B) Yellow fever
Explanation:
Yellow fever is a viral disease and this disease is spread by the bite of female Aedes aegypti mosquitoes that are found in Brazil and many other South American countries and the chances of getting yellow fever gets increase when anyone travels through amazon river.
The symptoms of yellow fever disease are fever, headache, back pain, nausea, and in some people it causes liver damage which results in yellowing of the skin.
So if anyone is traveling to Brazil in South America then he must be vaccinated for yellow fever which is also recommended by the WHO and CDC. Therefore yellow fever would be the disease that the student would most likely to have.
Final answer:
The student most likely has yellow fever, which is caused by the yellow fever virus transmitted by mosquito vectors.
Explanation:
The student most likely has yellow fever.
Yellow fever is caused by the yellow fever virus and is transmitted to humans by mosquito vectors. It occurs primarily in tropical and subtropical areas in South America and Africa. The virus can be transmitted from infected monkeys to humans in tropical jungle regions, or between humans in urban areas.
Prevention of yellow fever includes the use of mosquito netting, window screens, insect repellents, insecticides, and vaccination for those traveling to endemic areas.
Indicate if the conditions described would result in the development of a male or a female individual. SRY is a gene on the Y chromosome that is involved in initiating the development of the male phenotype in humans.
Final answer:
The presence and functionality of the SRY gene on the Y chromosome dictates the development of a male phenotype, leading to testis formation and testosterone secretion. Without a functional SRY gene, the embryo will develop female sex characteristics by default.
Explanation:
The conditions described would result in the development of a male individual if the SRY gene is present and functional. The SRY gene of the Y chromosome in embryonic germ cells produces the testis-determining SRY protein. This sets off a cascade of genetic activations that lead to the differentiation of the bipotential gonadal tissue into testes, which then secrete testosterone to further the development of male sex characteristics. Conversely, if the SRY gene is not present (as is the case for females with XX chromosomes) or it is mutated (as in conditions like Swyer syndrome), the individual will develop female characteristics.
A typical XY genotype with a functional SRY gene will inevitably cause an embryo to develop into a male. However, without the SRY gene or if a mutation occurs within it, the default development of the embryo will be a female. Cellular differentiation within the bipotential gonads will occur towards the formation of oogonia and primordial follicles in the ovary, rather than forming spermatogonia as it would in the presence of SRY.
In land mammals, the pelvic girdle is the point where the leg bones attach to the rest of the skeleton. Whales also have a small pelvic girdle. What type of evidence for common descent would include the whale's pelvic girdle?
Answer: comparative anatomy
Explanation:Darwin proposed that the forelimbs of human, bats and other creatures (whale) are similar. Although these Fore limbs are used for different purposes; he reasoned that similar forelimbs must have the same origin(Anatomy). He therefore concluded that these organisms should share same ancestors for evolution of modern Organism forms. He reasoned further that these modifications in body structures are required adaptations for survival in the competitive environment –survival of the fittest.
Charles Darwin was an evolutionist, a biologist of immense knowledge. He formulated the law of survival of the fittest
The whale's pelvic girdle serves as evidence for common descent, showing that whales evolved from land mammals that had four legs. The presence of vestigial structures, such as undeveloped hind legs, along with fossil records showing land animal characteristics in aquatic mammals like Rodhocetus, supports the shared ancestry of whales and land mammals.
Explanation:The Pelvic Girdle as Evidence for Common Descent
The presence of a pelvic girdle in whales provides evidence for common descent, indicating that whales and land mammals share common ancestors. In land mammals, the pelvic girdle is a crucial structure that attaches the legs to the axial skeleton and is adapted for supporting body weight and facilitating locomotion. Whales, despite being aquatic and not needing legs for locomotion, have vestigial pelvic bones. These structures are remnants from their four-legged land mammal ancestors, implying that whales evolved from such land-dwelling creatures and secondarily lost their hind legs. In particular, vestigial structures like the undeveloped hind legs in baleen whales, labeled as 'c' in skeletal diagrams, further support this evolutionary link. Additionally, the fossil record shows evidence, such as the aquatic mammal Rodhocetus possessing a type of ankle bone unique to land animals, corroborating the evolutionary transition from land to sea.
When mosquitoes are very abundant, purple martins flock to the area and specialize on them. When mosquito populations are not large, purple martins are similarly scarce and feed on other insects. This is an example of
A) community carrying capacity.
B) ecosystem carrying capacity.
C) exotic regulation.
D) density-independent regulation.
E) density-dependent regulation
Answer:
The correct answer is E) density-dependent regulation.
Explanation:
When the population growth rate is dependent on the density of a population then it comes under density-dependent regulation. Usually, when a population becomes denser the mortality rate becomes high in that population.
This regulation can occur due to factors like predation, disease, inter or intraspecies competition. So here when the density of the mosquitoes becomes high then purple martin flock to the area and specialize in them to gain nutrition which stabilizes the population of mosquitoes again.
Density-dependent regulation is more significant when the population density of a species increase. So the right answer is E.
Which structure is indicated by letter D?
O Posterior dorsal root
O Anterior ventral root
O Peripheral nerve
O Dorsal horn
The structure indicated by letter D is the Dorsal horn.
Explanation:The structure indicated by letter D is the Dorsal horn. The dorsal horn is a region of gray matter within the spinal cord that receives sensory information from the body via the posterior dorsal root. It is involved in processing and transmitting sensory signals to the brain.
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Restriction enzymes cleave double-stranded DNA at the sites that show a particular type of symmetry: These sequences read the same on both strands and are called palindromes. Which of the following sequences is NOT a palindrome?
A) 5′-AGATCT-3′
B) 5′-CCTGCAGG-3′
C) 5′-CCTCAGG-3′
D) 5′-CGGCCG-3′
E) 5′-GGTACC-3′
Answer:
The correct answer is C) 5"-CCTCAGG-3"
Explanation:
Palindromic sequence is a that remain same when read from front side as well as from the back side.
Such as MADAM,ROTOR
In the given question option C is not a palindromic sequence beacuse when we read from frontside it is
5"-CCTCAGG-3"
But when we this this same sequence from the backside it becomes
5"CCTGAGG-3"
What maintains the secondary structure of a protein?
Select one:
a. hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond
b. peptide bonds between adjacent amino acids
c. hydrogen bonds between the carboxyl group of one peptide bond and the R group of another amino acid Incorrect
d. disulfide bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the R group of another amino acid
Answer:
The correct answer is a. hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond.
Explanation:
The secondary structure of proteins are formed by α-helices and β-structures, that can be supported by hydrogen bonds between amine hydrogens and another peptide bond.
The secondary structure of a protein is maintained by hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another.
Explanation:The secondary structure of a protein is maintained by hydrogen bonds between the amino group of one peptide bond and the carboxyl group of another peptide bond. This arrangement is specifically between the amino group (NH) of one amino acid and the carboxyl group (CO) of another amino acid in the protein chain. The hydrogen bonds help to stabilize the secondary structure which typically takes the form of alpha-helices and beta-pleated sheets.
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Blood is best classified as connective tissue because _____.
Answer:
It is composed of extracellular matrix (ground substance) and cells
Explanation:
Connective tissue is defined as a type of tissue which binds other tissues and it is composed of a ground substance comprising of fibres into which tissue specific cells are scattered.
Blood has plasma as the ground substance in which blood cells (RBCs, WBCs, platelets are scattered)
Further, it also connects various parts of the body, i.e. acts as a medium for transport and signaling.
Blood is classified as a connective tissue because it consists of cells and an extracellular matrix (plasma), similar to other connective tissues. It participates in connecting different parts of the body by transporting oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products.
Explanation:Blood is best classified as connective tissue because it has a similar structure to other types of connective tissue and serves the vital function of connecting different parts of the body. Like other connective tissues, it has cells, an extracellular matrix, and a liquid called plasma. The cells in blood, which include red blood cells, white blood cells, and platelets, are suspended in the plasma. The unique feature of this tissue type is the presence of an extensive extracellular matrix, which in the case of blood is composed mostly of water with dissolved proteins, salts, and nutrients. The major role of blood as a connective tissue rests on its effort to transport oxygen, nutrients, hormones, and waste products between different parts of the body.
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Cold case detectives are investigating a homicide that took place 30 years ago. In reexamining the evidence, they find a tiny spot of blood on the victim’s clothing that was likely left by the murderer. The DNA in the blood has partially degraded over time. What technique(s) would the blood lab technicians use in their examination of this tiny, degraded blood sample? Select all that apply.
A) They would use a restriction enzyme and DNA ligase to make recombinant DNA from this sample.
B) They would use PCR to amplify the DNA.
C) They would use reverse transcriptase-polymerase chain reaction (RT-PCR) to determine the genes expressed in this DNA.
Answer:
They would use PCR to amplify the DNA.
Explanation:
PCR or Polymerase Chain Reaction, using a thermostable enzyme, Taq Polymerase. It is a molecular biology technique, whose objective is to obtain a large number of copies of a DNA fragment of interest, starting from a minimum. It is done in a thermal cycler.
This technique serves to amplify a DNA fragment; after amplification it is much easier to identify with a very high probability, virus or bacteria causing a disease, identify people or do scientific research on amplified DNA.
To examine degraded DNA from a 30-year-old homicide case, technicians would use PCR to amplify DNA with possible follow-up through RFLP analysis for DNA fingerprinting, which is crucial for identifying the source of the forensic sample. So the correct option is B.
Explanation:Cold case detectives investigating a 30-year-old homicide case would likely use Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) to amplify the degraded DNA found in a tiny blood sample on the victim's clothing. PCR is a powerful technique that can increase the quantity of specific DNA sequences for further analysis, making it possible to work with the small and degraded samples typical of old cases. PCR is used in conjunction with restriction fragment length polymorphism (RFLP) analysis to generate DNA fingerprints. While Option A (using restriction enzyme and DNA ligase to make recombinant DNA) could be part of this process, it is more typical to use PCR and RFLP, and Option C (using RT-PCR) is not relevant for this case as it is used to study gene expression, not to amplify DNA from a forensic sample.
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Ion channel gates close the pores of some ion channels in response to
Select one:
a. a change in electrical charge.
b. stretching of the cell membrane.
c. the binding of specific molecules to the channel.
d. All of the above
Answer:
All of the above
Explanation:
The ions present in our body can move through voltage gated ions channels present in the cell. The ions are unequally distributed in the interior and exterior of the cell.
The ion gated channel may get open or close depending upon the presence of the different ions. These ions movement changes the electric potential of the cell. The ions movement results in the propagation of the nerve impulse and may cause the cell membrane stretching. The binding of the molecules to the ion channels may open or close the movement of particular ions.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Final answer:
Ion channel gates can close in response to changes in electrical charge, mechanical stretching of the cell membrane, or the binding of specific molecules, meaning 'All of the above' is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Ion channel gates are integral components of cellular membranes and respond to various stimuli to maintain the cell's homeostasis. The closing of the pores of ion channels can occur due to a change in electrical charge, resulting from a change in membrane potential; mechanical stretching of the cell membrane, which can be detected by mechanically gated channels; or the binding of specific molecules to the channel, such as ligand-gated ion channels responding to neurotransmitters, or the interaction with G-proteins that may indirectly lead to channel opening.
Therefore, when we consider the stimuli that can lead to the closing of ion channel gates, the correct answer to the question is d. All of the above. Ion channels allow rapid and selective ion transport across cellular membranes, contributing to crucial processes such as the transmission of nerve impulses and muscle contraction.
Why are single-stranded binding proteins necessary for DNA replication?
a. They provide the energy necessary to separate the two strands of DNA.
b. They direct the primase where to lay down the primer.
c. None of the answer options is correct.
d. They direct where replication will start.
e. They prevent the two parental strands from coming together again.
Answer:
The correct answer is e. They prevent the two parental strands from coming together again.
Explanation:
The replication of DNA requires not only DNA polymerase but also some other enzymes and proteins. To start DNA replication the double-strand DNA should be open up first which becomes possible by the action of DNA helicase.
This separated strand tends to anneal again so to prevent the reannealing of separated DNA strand single-strand-binding protein binds to these open strands. Therefore SSB protein stabilize the single stranded DNA so that the replication takes place fluently.
Therefore the correct answer is e. They prevent the two parental strands from coming together again.
Single-stranded binding proteins necessary for DNA replication because (E), they prevent the two parental strands from coming together again.
What are single-stranded binding proteins?Single-stranded binding proteins (SSBs) are proteins that bind to single-stranded DNA (ssDNA). They do this by recognizing specific sequences of nucleotides on the ssDNA. Once SSBs have bound to ssDNA, they prevent the two strands from coming together again. This is important for DNA replication, because it allows the DNA polymerase to access the ssDNA and start copying it.
The other answer options are incorrect. Option a is incorrect because the energy necessary to separate the two strands of DNA is provided by helicase. Option b is incorrect because the primase is a protein that lays down the primer, which is a short segment of RNA that DNA polymerase uses to start copying DNA. Option c is incorrect because SSBs do not direct where replication will start.
So the answer is E.
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Mullet are local estuarine fish that move in schools and feed on plankton and plant matter. Natural predators of the mullet include spotted sea trout, sharks, pelicans and dolphins. The graph below shows how the number of mullet in an area has changed over time.
Based on the data, one student concludes that a new predator was introduced into the area during this time period. Which of the following is a likely alternate explanation for the change in the mullet population?
answer choices
A. mullet prey increased in the area
B. mullet parasites decreased in the area
C. the temperature of the area increased
D. the amount of aquatic plants in the area decreased
Answer:
The correct option is D. the amount of aquatic plants in the area decreased
Explanation:
The changes in a population of a single species can bring diverse effects on the entire food chain or food- web of an ecosystem.
If the amounts of producers, which are aquatic plants in the above scenario, decreases then the amount of consumers will also decrease as the consumers will compete for food and only those organisms will be able to survive which are better adapted in taking up food. The mullet feed on aquatic plants. Hence, when the population of aquatic plants decreases, the population of mullets will also most likely decrease.
The decrease in the mullet population can be plausibly explained by the reduction in aquatic plants in the area, which serve as a critical food source and habitat for mullet, rather than the introduction of a new predator; hence option D is correct.
The student asks why the number of mullet in an area has changed over time, suggesting that a new predator was introduced. However, a likely alternate explanation for the decrease in the mullet population could be tied to their food source and habitat. Given mullet are estuarine fish that feed on plankton and plant matter, a decrease in their food source or habitat alterations would directly impact their population.
Option D, the decrease in the amount of aquatic plants in the area, stands as a plausible explanation. Aquatic plants are critical for maintaining a healthy habitat for mullet by providing them food and shelter. Their reduction would not only limit the food available but also expose mullet to their natural predators more frequently, thereby potentially reducing the mullet population.
Alternative theories such as changes in water temperature (Option C) could also indirectly affect mullet by altering the ecosystem's overall health, affecting both predator and prey populations; however, the direct impact of a reduction in food source due to fewer aquatic plants presents a direct linkage to the observed decline in mullet population.
Most Swiss starlings produce four to five eggs in each clutch. Those producing fewer or more than this have reduced fitness. Which of the following terms best describes this?
a. directional selection
b. stabilizing selection
c. disruptive selection
d. sexual selection
e. artificial selection
Which of the following molecules can be considered a final product in the flow of information within a cell?
A) DNA
B) RNA
C) protein
D) lipid
E) Protein or RNA can be the final product of a gene.
The molecules that can be considered a final product in the flow of information within a cell is E) Protein or RNA can be the final product of a gene.
What is flow of information within a cell ?Information moves through a cell from DNA to mRNA to protein. Information flow is the fundamental tenet of biology. A principle or collection of principles established by a body of authority as unquestionably true is called a dogma.
According to the fundamental dogma, information flows through our cells most commonly in this pattern: from existing DNA to produce new DNA (DNA replication). To create new RNA (transcription) from DNA Translation creates new proteins from RNA.
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Certain species of plants require hummingbirds to transfer pollen from the male parts of one flower to the female parts of another flower. The shape of the plant flower is compatible only with the one species of hummingbird that transfers its pollen. The type of evidence is__________.
Answer:
Coevolution
Explanation:
Coevolution is a process of natural selection in which two or more species evolve exerting selection pressures on each other. It means that those species reciprocally affect each other's evolution.
The coevolution of a flowering plant species and a hummingbirds species is a typical example of this phenomenon. The flowering plant adapt to a pollinator (the hummingbird), which in turn adapts to the plant. Both the shape of the flower and the shape of the beak of the bird adapt perfectly to the each other getting the proper effects. The flower guarantees the dispersion of its pollen while the bird guarantees its food.
Assuming that this is a healthy ecosystem, which of the following organisms
would you expect to have the largest population
A. Cougar
B. Deer
C. Grass
D. Mouse
Answer:
Grass
Explanation:
It is on the lowest level of the food chain/ trophic levels, meaning that it is the most abundent. Next would come mice, deer, then cougars. Hope this helps :)
Answer:
Cougar
Explanation:
Ape-x
Marfan's syndrome is the result of inheriting a single allele. Individuals with Marfan's syndrome are tall and long-limbed, and have both cardiovascular and eye defects. The inheritance of Marfan's syndrome is an example of?
Answer:
Pleiotropy
Explanation:
Marfan syndrome is an example of pleiotropy, which can be defined as the phenomenon in which a pair of allele genes conditions the appearance of several traits in the same organism.
All of these traits occur through the action of only one pair of genes, so pleiotropy shows that the idea that each gene affects only one trait is not always valid.
In other words, a pleiotropic gene can have an effect on several phenotypes at the same time, due to the fact that the mutated gene is used by a group of cells (or targets) that have the same signaling function.
The Taq enzyme is a type of DNA polymerase that allows researchers to separate the DNA strands during the annealing step of the PCR cycle without destroying the polymerase.
a) true
b) false
Answer:
false
Explanation:
Polymerase chain reaction is used to amplify a DNA segment. This reaction completes in 3 steps that are Denaturation, annealing, and extension.
Denaturation: The DNA segment is separated into the single strand by applying high temperature up to 95°c for 30 seconds.
Annealing: During annealing temperature gets lower and the primer gets anneal on the DNA templates.
Extention: During extension temperature is again increased up to 72°c and Taq polymerase is used to add nucleotide in the growing chain.
Therefore Taq polymerase does not separate DNA strands during annealing step rather it extends the new strand of DNA in extension step.
During a routine physical examination on an older female client, a nurse notes that the client is 5 feet, 3/8 inches (1.6 m) tall. The client states, "How is that possible? I was always 5 feet and 1/2? (1.7 m) tall." Which statement is the best response by the nurse?
a) "The posture begins to stoop after middle age."b) "After menopause, the body's bone density declines, resulting in a gradual loss of height."c) "After age 40, height may show a gradual decrease as a result of spinal compression"d) "There may be some slight discrepancy between the measuring tools used."
Answer:
B
Explanation:
The nurse should tell the client that after menopause, the loss of estrogen leads to a loss in bone density, resulting in a loss of height.
The powerful survival impulse that leads infants to seek closeness to their caregivers is called
Answer: Attachment
Explanation: Infants tend to be attached to their parents. For good reason because the parents usually treat kids very well during infancy, and its the only thing the infants understand or know.
The nurse is assessing the family dynamics of a widow with end stage terminal cancer. Which statement made between the adult children would best indicate the need for further teaching?a. "It does not matter what we think, the living will says 'do not resuscitate'."
b. "Since you are the oldest child, you have the responsibility to decide."
c. "If daddy were alive, he would be making these hard decisions, not us."
d. "The doctors have told us that it is time for us to make some tough decisions."
Answer: The answer is A - "It does not matter what we think, the living will says 'do not resuscitate'."
Explanation:
A living will is a written, legal document which the patient uses to give instructions regarding his/her treatment if they become terminally ill. It includes what they patient would and would not want to be used to keep them alive, other preferences and medical decisions such as pain management, organ donation, if and when they would want to be resuscitated by CPR or by electric shock to stimulate the heart.
A Dr which means Do Not Resuscitate is different document from a living will. A DR states if your heart stops or you stop breathing the medical professionals are not to attempt to revive you in any way. To establish a DNR order the patient has to inform the doctor about his/her preference and the order will be written in the patient's medical record.
Organisms that use energy from sunlight or inorganic substances to make organic compounds
Answer:
Autotrouph
Explanation:
Second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________. Second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the ________. thalamus spinal cord somatosensory cortex medulla
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-Thalamus
Explanation:
The somatosensory pathway is the pathway which sends the receptor generated sensory impulses mostly the temperature and touch to the central nervous system.
The pathway is composed of three types of neurons called primary order neuron, second-order neuron and tertiary order neuron.
The second-order neuron receives the signals from the first-order neurons and carries the signals to the relay part of the brain called thalamus. The thalamus is present in the forebrain region of the brain where it receives, analyses and sends the signals to the different region of the cerebral cortex.
Thus, the thalamus is the correct answer.
Final answer:
Second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate in the thalamus. These pathways include the dorsal column system and the spinothalamic tract, and they carry different types of sensory information to the thalamus, where they synapse with third-order neurons.
Explanation:
The student is asking where the second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception terminate. To answer this, we must delve into the anatomy and function of the ascending sensory pathways of the spinal cord, which carry peripheral sensations to the brain.
The two major pathways in this process are the dorsal column system and the spinothalamic tract. Both systems originate with neurons in the dorsal root ganglion and carry different types of sensory information: the dorsal column system is primarily for touch and proprioception, while the spinothalamic tract is for pain and temperature sensations. In both pathways, the second-order neurons decussate (cross over to the other side of the brain or spinal cord) and then project to the thalamus.
These second-order neurons synapse in the thalamus, after which the third-order neurons then project their axons to the somatosensory cortex, specifically to the postcentral gyrus. Here, somatosensory stimuli are processed, and the conscious perception of the stimulus occurs. Thus, the terminating point for second-order neurons of ascending pathways that contribute to sensory perception is the thalamus.
Members of the National Weight Control Registry tend to
a. skip breakfast regularly
b. folow low-carbohydrate/high-protein diets
c. exercise 2 to 3 times per week
d. eat meals regularly, including breakfast
Answer:
Exersize for at least 60 minutes multiple times a week
Explanation:
Members of the National Weight Control Registry tend to eat meals regularly, including breakfast. Thus, option (d) is correct.
Members, according to the National Weight Control Registry, are more likely to eat breakfast and exercise frequently. It's vital to remember that different registry members may have different tastes and weight-control methods.
Seventy-eight percent of registry participants claimed to eat breakfast each day. Regular mealtimes, including breakfast, are one behaviour that register participants frequently exhibit.
Breakfast is frequently referred to as the most crucial meal of the day since it gives you the energy you need to start the day and jump-starts your metabolism.
As a result, the significance of the National Weight Control Registry are the aforementioned. Therefore, option (d) is correct.
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You have an F2 generation derived from two true-breeding parents (AA and aa) with different characteristics for the same trait (determined by a single gene). What percentage of the recessive phenotype would you expect to be true breeding if they were self-fertilized?a. 0%.b. 33%.c. 67%.d. 25%.e. 100%
Answer:
The answer is letter B.
Explanation:
The percentage of the recessive phenotype would be 33%.
Rats that received electric shocks were unlikely to develop ulcers if the
Answer:
Rats could control the termination of the shocks.
Explanation:
From the experiment carried out by Dr. Weiss, he discovered that rats with high predictability of shock had far fewer ulcers that those who could not control the shocks. Dr. Weiss suggests that this knowledge can be applied to human beings in the fight against ulcers.
There are two alleles, B and b, at a gene locus in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The relative frequency of the dominant (B) allele is 0.7. What is the expected number of heterozygous individuals if the total population size is 500 individuals?
Answer:
210
Explanation:
Frequency of dominant allele is represented by "p"
and frequency of recessive allele is represented by "q"
Given
[tex]p = 0.7[/tex]
Thus,
[tex]q = 1-p\\q = 1 - 0.7 \\q = 0.3\\[/tex]
As per Hardy Weinberg's second equation of equilibrium -
[tex]p^2 + q^ 2 + 2pq = 1\\[/tex]
Substituting the given values in above equation, we get -
[tex]0.7^ 2+ 0.3^2 + 2pq = 1\\2pq = 1- 0.49-0.09\\2pq = 0.42[/tex]
So the total number of heterozygous individual is equal to
[tex]0.42 * 500\\= 210[/tex]
Final answer:
In a population where the frequency of the dominant allele B is 0.7, the expected number of heterozygous individuals (Bb) in a population of 500, at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, is 210.
Explanation:
If there are two alleles, B and b, at a gene locus in a population at Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, and the relative frequency of the dominant (B) allele is 0.7, then the frequency of the recessive (b) allele (q) is 0.3 because the sum of the allele frequencies must equal 1 (p + q = 1). The expected number of heterozygous individuals in a population size of 500 can be calculated using the Hardy-Weinberg equation: p² + 2pq + q² = 1. Here, the frequency of heterozygotes is 2pq, which would be 2(0.7)(0.3). Plugging in the values gives us 2(0.7)(0.3) = 0.42, which is the proportion of heterozygous individuals in the population. To find the expected number of heterozygous individuals, we then multiply this proportion by the total population size: 0.42 * 500 = 210. Therefore, the expected number of heterozygous individuals (Bb) is 210.
Lamont and his lab partner were filling out a worksheet on microorganisms. The table they filled in was about microorganisms that were a type of fungus. The boys had to add a third column and list each type of fungus as either helpful or harmful. Lamont wrote helpful for all five examples, but his partner said that was incorrect. Do you support Lamont or his partner? Explain.
A) Lamont is incorrect; athlete's foot is used to make food.
B) Lamont is correct. Fungi are helpful, not harmful. We eat fungi.
C) Lamont is incorrect. Two fungi on the list are harmful: salmonella and athlete's foot.
D) Lamont is correct. All five types of fungi in the table are helpful because they do beneficial things.
Answer:
C) Lamont is incorrect. Two fungi on the list are harmful: salmonella and athlete's foot.
Explanation:
The two examples "of what it does" gives you a hint in the table; Salmonella causes stomach illness and athlete's foot in a skin disease. These two hints shows that Lamont is wrong becuase the 2 fungi are harmful and not helpful. Lamont should have said 3 were helpful.
Answer:
C) Lamont is incorrect. Two fungi on the list are harmful: salmonella and athlete's foot.
Explanation:
Lamont is incorrect. Two fungi on the list are harmful: salmonella and athlete's foot. There are two examples of harmful fungi in the table, not just one. Salmonella causes stomach illness and athlete's foot in a skin disease.
In garden peas, the allele for tall plants is dominant over the allele for short plants. A true-breeding tall plant is crossed with a short plant, and one of their offspring is test crossed. Out of 20 offspring resulting from the test cross, about _______ should be tall[A] 0[B] 5[C] 10[D] 15[E] 20
Answer:
The correct option is C)10
The punnet square for the parent cross is shown below:
t t
T Tt Tt
T Tt Tt
The punnet square for the test cross is shown below
t t
T Tt Tt
t tt tt
As 50% of the offsprings will be dominant. Hence, out of 20, 10 will be tall.
Humans can smell as many as 10,000 different odors but have significantly fewer types of olfactory receptors. Which of the following is the best explanation for why humans can distinguish so many smells?
a. The sensation of a single, distinct smell is a combination of a variety of chemicals that stimulate different combinations of olfactory receptor cells all at once.
b. Taste receptors that are active at the same time influence the subtlety of what we smell.
c. The belief that we can smell so many different distinct odors is a psychological process referred to as an uncinate fit or olfactory hallucination.
d. The olfactory pathway travels to a location in the brain in which memories are formed and we simply mix this new sensory information with old memories.
Answer:
C.) The belief that we can smell so many different distinct odors id a psychological process referred to as an uncinate fit or olfactory hallucination.
Explanation:
Olfactory receptor neurons (ORNs) are bipolar neurons that are activated when airborne molecules in inspired air bind to olfactory receptors. The option (C) is correct.
What are olfactory receptors?Olfactory receptors (ORs), also known as odorant receptors, are chemoreceptors expressed in the cell membranes of olfactory receptor neurons and are responsible for the detection of odorants (for example, compounds that have an odor) which give rise to the sense of smell.
Moreover, the initial event in odor perception is the detection of odorants by olfactory (odorant) receptors (ORs), which are located on olfactory sensory neurons in the olfactory epithelium of the nose (1–4).
Therefore, the binding of odors to the ORs initiates an electrical signal that travels along the axons to the main olfactory bulb of the brain. The information is then transmitted to other regions of the brain, leading to odorant perception and emotional and behavioral responses.
Learn more about olfactory receptors:
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