Answer:
C
Explanation:
USA Test Prep!
According to MacArthur and Wilson's hypothesis of island biogeography, species immigration and extinction rates on a particular island correlate to __________.
A) the island's size and distance from the mainland
B) when the island formed
C) the number of other islands in the archipelago
D) how the island formed
E) the island's stage of ecological succession
Answer:
The correct answer will be- Option-A
Explanation:
The Theory of Island Biogeography was proposed by the MacArthur and Wilson's in 1967 which proposed that the number of species-immigration and extinction rates are determined by the size of the island and distance of the island from the mainland.
The suggestions made by them are:
1. The islands which remain farther from the mainland receive very few species as compared to the closest mainland.
2. Smaller island shows a high rate of species extinction as compared to the larger island.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
Final answer:
According to MacArthur and Wilson's hypothesis of island biogeography, species immigration and extinction rates on a particular island correlate to the island's size and distance from the mainland. Option A
Explanation:
The hypothesis of island biogeography, developed by Robert H. MacArthur and Edward O. Wilson, suggests that the species immigration and extinction rates on an island are closely related to the island's size and its distance from the mainland.
This principle has significantly influenced the understanding of biodiversity on islands and the design of preserves for maintaining biodiversity. The theory posits that islands farther from the mainland have lower rates of species immigration due to the difficulty of crossing the distance, leading to a lower equilibrium number of species.
Conversely, larger islands tend to have higher biodiversity because they offer more niches for species and can support larger populations, reducing the probability of species extinction.
The correct answer to the question is: A) the island's size and distance from the mainland.
Depending on the blastopore fate of its members, label each branch with P (for protostomy), D (for deuterostomy), N (for neither), or P & D. Labels may be used once, more than once or not at all
Answer:
Unfortunately the question is incomplete guys, can anyone give me the rest of it?
Explanation:
A series of enzymes catalyze the reactions in the metabolic pathway X → Y → Z → A. Product A binds to the enzyme that converts X to Y at a position remote from its active site. This binding decreases the activity of the enzyme. With respect to the enzyme that converts X to Y, substance A functions as ________.
a. an intermediate
b. a competitive inhibitor
c. an allosteric inhibitor
d. the substrate
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C
Explanation:
In the given question, product A can bind to the enzyme which can convert X to Y.
This product A can act as a non-competitive inhibitor which can attach to the site away from the active site. These compounds are known as allosteric inhibitors.
The allosteric inhibitors bind to the enzyme away from the active site and change the conformation of the protein which changes the conformation of the active site which prevent enzyme bind the substrate.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
With respect to the enzyme that converts X to Y, substance A functions as an ALLOSTERIC INHIBITOR (Option c).
An allosteric inhibitor is a molecule that binds to the enzyme at a site other than the active site (i.e., the allosteric site), thereby decreasing the velocity of a chemical reaction.
Allosteric inhibition is a type of noncompetitive inhibition because the substrate can still bind to the enzyme.
For example, ATP acts as an allosteric inhibitor during cellular respiration. When ATP levels are high, this molecule binds to the phosphofructokinase enzyme in order to slow down the conversion of ADP to ATP.
In conclusion, in this case, substance A functions as an ALLOSTERIC INHIBITOR (Option c).
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Which molecule is recombinant DNA? A) A gene that encodes an enzyme involved in glycolysis that was obtained in the wild from a hybrid between a wolf and a coyote B) A stretch of DNA that encodes an insulin molecule, created synthetically by chemists in the lab C) A stretch of DNA that does not code for anything, created by pasting together DNA from a mouse and DNA from a bacterium D) A stretch of DNA that does not code for anything, from a tomato grown in a garden E) A gene that codes for a photosynthetic enzyme found in a tomato grown in a garden
Answer:
C) A stretch of DNA that does not code for anything, created by pasting together DNA from a mouse and DNA from a bacterium.
Explanation:
The DNA that is produced artificially by combining the DNA of different individuals or different organisms is known as recombinant DNA.
These recombinant DNA can be used for different purposes like for the production of recombinant products like recombinant hormone in the host organism, for example, production of human insulin in bacteria.
So if a segment mouse DNA and a segment of bacterial DNA are pasted together then it will be called recombinant DNA because the resultant DNA is made up by the recombination of DNA of two different organisms.
The recombinant DNA referred to in the given options is C) A stretch of DNA that does not code for anything, created by connecting DNA from different species, such as a mouse and a bacterium. This artificial creation of DNA used in biotechnology allows the production of proteins, like insulin in bacteria.
Explanation:The recombinant DNA molecule is C) A stretch of DNA that does not code for anything, created by pasting together DNA from a mouse and DNA from a bacterium. This is because recombinant DNA refers to artificial creation of DNA sequences that do not naturally occur, by combining genetic material from multiple sources. This process is used in biotechnology for various purposes, such as the production of recombinant proteins, like insulin that is used to treat diabetes.
GMOs (Genetically Modified Organisms) can be created through techniques that include introducing recombinant DNA into an organism. Production of recombinant insulin, where genes that encode for insulin are chemically synthesized and inserted into a bacterial vector, is an example of molecular cloning that utilizes recombinant DNA technology.
The __________ is a type of _________ protein that binds to a region of DNA in the promoter of a gene called the _________ and prevents transcription from taking place in bacteria.
Answer:
a. repressor
b. regulator
c. operator
Explanation:
All constituent genes of an operon are transcribed in a coordinated manner, such as polycistronic mRNA, that is, multigenic, which is sequentially translated into proteins by ribosomes. The initiation of transcription can be regulated positively or negatively. The genes under negative control are constantly expressed unless they are "disconnected" by a repressor protein that will prevent gene expression by binding to a specific DNA sequence called operator, preventing RNA polymerase from initiating transcription in the promoter.
Those genes whose expression is under positive control will not be transcribed unless an activating protein is present which binds to a specific DNA sequence and helps RNA polymerase in the initial steps of transcription.
Answer: histones
,Alkaline/essential but alkaline sounds good for question
Nucleosome
TATA**
The TATA box (also called Goldberg-Hogness box)[1] is a DNA sequence (cis-regulatory element) found in the promoter region of genes in archaea and eukaryotes
Also The TATA box is a binding site of either general transcription factors or histones.
If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, which of the following would be her most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants?
A) Backtrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits.B) Breed this plant with another plant with much weaker traitsC) Clone the plant.D) Force the plant to self-pollinate to obtain an identical one.
Answer: C -Clone the plant
Explanation:
Having a single plant, a hortuculturist will choose an efficient route to replicate the traits he requires.Therefore, If a horticulturist breeding gardenia were to chose an option he would most probably use Cloning.Cloning is the method that permits propagation of large numbers of plants with a particularly desirable set of traits.When plants are propagated, it means that they're produced in large numbers in order to establishing a line of such plants.
The correct option is C)Clone the plant as the most efficient method to replicate a gardenia plant with desirable traits is through cloning, as it ensures that every new plant is genetically identical to the original.
If a horticulturist breeding gardenias succeeds in having a single plant with a particularly desirable set of traits, the most probable and efficient route to establishing a line of such plants would be to clone the plant. Cloning ensures that each offspring is genetically identical to the parent, preserving the desirable traits without variation. This method bypasses the uncertainty of genetic recombination that occurs during sexual reproduction, which can result in offspring with unpredictable traits. Cloning is a common practice in horticulture for propagating plants with specific, desirable characteristics.
How could the botanist best determine whether the genotype of the green-pod plant is homozygous or heterozygous?
A) Self-pollinate the green-pod plant.
B) Cross the green-pod plant with another green-pod plant.
C) Cross the green-pod plant with a yellow-pod plant.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
Homozygosity is when the two alleles (gene form) are the same while heterozygosity is when the alleles are of different types.
In a gene, an allele is capable of masking the expression of another. The allele being expressed or that masks is called the DOMINANT allele while the allele being masked is the RECESSIVE allele.
A recessive allele will only be expressed (phenotypically) if the two alleles are of the same type i.e. homologous but when a dominant phenotype is expressed, one cannot ascertain whether the organism is heterozygous or homozygous for that gene. e.g T is the gene coding for height in plant, T which represents tallness is dominant over t, representing shortness. In a heterozygous (Tt) and homozygous dominant (TT) state, the plant will be phenotypically tall but will only be short in a homozygous recessive (tt) state.
Since the plant will be tall in homozygous (TT) or heterozygous (Tt), we cannot detect the actual genotype of the plant. Hence, a test cross is done.
A test cross is a cross between a dominant phenotype and a homozygous recessive in order to determine the actual genotype of the dominant organism i.e. whether homozygous or heterozygous.
In this case involving pod color gene, since the botanist is trying to determine whether the genotype of the green pod plant is heterozygous or homozygous, it means the allele for green pod is dominant over that of yellow pod (recessive).
N.B: The recessive trait can only be expressed if it is homozygous. Therefore, the yellow pod plant has homozygous recessive genotype.
A test cross is conducted by the botanist to determine whether the green pod plant is heterozygous or homozygous by crossing it with a yellow pod plant (homozygous recessive).
If any of the offspring plants exhibit recessive traits i.e. yellow pods, it means the parent green pod plant is heterozygous but if all the offspring plants show phenotypic dominant traits i.e green pod, it means the parent green pod plant is homozygous.
To determine the genotype of the green-pod plant, the botanist can perform a test cross with a homozygous recessive plant. If all of the offspring have green pods, the green-pod plant is homozygous. If half of the offspring have green pods and half have yellow pods, the green-pod plant is heterozygous.
Explanation:To determine whether the genotype of the green-pod plant is homozygous or heterozygous, the botanist can perform a test cross.
A test cross involves crossing the green-pod plant with a known homozygous recessive yellow-pod plant. If the green-pod plant is homozygous, all of the resulting offspring will have green pods. However, if the green-pod plant is heterozygous, half of the offspring will have green pods and half will have yellow pods.
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Diploid means a cell contains ?. Haploid means a cell contains ?. The gametophyte generation is known as the ? generation and produces sperm and egg cells for the purpose of reproduction. The sporophyte generation is known as the generation and produces spores for the purpose of reproduction.
Answer:
Two sets of chromosomes
One set of chromosomes
Haploid
Diploid
Explanation:
Diploid cell is a cell that contains two complete sets of chromosomes, each coming from both parents. e.g. a human cell, excluding sex cells, contains 46 chromosomes, each parent contributing 23 each
Haploid cells are cells containing one complete set of chromosomes i.e a single set of unpaired chromosomes. e.g gametes or sex cells that contain 23 chromosomes
Plants alternate between a life cycle in which they have one set of chromosome in their cell and two sets of chromosomes in their cell.
The gametophyte is the haploid plant form of an organism which produces the haploid reproductive gametes e.g. sperms and eggs. The gametophyte is developed by the spores, which is produced by the sporophyte. The haploid sperm fertilizes the haploid egg to form a diploid zygote, which gradually develops into the diploid sporophyte.
The sporophyte is a diploid multicellular generation found in plants and algae that produce haploid spores. These haploid spores are produced when the sporophyte organism undergoes meiotic (reduction) division. The spores then undergo mitosis or growth, without changing the number of chromosomes, to become a haploid multicellular gametophyte.
The gametophyte produces gametes and the cycle starts again. This process is referred to as ALTERNATION OF GENERATIONS.
Answer:
1.Two sets of chromosomes
2.One set of chromosomes
3.Haploid
4.Diploid
Explanation:
Cellulose-digesting microorganisms live in the guts of termites and ruminant mammals. the microorganisms have a home and food, and their hosts gain more nutrition from their meals. this relationship is an example of _____.
a) commensalism
b) predation
c) parasitism
d) herbivory
e) mutualism
Answer:
Cellulose-digesting microorganisms live in the guts of termites and ruminant mammals. the microorganisms have a home and food, and their hosts gain more nutrition from their meals. this relationship is an example of mutualism.
Explanation:
Mutualism encompasses the ecological relationships between individuals of different species, in which both gets benefits and improve their biological functions. It usually occurs between species that have different nutritional and living requirements.
An example of this is also the nitrogen fixing bacteria (Rhizobia) and the legimunous plants, and the relationship between the Acacia and the Acacia ants.
It has been hypothesized that fungi and plants have a mutualistic relationship because plants make sugars available for the fungi's use. What is the best evidence in support of this hypothesis?
Answer: Mycorrhizae
Explanation:
Mycorrhizae is a mutualistic symbiotic relationships that form between fungi and and the root of vascular plants.
The Mycorrhizae relationship that exist between fungi and root of plants, show how fungi colonize the root system of a their host plant, they make use of their extensive network of hyphae and large surface area which is in contact with the soil to channel water and minerals from the soil into the plant, thereby increasing nutrients absorption in plants.
The plant in return provide food in form of carbohydrates formed from photosynthesis to the fungi
The three positions that nations occupy in the world system are________
a.core, periphery, and semi-periphery.
b.metropole, satellite, and semi-satellite.
c.state, nation-state, and nation.
d.wealth, power, and prestige.
e.bourgeoisie, middle class, and proletariat.
Answer: Option A
The three positions that nations occupy in the world system are core, periphery, and semi-periphery.
Explanation:
World system is a multidisciplinary method to social change and world history which is use stress the system of the world as a unit of social analysis. It is an international system that divide nations of the word according to their labor into core, periphery and semi -periphery. The core have high skill labor and high production cost compare to the others. The core countries dominate and use the periphery countries. The periphery countries also depend on the core countries for capital.
"The correct answer is a. core, periphery, and semi-periphery.
These three position core, periphery, and semi-periphery are part of the world-systems theory, which was developed by sociologist Immanuel Wallerstein. The theory describes the global economy as a capitalist world-economy that encompasses a variety of different types of states.
- The core nations are those that are dominant in the world-system, having strong states and capitalist economies. They are the most economically diversified, wealthy, and powerful (e.g., the United States, Germany, and Japan).
- The periphery nations are those that are less developed and are often sources of raw materials and cheap labor for the core nations. They tend to have weak states and economies that are dependent on the core (e.g., countries in sub-Saharan Africa, parts of Asia, and Latin America).
- The semi-periphery nations are in between the core and periphery. They have a more diversified economy than the periphery but are not as wealthy or powerful as the core nations. They often have a mix of industries, including both high-tech and traditional labor-intensive production (e.g., Brazil, India, and China).
The other options listed do not accurately describe the three positions that nations occupy in the world system:
b. Metropole, satellite, and semi-satellite are not terms used in the world-systems theory to describe nations' positions in the global economy.
c. State, nation-state, and nation are terms that refer to political entities rather than their economic positions in the world system.
d. Wealth, power, and prestige are attributes that nations may possess, but they are not structural positions within the world-systems theory.
e. Bourgeoisie, middle class, and proletariat are class distinctions within a society, not categories for nations within the global economy."
This climate is considered tropical wet with temperatures between 68°F to 93°F and an annual precipitation of 50-260 inches. There is often a short season of less rain, or sometimes in areas with monsoon seasons, a short period of no rain. The soil contains very little nutrients because the trees quickly absorb all the nutrition out of the ground. A great amount of sunlight reaches the upper canopies, but very little sunlight filters down to the understory and forest floor. These are all characteristics of the _______ biome.
a
deciduous forest
b
alpine forest
c.
rainforest
d
savanna
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- C (rainforest)
Explanation:
Biomes are the communities of plants and animals that are formed in a similar physical climate.
In the given question, the characteristics of the Rainforest biome are given as the rainforest biome is marked by the heavy rainfall through the year with a few or less time with no rain. Also, the rainforest receives maximum sunrays on earth so the plants adapt by forming strata or layers.
The upper start receives maximum sunlight while the lower plants receive minimum sunlight so they become creepers to receive the maximum sunlight.
Thus, Option-C is the correct answer.
Answer:
C) Rainforest
Explanation:
I took the test!
Energy used by the body to perform muscular contractions is called adenosine diphosphate
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
when the energy is stored, it is in the form of ATP because no phosphate group is removed, but when the bond between the 2nd and the 3rd is broken, energy is released resulting in ADP because a phosphate group is removed.
A local Bioterrorism Medical Team is learning about germ warfare. The team is instructed that a fluoroquinolone may be used to prevent an outbreak of anthrax.
What fluoroquinolone would most likely be used?
A)Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
B)Gemifloxacin (Factive)
C)Norfloxacin (Noroxin)
D)Sparfloxacin (Zagam)
Answer:
A) Ciprofloxacin (Cipro)
Explanation:
Ciprofloxacin is a potent antibiotic, which is part of the fluorquinolone class. This class has a broad spectrum of activity against various pathogenic micro-organisms that can incapacitate or kill humans and animals.
It is a prime antibiotic for the therapy of complicated urinary tract infections and bacterial diarrhea.
Ciprofloxacin is also an alternative agent for the treatment of various sexually transmitted diseases, as well as osteomyelitis and some cases of wounds.
Ciprofloxacin hydrochloride is an important weapon against bioterrorism for the treatment of the respiratory tract, being the only drug approved by the FDA (Food and Drug Administration) for treatment after exposure to inhaled anthrax.
In pea plants, the gene for round seed (R) is dominant, and wrinkled seeds (r) are recessive. The endosperm of the pea is also either starchy, a dominant gene (S), or waxy (s). What CANNOT be said of a cross between two parents that are heterozygous for both traits?
Answer:
None is wrinkled and waxy
Explanation:
Spliting the alleles and pairing them usng the two characters listed, The male pea plant will have four possible alleles: RS, Rs, rS, and rs. The female also we have the same. Using punnet's square, we are to cross the two parents, Using gentotypes obtained from this cross; RRSS, RRSs, RrSS, RrSs, RRSs, RRss, RrSs, Rrss, RrSS, RrSc, rrSS, rrSs, RrSs, Rrss, rrSs, rrss. The phenotupic ration will be 9 Round starchy: 3 Round waxy: 3 Wrinkled starchy: 1 wrinkled waxy. It cannot be said that none of the progeny will be wrinkled waxy.
Cancer spreads through the process of metastasis, which means:
a. the rebuilding of telomeres following each cell division
b. ignoring the signal that cell density is high and the continuation of cell division
c. the impingement by cancer cells on the normal functioning of healthy tissues
d. the shedding of cells from a malignant tumor and transport of those cells to different parts of the body
e. All of the above are aspects of the process of metastasis. Start: 8:31 PM Save Submit
Answer: D
Explanation:
Malignant tumors are also referred to as cancers cells. Metastasis is the ability of this malignant tumor to spread from the organs or tissues that the tumor was first formed to a different organ or tissue by traveling through the circulatory or lymphatic system.
The shedding of cancer cells and ability to invade other organs and tissue is why cancer are dangerous
Answer is D
Why is there more biodiversity in a rainforest compared to a tundra?
Explanation:
because animals bacteria on n on that live in the rainforest nothing actually lives in a tundra
22. Why are stem cells important? (1 point) They have specialized DNA. They are incapable of becoming cancer cells. They have the potential to undergo cell division. They have the potential to develop into other cell types.
Answer:
they have the potential to develop into other cell types
Explanation:
A nurse teaches a client about the side effects and precautions associated with the antipsychotic haloperidol. The nurse concludes that the teaching has been understood when the client makes which statement?
A. "I'll call my primary healthcare provider right away if I have any diarrhea or vomiting."
B. "I won't eat anything containing tyramine while I'm taking this drug."
C. "I'll avoid direct sunlight and make sure to use sunscreen when I go outside."
D. "I'll be sure to drink enough fluids, because the drug may make me urinate more than usual."
Answer: I think A. "I'll call my primary healthcare provider right away if I have any diarrhea or vomiting." is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Adherens junctions ______________________. (a) can be used to bend epithelial sheets into tubes. (b) are most often found at the basal surface of cells. (c) are found only in adult tissues. (d) involve fibronectin and integrin interactions.
Answer:
(a) can be used to bend epithelial sheets into tubes.
Explanation:
The adherens junctions are cell-cell adhesions localized in places exposed to abrasion or mechanical stress, close to the apical membrane in epithelial cells is one of these locations. Some of their functions are the initiation and stabilization of cell-cell adhesion, they join the actin cytoskeleton to the plasma membrane to form adhesive contacts between cells that contribute to the folding and bending of epithelial sheets, therefore they can mediate adhesion and signaling.
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Within a double-stranded DNA molecule, adenine forms hydrogen bonds with thymine, and cytosine forms hydrogen bonds with guanine. What is the significance of the structural arrangement?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- this base pairing allows the complementation like lock and key
Explanation:
In DNA, the nitrogenous bases on one strand pairs with the nitrogenous bases on another strand.
Experiments of Erwin Chargaff showed that purine bind pyrimidines where the adenine binds thymine and guanine bind cytosine via double and triple hydrogen bonds respectively.
This hydrogen bonding between the purines and pyrimidines provides structural stability as it is based on the complementation. This complementary base pairing allows the two strands to fit like a key and a lock.
Thus, this base pairing allows the complementation like lock and key is the correct answer.
The bases from DNA isolated from a newly discovered single-stranded virus are found to be 16 percent A, 34 percent C, 34 percent G, and 16 percent T. During replication, this DNA forms a complementary strand. The bases of the complementary DNA would be ___ percent A, ___ percent C, ___ percent G, and ___ percent T.
Answer:16% A, 34% C, 34% G and 16% T
Explanation:
During complimentary strand formation the base Adenine (A) pairs with Thymine (T) and base Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G) , as the percentage of the base pairs in a strand is same so the percentage of the complimentary strands of the DNA would be same.
A high school girl who is self-conscious about her appearance has been fasting for several days to fit into a dress she intentionally bought a size too small for a school dance. Which of her organs/tissues is producing the glucose that is being synthesized through gluconeogenesis?
Answer: The liver
Explanation:
Gluconeogenesis is a process by which glucose molecules are produced de Novo (from non carbohydrates precursors such as lactate, glycogenic amino acids, and glycerol).
Only the liver can replenish blood glucose through glycogenolysis and gluconeogenesis.
During prolonged fasting or starvation the protein catabolism is speeded up to provide precursors (glucogenic amino acids) for gluconeogenesis.
Gluconeogenesis occurs mainly in the liver because one of the key enzyme glucose-6-phosphatase needed for glucose synthesis is only present in the liver.
Humans can see several thousand shades of color but have cone photoreceptors that are sensitive to only three (perhaps four) wavelengths of light. What is the best explanation for why we see so many colors?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- the combination of three types of cone cells in the eye produces different shades of color.
Explanation:
The perception of color in the eye is a complex process which is mediated by the photoreceptors called rods and cones. The cones allow us to see different shades of color whereas rods allow us to see in dark conditions.
The shades of color produced by the eye depend on the cone cells in which the cone cells absorbs three wavelengths of light mainly blue, green and light by three types of cone cells. It is the combination of these three cone cells which allows us to sense every shade of the color.
Thus, the combination of three types of cone cells in the eye produces different shades of color.
The specialized functions of different membranes are largely determined by the blank they contain. Membrane lipids are blank molecules, composed of a hydrophilic portion and a hydrophobic portion. All cell membranes have the same blank structure, with the blank of the phospholipids facing into the interior of the membrane and the blank on the outside. The most common lipids in most cell membranes are the blank . The head group of a glycolipid is composed of blank .
Answer:
Generally cell membrane is composed of lipid layer(phospholipid bilayer)which has hydrophobic head(phosphate group) which is water loving found outward of cell membrane And hydrophilic tail(hydrocarbon tail) which is water hating and it's found inward
The functionality of membranes is determined by their proteins and their amphiphilic structure, characterized by a bilayer of phospholipids, with hydrophilic heads and hydrophobic tails, where phospholipids are the most common lipids and glycolipid head groups comprise carbohydrates.
Explanation:The specialized functions of different membranes are largely determined by the proteins they contain. Membrane lipids are amphiphilic molecules, composed of a hydrophilic portion and a hydrophobic portion. All cell membranes have the same bilayer structure, with the hydrophilic heads of the phospholipids facing into the interior of the membrane and the hydrophobic tails on the outside. The most common lipids in most cell membranes are the phospholipids. The head group of a glycolipid is composed of carbohydrates.
The oxygen consumed during cellular respiration is involved directly in which process or event?A) glycolysisB) accepting electrons at the end of the electron transport chainC) the citric acid cycleD) the oxidation of pyruvate to acetyl CoAE) the phosphorylation of ADP to form ATP
what is an important principle of the scientific method in which an experiment can accurately be reproduced by an independent researcher replication shows that test results can be reproduced with different scientist and lab equipment
Answer:
Replication
Explanation:
Replication is the ability of an essay or experiment to be reproduced or replicated by others, in particular, by the scientific community. Replication is one of the pillars of the scientific method, with falsifiability being the other. Depending on the particular scientific field, reproducibility may require that the test or experiment be falsifiable.
The processes of DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli are similar in some respects and different in others.
Select the THREE statements below that describe BOTH DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli.
A. The direction of enzyme movement on the template strand is 3' to 5'
B. The process requires a primer.
C. The mechanism of reaction is attack by the 5'OH group of the pentose on the a-phosphate of an incoming nucleoside triphosphate.
D. A specific region of the DNA is recognized and bound by the polymerase.
E. The direction of polymerization is 5' to 3'
F. The process includes its own 3' to 5' exonuclease proofreading mechanism.
Answer:
The three statements that describes both DNA replication and RN transcription in E.coli are listed below.
Explanation:
C The mechanism of reaction is attack by the 5" OH group of the pentose on the alpha phosphate of an incoming nucleoside triphosphate.
A The direction of enzyme movement on the template strand is 3"→ 5.
E The direction of polymerization is 5"→3"
DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli require a primer and have enzyme movement in the same direction on the template strand. The direction of polymerization is also the same in both processes.
Explanation:A. The direction of enzyme movement on the template strand is 3' to 5'
B. The process requires a primer.
E. The direction of polymerization is 5' to 3'
The processes of DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli are similar in some respects and different in others. Both DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli require a primer to initiate the process. Additionally, the direction of enzyme movement on the template strand is always 3' to 5' and the direction of polymerization is always 5' to 3' in both processes.
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If antibodies to fibronectin are exposed to an embryo through which neural crest cells are migrating
Answer:
Neural crest cell movements are inhibited.
Explanation:
Neural crest cells may be defined as the temporary group of cells that are unique for the chordata group. These cells arise from the embryonic ectoderm and give rise to future melanocytes.
Antibodies to fibronectin association is helpful to study the signalling factors. If these anitodies to fibronectin is shown in the embryonical stage. The neural crest migration is inhibited by its exposure to fibronectin and this might hinder the embryonic development.
Thus, the answer is neural crest cell movements are inhibited.
What component of the cell membrane connects signals from the outside of the cell with the inside of the cell and vice versa?
Answer:
Integrins.
Explanation:
Integrins may be defined as the important protein that helps in the attachment of cell cytoskeleton to the extracellular matrix. These proteins play an important role in the cell communication.
The signals and the communication occurs between the cell and the extracellular matrix. They work as the adhesion receptor for the different extracellular ligands and transfer the biochemical signal in the cell by using the downstream effector protein. Hence, they can transmit the information between inside and outside of the cell.
Thus, the answer is integrin.