Answer:
Sartorius is inserted in the tibia.
Explanation:
Sartorius muscle is orginated from the iliac spine of the pelvioc bone. This muscle is the longest muscle of the human body. This muscle runs down on the thigh's anterior compartment.
The sartorius muscle is inserted in the anteromedial surface of the proximal tibia in the pesanserius. The insertion can be shown on the upper medial of the tibia. Femoral nerve innervates the sartorius muscle.
When studying cell division in tissue samples, scientists often calculate a mitotic index, which is the ratio of dividing cells to the total number of cells in the sample. Which type of tissue would have a higher mitotic index, normal tissue or cancerous t
Answer:
Cancerous tissue has high mitotic index.
Explanation:
Mitotic index may be defined as the number of dividing cells divided by the total number of cells. Cell proliferation can be measured by mitotic index.
Cancerous cells are highly dividing cells and are less differentiated than normal cells. Cancer cells have higher mitotic index because the number of dividing cell is more in cancerous cell than the normal cells.
Answer:
Cancerous tissue has high mitotic index.
Explanation:
Which of the following is not an appendicular muscle?
A. serratus anterior
b. rectus abdominis
C. deltoid
D. rhomboid major
E. latissimus dorsi
Answer:
the answer is B rectus abdominis!!! i hope this helps
Explanation:
The rectus abdominis is not an appendicular muscle; it is an axial muscle located in the anterior wall of the abdomen. Hence, the correct option is B.
The appendicular muscles are those that are associated with the appendicular skeleton, which includes the bones of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and leg. The serratus anterior, deltoid, rhomboid major and latissimus dorsi are all muscles connected to the upper extremity of the appendicular skeleton. In contrast, the rectus abdominis is part of the muscles of the trunk and is specifically classified as an axial muscle since it is located in the anterior wall of the abdomen, not associated with the appendicular skeleton.
25Pts. Will give Brainliest if correct!
The formation of the canyon acted as a barrier that prevented any mating between the separated populations. This is an example of which stage of speciation?
The populations become adapted to different environments and eventually become so different that they cannot interbreed to produce fertile offspring.
The populations are isolated and thus do not interbreed.
The populations become totally separated from one another.
The populations successfully interbreed.
Answer:The populations are isolated and thus do not interbreed.
Explanation:
I just took the test.
The populations are isolated and thus do not interbreed in this stage of speciation.
What is speciation?Speciation, the formation of new and distinct species in the course of evolution. Speciation involves the splitting of a single evolutionary lineage into two or more genetically independent lineages.
The formation of the canyon acted as a barrier that prevented any mating between the separated populations due to this population get isolated and thus dont interbreed.
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The following DNA fragment contains the sequence for the translation initiation codon usually used in genes: T A T A A G G C A T C A T A T T C C G T A G The template strand must be the:
The template strand must be the complementary DNA sequence: 3'-ATGCCTAACATTAAGT-5'
Explanation:The template strand must be the complementary DNA sequence: 3'-ATGCCTAACATTAAGT-5'
Which receptors are responsible for touch, pressure, hearing, and equilibrium?
Select one:
a. photoreceptors
b. thermoreceptors
c. chemoreceptors
d. mechanoreceptors
Answer:
Mechanoreceptors
Explanation:
Mechanoreceptor is a type of sensory receptor that responds against the mechanical pressure. These receptors are present on the hair, skin and tactile corpuscles.
Mechanoreceptors may responds against the change in pressure, detects different sounds (hearing), touch and can sense the equillibrium. These receptors transfer the mechanical information into electrical signals. Mechanoreceptors contain sensory neurons that can respond towards the external stimuli.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Answer:
mechanoreceptors
Explanation:
mechanoreceptors are responsible for touch, pressure, hearing, and equilibrium.
Which organelle stores water and helps to maintain the plant cell shape?
Image of a plant cell shown with letters A to H showing various organelles.
A points to the mitochondria.
B points to the Golgi apparatus.
C points to the nucleus.
D points to endoplasmic reticulum.
E points to the chloroplast.
F points to the cell wall.
G points to the cell membrane.
H points to the vacuole.
Choices are
A. A
B. E
C. F
D. H
Answer:
(D) H Vacuole
Explanation:
The vacuole is the organelle of the plant which contains water reserves of the plant and essential minerals required by the plant to grow. It also helps the plant to maintain its structure and provides rigidity
HOPE IT HELPS....
Answer:
The correct answer will be option D-H.
Explanation:
The eukaryotic cells contain organelles which help in the survival of the organisms.
The plant cell contains one of the largest organelle called vacuole which helps the plant cell to store the harmful as well as useful material inside the cell. The primary molecule it stores in the water which helps in maintaining the turgidity of the cell. It is due to this turgidity that vacuole determines the shape of the cell.
Thus, option D-H is the correct answer.
Which statement describes an advantage of using biometrics for physical access control?
a.The individual always has the biometric in their possession.
b.Biometrics are 100 percent effective.
c.Hand geometry requires a fairly small device.
d.Biometrics is a less sophisticated access control approach.
Answer: a.The individual always has the biometric in their possession.
Explanation:
Biometrics is a term that is used for the technology that is used to measure the bodily features and making a calculation on that basis. It is a method that can be used for the purpose of identification and authentication for the purpose of access control.
Among the given options, a.The individual always has the biometric in their possession. is the correct option. This is because of the fact that biometric measurements can be based upon physical characteristics such as fingerprints, retinal scans, and facial recognition. These features are common and unique to every human being. Hence, biometric system can be advantageous for physical access control.
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ____.
A) accommodate a greater volume of blood.
B) expand the thoracic cage during diastole
C) pump blood with greater pressure
D) pump blood through a smaller valve
Answer:
pump blood with greater pressure
Explanation:
this is because it pump blood with greater pressure
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall because it has to pump blood with greater pressure to the entire body.
Explanation:The left ventricular wall of the heart is indeed thicker than the right wall. The reason for this is not to accommodate a greater volume of blood, expand the thoracic cage during diastole, or pump blood through a smaller valve. Instead, the left ventricular wall is thicker because it is responsible for pumping blood with greater pressure, option C. The left ventricle has to pump blood to the entire body, while the right ventricle only pumps blood to the lungs, requiring less pressure. Therefore, a thick muscular wall is needed on the left side to generate the necessary pressure.
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Which valves close when the cusps fill with blood
Answer: (SL) Semilunar Valves
Explanation:
The tricuspid and mitral valves close when the ventricles contract and their cusps fill with blood, preventing backflow into the atria.
When the ventricles begin to contract, the pressure inside them rises, causing blood to flow toward the area of lowest pressure, initially in the atria. This backflow of blood causes the cusps of the tricuspid and mitral (bicuspid) valves to close. These valves are tethered to papillary muscles by the chordae tendineae. As the ventricles contract, so do the papillary muscles, which creates tension on the chordae tendineae.
This tension prevents the cusps of the atrioventricular valves from being blown back into the atria. In contrast, when the ventricles relax, the pressure decreases, which can cause blood to fill the cusps of the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic valves) and close them, preventing backflow into the ventricles. This closing of semilunar valve cusps with blood produces an audible sound during the cardiac cycle.
The parent cell that enters meiosis is diploid, whereas the four daughter cells that result are haploid. Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.)
Answer:
I snatched this from someone else, so it isn't mine, but I hope it helps. They don't have a username so I cannot credit them.
Explanation:
DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.
During anaphase of both meiosis I and meiosis II, the DNA content (number of copies of chromosomes) in a cell is halved. However, the ploidy level changes only when the number of unique chromosome sets in the cell changes. This occurs only in meiosis I (where separation of homologous chromosomes decreases the ploidy level from 2n to n and produces daughter cells with a single chromosome set).
Continuing in analyzing myprotein and otherprotein, you decide to run an activity assay for myprotein. Which of the following are likely results if otherprotein is required for folding?
a. The activity of myprotein will be highest in the presence of otherprotein
b. The activity of myprotein will be highest in the presence of otherprotein, and not higher than myprotein activity alone
c. The activity of myprotein is highest without the presence otherprotein
Answer:
the activity of my protein will be highest in the presence of other protein,and not higher than my protein activity alone
According to the Focus on Neuroscience box on the adolescent brain, the amount of gray matter in the brain peaks at about age _____ for girls and age _____ for boys.
Answer:
11 year in girls and 12 years in boys
Explanation:
The volume of grey matter peaks at the adolescent age of child, however it starts growing since the childhood. It is considered that a girl’s adolescent age starts from 11 years while a boy’s adolescent age starts from 12 years. Thus, grey matter reaches at its peak when girls reaches the age of 11 years and boy reaches the age of 12 years.
Grey matter starts declining as adulthood is reached in both male and female.
During inhalation, which changes first in the throacic caviaty, the pressure or the volume? Explain.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: During inhalation, which changes first in the thoracic cavity, the pressure or the volume, is, the volume.
Explanation:
The process of breathing, that is the cylces of inhalation and inspiration, are completely dependent on pressure gradients both on the atmosphere and inside the body, specifically the lungs and thoracic cavity. Before the breathing is initiated, both the atmospheric and alveolar pressures (alveoli are where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide will take place), is equal. However, during the initiation of inspiration, the costal muscles and the diaphragm descend and open up the chest cavity, pulling with them the lungs. This causes an increase in volume capacity and a decrease of pressure within the alveoli. Since gases like oxygen tend to move from higher to lower pressure gradients, as the volume of the lungs increases, and pressure decreases, oxygen will flow from the atmosphere into the lungs. During expiration, as the lungs return to their normal state, volume diminishes, pressure increase, and the gases are thus expelled to normalize pressures again.
True or False. The complement system consists of several proteins that circulate in the blood and have the ability to enhance both innate and adaptive defenses.
Answer: False
Explanation: The COMPLEMENT SYSTEM consists of proteins synthesized in the liver. They are activated by inespecific harmful substance (antigen) and begins a cascade of proteins that finally forms an attack complex against bacteria.
The COMPLEMENT is part of the INNATE IMMUNITY, because it is an inherent response, something all humans born with, and it is part of the first defense barrier against any antigen. Part of the innate immunity are too: natural killer cells, neutrophils, monocytes, dendritic cells and macrophages.
On the other hand, the ADAPTATIVE IMMUNITY, is the response that the body develops after being exposed to an antigen before. It is like something that the body recognizes, and then "learns" how to act against it. Part of the adaptative immunity are: lymphocyte T and B, and the antibodies (substances called Immunoglobulins). The immunoglobulins (Ig) are glycoproteins present in the blood.
The amount of blood flow to the myocardium is termed as ____
Answer:
The S-A node which is also known as the coronary artery disease
Explanation:
Final answer:
The amount of blood flow to the myocardium is termed as cardiac output. Cardiac output is the measurement of blood flow from the heart through the ventricles and is determined by the heart rate and stroke volume. Factors that increase cardiac output promote blood flow.
Explanation:
The amount of blood flow to the myocardium is termed as cardiac output.
Cardiac output is the measurement of blood flow from the heart through the ventricles and is usually measured in liters per minute. It is determined by the heart rate and stroke volume. Any factor that increases cardiac output, such as sympathetic stimulation or increased calcium ion levels, will promote blood flow.
The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called
Answer:
Isometric contraction
Explanation:
The length of the muscle is changed during contraction only when the muscle tension during contraction can outstand the resistance exerted by the object to be lifted.
During isometric contractions, the muscle tension is not sufficient to exceed the resistance of the object. Hence, there is no change in the length of the muscle. The isometric contraction does not bring about any body movements.
Isometric contractions are the type of muscle contractions where the muscle fibers do not shorten. Despite the muscle producing tension, there is no movement because the force produced can't overcome the resistance of the load. Unlike isotonic contractions where muscle length changes to move a load, in isometric contractions the goal is often to remain stationary.
Explanation:The type of contraction in which the muscle fibers do not shorten is called an isometric contraction. This type of contraction involves the muscle producing tension without changing the angle of a skeletal joint. Despite the muscle tension, there is no movement of the load, as the force produced cannot overcome the resistance provided by the load. This is because sarcomere shortening and increasing muscle tension are involved, but the goal is to remain stationary and not produce movement. Isometric contractions are crucial in daily activities such as maintaining posture and providing bone and joint stability.
In contrast, there are also isotonic contractions, in which muscle length changes to move a load. This includes both concentric and eccentric contractions, where the muscle either shortens or lengthens respectively.
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Which of the following statements about pesticides is true? a. Pesticide cost is clearly less than the benefits for all humans. b. Pesticide use has brought only good things to humans. c. Pesticide use is a relatively modern phenomenon. d. Pesticides possess an inherent degree of toxicity to some living organism.
Answer:
Option (D).
Explanation:
Pesticide are the chemicals used to kill pests or other harmful organisms. They are mainly used for the safety of agriculture crops.
Pesticides are quiet useful in the agriculture fields but some organisms has shown an inherent degree of pesticide. Pesticide doesnot degrade easily and accumulate in further trophic levels in the environment. Pesticide accumulation leads to the phenomena of biological magnification.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Through which duct can pancreatic juice be released into the small intestine without also releasing bile?
Answer:
The pancreatic duct
Explanation:
The pancreatic duct is formed when the many tiny tubes from exocrine part of the pancreas are joined together. The exocrine part of the pancreas consists of pancreatic acinar cells. These cells serve to secrete the digestive pancreatic juice rich in digestive enzymes.
The pancreatic juice is released into the pancreatic duct via tiny tubes. The pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and releases the pancreatic juice into the duodenum of the small intestine.
Some will require energy and a transporter protein in the membrane. Amino acids use this form of transport, called ____________ .
Answer:
Active transport
Explanation:
The process of transport of substances that uses energy and carrier proteins of the membrane is called active transport. Amino acids can not cross the hydrophobic core of the membrane and therefore, are transported through carrier proteins. The carrier proteins transport the amino acids using energy and the process is called active transport.
Why does the liver have a hepatic portal vein and a hepatic vein?
Answer:
The liver have a hepatic portal vein and a hepatic vein for blood flow and transport of nutrients.
Explanation:
Hepatic portal vein is also known as portal vein that carries blood from the organs (gastrointestinal tract, pancreas and gallbladder) to the liver. The nutrients are also transfer by the hepatic portal vein.
Hepatic vein: This vein carry deoxygenated blood into the inferior vena cava from the liver. Total three hepatic veins brings deoxygenated blood from right, left and middle part of liver.
What cells in the body respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose?
Answer:
Liver cells.
Explanation:
Liver maintains the carbohydrate metabolism of the body. Glucose can be stored in the liver in form of glycogen.
Pancreas releases the hormone insulin and glucagon. When the blood glucose levels are high, the insulin hormone is released by pancreas and liver cells convert glucose into glycogen. When the blood glucose level are low, the pancreas releases the hormone glucagon. The liver cell under the hormone influence, breaks down the glycogen and releases glucose. This maintains the blood glucose level in the body.
Liver cells respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen into glucose, which is then released into the bloodstream to raise blood glucose levels.
The cells in the body that respond to glucagon by breaking down glycogen and releasing glucose are primarily liver cells. Glucagon is released from the alpha cells of the pancreas, particularly when blood glucose levels are low. It acts on the liver cells to stimulate the conversion of glycogen into glucose through a process known as glycogenolysis. Additionally, it can promote gluconeogenesis, which is the creation of glucose from amino acids and glycerol. The glucose released by these processes is then introduced into the bloodstream to increase blood glucose concentrations and maintain normal homeostatic levels.
Sexual dimorphism a. refers to differences between the sexes with regard to features such as body size b. refers to differences between adults and adolescents with regard to sexual behavior c. is particularly pronounced in all primate species d. is more common in arboreal species e. has not been observed in any monkey
Answer:
The correct option is a. refers to differences between the sexes with regard to features such as body size
Explanation:
Sexual dimorphism refers to a specific condition in animals and plants, which includes difference in the secondary characteristics of the male and female sexes of the same species. Sexual dimorphism is seen in many animals and some plant species. The difference in the secondary characteristics includes size, color, behavior, etc.
Sexual dimorphism, a term in biology, refers to the differences in physical characteristics between males and females of the same species beyond reproductive organs. These differences may be manifested in body size, coloration, or other physical attributes. Such differences vary widely among species, and while some correlation between dimorphism and social behaviors is observed, it is not a universal rule.
Explanation:Sexual dimorphism refers to differences in physical characteristics between males and females of the same species, beyond differences in reproductive organs. These differences can relate to body size, coloration, or other physical attributes. It is a product of variance in reproductive success, often driving the evolution towards larger, more decorated, or stronger males as these traits can provide them advantages in obtaining mates.
Sexual dimorphism varies widely among species. Some species display quite pronounced sexual dimorphism, such as gorillas, where the males are significantly larger than the females. Other species, such as gibbons, display a low level of sexual dimorphism, correlating with long-term monogamy. Additionally, there are some species where the usual roles are reversed, with females being larger or more elaborate than males due to variances in reproductive success. It's crucial to note that there's no universal rule linking physical traits with behavioral traits, and each species presents a unique mix of these differences.
Conventionally, in many primate societies, a higher level of sexual dimorphism is linked with stronger male dominance, rigid hierarchy, and male competition for mating. However, the correlation between size and behavioral features shouldn't be perceived as a rule, as this varies greatly depending on the species and the environmental factors at hand.
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The fast axoplasmic transport includes proteins from the __________ and transported on ___________. The slow axoplasmic transport includes proteins from the ____________.
a. RER, microtubules, cytoplasm
b. microtubules, cytoplasm, RER
c. cytoplasm, RER, microtubules
d. cytoplasm, RER, microtubules
Answer:
a. RER, microtubules, cytoplasm
Explanation:
The axoplasmic transport or axonal transport that moves the material at the rate of 1-5 mm/day is called slow axoplasmic transport. This system serves to deliver the materials required for regeneration of axons and axoplasm. It includes the movement of proteins from cytoplasm along the axon.
On the other hand, the fast axoplasmic transport moves the material at the rate of 200-400 mm/day. It serves to transport integral membrane proteins and secretory proteins formed on RER. The fast movement occurs with the help of motor proteins that move the material along the surface of microtubules present in the cytoskeleton of neurons.
discuss how an individual who wants to maintain weight, lose weight, or gain weight needs to adjust his/her nutrition and exercise program.
Answer:
At the gym work out gaining weight needs to adjust balanced.
Healthy nutrition, exercise, sufficient sleep, and stress management are all necessary for achieving and maintaining a healthy weight. Other elements could also influence weight gain. Numerous healthful foods are part of a healthy diet.
What is nutrition and exercise program?A nutritious diet supports normal growth, development, and aging, helps people maintain a healthy body weight, and lowers their chance of developing chronic diseases, all of which contribute to overall health and wellbeing.
Physical fitness refers to a person's overall health and well-being as well as their capacity for participating in certain sports, jobs, and daily activities.
In general, healthy eating, moderate to strenuous exercise, physical activity, and adequate rest are required to develop physical fitness.
Therefore, an individual who wants to maintain weight, lose weight, or gain weight needs to adjust his/her nutrition and exercise program.
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The blood speed in a normal segment of a horizontal artery is 0.140 m/s. An abnormal segment of the artery is narrowed down by an arteriosclerotic plaque to one-fourth the normal cross-sectional area. What is the difference in blood pressures between the normal and constricted segments of the artery?
Answer:
[tex]96[/tex]Pa
Explanation:
Let "n" represents the normal flow condition and "a" represents the abnormal flow condition.
As per continuity equation -
[tex]v_{n}*A_{n}= v_{a}*A_{a}[/tex]----------- Eq (1)
Where "v" represents the velocity and "a" represents the area of artery
Given-
[tex]A_a=\frac{A_n}{4}[/tex]
Substituting the above relation in equation (1), we get -
[tex]v_a = \frac{v_n*A_n}{A_a}\\ v_a= 4v_n\\[/tex]
As per Bernoulli's theorem, we know that -
[tex]P_a-P_n= \frac{1}{2}pv_a^2-\frac{1}{2}pv_n^2\\P_a-P_n=\frac{1}{2}p[\frac{v_a*A_a}{A_n} ]^2\\P_a-P_n=\frac{1}{2}pv_n^2[16-1]\\P_a-P_n=\frac{1}{2}*1060*(0.11)^2*15\\P_a-P_n=96[/tex]Pa
The blood pressure difference between the normal and constricted segments of the artery can be calculated using Bernoulli's equation. As the cross-sectional area is reduced in the constricted segment, the blood speed increases and the pressure decreases. The difference in blood pressures can be determined by comparing the pressure energy per unit volume in the two segments.
Explanation:The blood pressure difference between the normal and constricted segments of the artery can be calculated using Bernoulli's equation, which states that the sum of pressure energy, kinetic energy, and potential energy per unit volume is constant along a streamline in an ideal fluid flow. In this case, as the cross-sectional area of the artery is reduced to one-fourth in the constricted segment, the blood speed increases. As a result, the pressure in the constricted segment decreases due to the conservation of energy. The difference in blood pressures between the normal and constricted segments can be determined by comparing the pressure energy per unit volume in the two segments.
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A fruit fly that is true breeding for gray body, vestigial wings (b+ b+ vg vg) is mated with one thiat is true-breeding for black bodym normal (b b vg+ vg+). Draw the chromosomes.
Answer:
Diagram of the chromosome is attached below.
Explanation:
A fruit fly has gray body and vestigial wings is crossed with a fly with black body and normal wings. These chromosomes represent the pair of homologous chromosomes. These genes are linked gene and present on the same chromosome.
The cross shown below shows the parental generation of the fruit fly.
The question delves into the inheritance of traits in true-breeding fruit flies. Using the grey body and vestigial wings genes as dominant, and the black body and normal wings genes as recessive, the F1 genotype after the mating would have both dominant and recessive traits - grey body and normal wings.
Explanation:The fruit fly question revolves around understanding genetic inheritance, specifically exploring Punnett squares and genetic dominance. The scenario provided suggests a cross between two true-breeding fruit flies, one with a grey body and vestigial wings (b+ b+ vg vg), and one with a black body and normal wings (b b vg+ vg+). Because they are true-breeding, we can infer they are homozygous, i.e., have two identical alleles for the traits.
Step 1: First off, b+ designates the gray gene and b designates the black gene, with gray being dominant over black. Similarly, vg+ is the normal wing gene and vg is the vestigial wing gene, with normal wings being dominant over vestigial wings.
Step 2: Next, we set up the allelic pairs for the genes on either homologous chromosome. The first fruit fly would have [b+ vg] and [b+ vg] on its pair of homologous chromosomes, and the second fruit fly would have [b vg+] and [b vg+] on its chromosomes.
Step 3: When these flies mate, the F1 generation would have one chromosome from each parent, hence their genetic makeup would have a combination of these alleles. Consequently, the F1 genotype would be [b+ vg] and [b vg+].
All of these steps are based on Mendelian genetics, which study how traits are passed from parents to offspring. Dominant traits are expressed when at least one dominant allele is present, while recessive traits are only expressed when both alleles are recessive.
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Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement about Steven Businger's work with volcanoes in Hawaii.
Volcanoes release a hazy smoke called _____
Steven Businger helped develop a ____
that predicts how this smoke spreads.
To model the smoke conditions, scientists measure the amount of ____
gas a volcano is spewing.
1. Vog
The term vog comes from combining the words volcano and smog. The word itself is created to associate with pollution, as it is a natural pollution of the atmosphere. The vog represents the sulfur dioxide and the other gases and particles that the volcanoes release into the atmosphere when they erupt. These gases and particles further react with the moisture in the atmosphere and the oxygen while exposed to sunlight. This process causes a large natural pollution of the air in the area influenced by the volcanic activity.
2. Model
Steven Businger is a scientists that has devoted big portion of his career in examining the volcanoes and their activities. Most of his research has been on the Hawaii Islands and the volcanoes on them. With his vast experience and knowledge of the volcanic activities and their products, Businger managed to create a model that predicts how the smoke from the volcanoes spreads. This model has been very helpful as it can be used for warning the population on time, as well as using it for avoiding accidents, especially in the air traffic.
3. Sulfur dioxide
One of the gasses that is in largest quantities in the smoke produced by the volcanic eruptions is the sulfur dioxide. This gas is a natural polluter of the atmosphere, so once big amount of it is propelled into the atmosphere, it manages to have big effect over the area that is affected. It is a gas that is very harmful for the living organisms, thus for the human health as well. It is mostly damaging the respiratory system, managing to cause lot of damage that can easily be fatal if the amount of sulfur dioxide is high.
Answer:
1: Vog
2: computer model
3: sulfur dioxide
Explanation:
Just took the questions, Hope this helps :D
Which of the following is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle?
A) norepinephrine
B) gamma aminobutyric acid
C) acetylcholine
D) cholinesterase
C) acetylcholine
Answer:
C) acetylcholine
Explanation:
Acetylcholine is an excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle.
However, norepinephrine, gamma aminobutyric acid, and cholinesterase are not excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle.
The excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons that innervates skeletal muscle is acetylcholine. It is crucial in the motor nervous system with its main function being to lead to muscle contraction.
Explanation:The excitatory neurotransmitter secreted by motor neurons innervating skeletal muscle is acetylcholine.
Acetylcholine plays a crucial role in the function of the motor nervous system, especially within the neuromuscular junction which is where the motor neuron and skeletal muscle connect.
Once an action potential reaches the end of a motor neuron, acetylcholine is released from the neuron and binds to receptors on the surface of the skeletal muscle. This causes the muscle to depolarize and eventually leads to muscle contraction.
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The liver is important in carbohydrate metabolism as it processes the monosaccharides galactose and fructose into glucose. What happens to this glucose once it is done being processed in the liver?
Answer: The glucose extracted is stored in the liver as glycogen, which is made available to the body as needed. In this case, the liver cells function as a fuel reservoir.
Explanation:
Glycogen is the available reserve of glucose to supply tissues with a source of energy and is found mainly in the liver, this is considered a source of glucose that can be used throughout the body. The main area of daily glucose consumption is the brain, via the aerobic route. The biggest part of the remaining energy is used by red blood cells, skeletal and cardiac muscles. The body obtains glucose through diet or gluconeogenesis pathway. The glucose obtained from these two primary sources remain soluble in body fluids or are stored in a polymeric form called glycogen. Glycogen is considered the main form of glucose deposition and is found mainly in the liver and muscle.
Once processed in the liver, glucose either circulates in the body supplying energy, gets stored as glycogen for short-term energy reserves, or reformed into triglycerides and fatty acids for long-term storage. If needed, the liver can also produce glucose through the process of gluconeogenesis. These processes are all key parts of carbohydrate metabolism.
Explanation:After glucose has been processed in the liver, it has multiple fates depending on the body's needs. It can remain in the bloodstream, providing energy in the form of ATP through a process known as glycolysis. This process, occurring in body cells, involves a series of reactions that transfer the energy in glucose to ADP to form ATP, with the product being pyruvate.
If the body has more glucose than is immediately needed, this excess glucose can be stored in the liver as glycogen or be converted into triglycerides and fatty acids for long-term storage. Should the body need more glucose, such as during fasting, the liver is capable of gluconeogenesis, a process where it produces more glucose.
The role and fate of glucose in the body is part of the larger process of carbohydrate metabolism, where complex carbohydrates are broken down into simple sugars and ultimately used for energy production.
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What is Portal System?
a. It is where an organ has a lot of capillaries for better circulation.
b. It is where an organ is supplied with two interconnecting arteries.
c. It is where an artery supplies blood to an organ and immediately returns to the heart.
d. It is where an artery breaks into two sets of capillaries before returning to the heart.
e. It is where two or more branches of an artery supply blood to different organs.
Answer:
d. It is where an artery breaks into two sets of capillaries before returning to the heart.
Explanation:
A Portal System is where an artery breaks into two sets of capillaries before returning to the heart.