Answer:
getting an STD
Explanation:
If untreated, STDs can increase your risk of acquiring another STD such as HIV. This happens because an STD can stimulate an immune response in the genital area or cause sores, either of which might raise the risk of HIV transmission. Some untreated STDs can also lead to infertility, organ damage, certain types of cancer or death.
Asymptomatic STDs
Many STDs have no signs or symptoms (asymptomatic). Even with no symptoms, however, you can pass the infection to your sex partners. So it's important to use protection, such as a condom, during sex. And visit your doctor regularly for STD screening, so you can identify and treat an infection before you can pass it on.
Some of the following diseases, such as hepatitis, can also be transmitted without sexual contact, by coming into contact with an infected person's blood. Others, such as gonorrhea, can only be transmitted through sexual contact.
Chlamydia symptoms
Chlamydia is a bacterial infection of your genital tract. Chlamydia may be difficult to detect because early-stage infections often cause few or no signs and symptoms. When they do occur, they usually start one to three weeks after you've been exposed to chlamydia. Even when signs and symptoms occur, they're often mild and passing, making them easy to overlook.
Signs and symptoms may include:
Painful urination
Lower abdominal pain
Vaginal discharge in women
Discharge from the penis in men
Pain during sexual intercourse in women
Bleeding between periods in women
Testicular pain in men
Why should the DXA be completed before the brachytherapy?
Explanation:
Brachytherapy is a type of cancer radiation therapy/ treatment which involves the placement of radioactive material within specific regions of the body. This maybe utilized to deliver more specific cancer treatments in affected areas. Available within higher doses in comparison to whole body radiation treatments.
Bone density tests called DEXA (dual energy x-ray) scans measure the bones density by focusing on specific regions namely the spine and hip bones This diagnoses and can even determine a person's risk of developing developing osteoporosis which is a condition in which the bones are weakened and fragile
The test uses small doses of ionizing radiation (X-rays) to provide internal scans.
DXAs are also used prior to cancer treatment in order to potentially diagnose cancer present in the bone and to monitor bone health throughout treatment uses a very small dose of ionizing radiation to produce pictures of the inside of the body (usually the lower (or lumbar) spine and hips) to measure bone loss.
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DXA, which measures bone density, should be completed before brachytherapy to evaluate the risk of radiation-related bone damage. This step aids in developing a safe and effective treatment plan.
Explanation:The DXA (Dual-energy X-ray Absorptiometry) should be completed before brachytherapy because DXA is used for bone density measurement. Brachytherapy, on the other hand, is a type of radiotherapy where a sealed radiation source is placed inside or next to the area requiring treatment. Before implementing brachytherapy, especially when the pelvic area or prostate is involved, a DXA scan is necessary to measure the bone density and evaluate the risk of radiation-related bone damage. This precautionary measure is essential for developing an effective and safe treatment plan.
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What best describes an act of self-management? taking positive risks that benefit one’s overall health monitoring negative behavior through the use of strong social networks practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk practicing abstinence of alcohol, drugs, and tobacco
Answer:
Reducing negative influences and risk, practicing abstinence of alcohol, drugs, and tobacco
Practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk. Therefore option C is correct.
Self-management involves proactively taking charge of one's well-being and making informed choices to maintain and enhance their health.
Practicing health-enhancing behaviors and reducing negative influences and risk, best encapsulates this concept. This approach encompasses actions like engaging in regular exercise, maintaining a balanced diet, managing stress, and avoiding harmful habits.
It involves conscious decisions to promote physical, emotional, and mental health while minimizing risks that could compromise well-being.
This proactive stance empowers individuals to lead healthier lives, displaying a combination of awareness, responsibility, and action towards their own health and wellness.
Therefore option C is correct.
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The pattern by which our lives be measured is
Answer:
what god measured
Mrs. Fields wants to know whether applying for the Part D low income subsidy will be worth the time to fill out the paperwork. What could you tell her?
Answer:
It will completely be worthy to apply for Part D low income subsidy.
Explanation:
Medical low income subsidy is a government initiated project that helps the inheritor who has low income to pay Part D Medicare prescribed drug costs. They are offered assistance in the payment of their medical premium, coinsurance, co-payments etc. along with no gap in drug coverage.
One must be eligible for low income subsidy if their income is low according to the eligibility termination. It doesn’t include resources like- home, car or property in their coverage which is a great thing for the beneficiary. One needs to apply to get this facility, which is worthy.
Answer:The Part D low-income subsidy could substantially lower her overall costs. She can apply by contacting her state Medicaid office or calling the Social Security Administration.
Explanation:
how can you most effectively change your body fat percentage?
Answer:
Going onto a diet plan and excising daily for a certain amount of time each day for so and so days
Explanation:
what is the defenition of plateau
A plateau is "a area that is basically high ground." A good example of a plateau is the Piedmont Plateau in eastern United States which is a base of a moutain in between the Appalachian Mountains."
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30 POINTS PLS HELP!!
Which club exists specifically to give high school students community service opportunities?
Young Republicans
key Club
Leaders Club
Young Democrats
Cold foods should be stored below what temperature
What is the benefit of cooling down after exercise?
A) It keeps the muscles flexed.
B)It keeps blood from pooling in the limbs.
C)It allows the body to increase blood flow.
D)It prepares the body for exercise.
Answer:
I think it is B. Sorry if I am wrong.
Explanation:
The benefit of cooling down after exercise is it keeps the muscles flexed. The correct option is A.
What is exercising?Exercising is a physical activity that is don't make the body fit and healthy. It includes running, going to the gym, walking, weight lifting, and other things.
Exercising increases the heart rate and increase the thermal energy of the body as it is a high-intensity increase that beats the heart rapidly and thus the body needs more oxygen to cover this intensity workout.
After exercise, it is important to cool down the body to make the heart rate normal and cool down the body. It is also essential to give relaxation to the muscles.
Thus, the correct option is A. It keeps the muscles flexed after doing exercise by cooling down the body.
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4. Heartburn is caused by
a. seepage of gastric acid into the esophagus.
b. seepage of gastric acid into the cardiac muscle.
c. seepage of bile into the stomach.
d. seepage of salivary amylase into the stomach.
Answer:
The answer is A.
Explanation:
Heartburn happens because stomach acid becomes backed up in the esophagus, which moves food from your mouth to your stomach.
The burning sensation is usually the result of stomach acid leaking up into the esophagus through a flaw in a valve known as the lower esophageal sphincter (LES), which connects the esophagus and the stomach. When the LES doesn't tighten properly or becomes weakened, stomach acid can flow back into the esophagus, causing a burning feeling.
Exam Attempt 2
14. Name the best storage location for Chemicals:
OA. Next to the dishwashing station in the kitchen area
OB.In a non-food storage closet on the bottom shelf
OC. In your establishment's public restroom
OD. In a non-food storage closet on the top shelf
Submit Answer
Answer: The correct answer is OD, in a non-food storage closet on the top shelf.
Explanation:
Chemicals, of any kind, should be stored away from any food preparation stations, away from silverware and dishes, and away from the kitchen area. The chemicals need to be out of reach of children and put on a high shelf. Chemicals will need their own storage container or closet. All chemicals need to be labeled correctly and put away after each use. The phone numbers for poison control need to be listed nearby and in view of employees.
Answer:
SHOULD NOT BE ON TOP,in case you knock it over
Explanation:
Which term describes an illness that affects the mind and reduces a person’s ability to function, adjust to change, and get along with others? personality trait stress response defense mechanism mental disorder
Answer:
mental disorder
Explanation:
Why does soya have a high nutritional value?
Answer: Soybeans are high in proteins .
Explanation:
It has decent source of both carbs and fats.
blank are formed and run by parents who wish to take part in their children's preschool experiences
Answer:
Parent Cooperatives
Explanation:
Parent cooperatives are formed and run by parents who wish to take part in their children's preschool experiences
Parent cooperatives are educational institutions that are established and managed by the parents of the children who attend them. The primary goal of these cooperatives is to provide a preschool experience that aligns with the parents' values and educational philosophies. By being actively involved in the management and operation of the cooperative, parents can directly influence the curriculum, teaching methods, and overall environment in which their children learn and grow.By working together, parents can create a nurturing and enriching educational environment that reflects their collective vision and goals for their children's development."
Mrs Duarte enrolled in original Medicare. Reviewed her MSN and disagrees with determination that partially denied one of her claims. What advice to give her
MSN is medical summary notice. If Mrs Duarte disagree with the MSN, she can file a complaint against it.
What is MSN?MSN is the medical summary notice.
It is a kind of summary of health care services, and material, that are received during the Medicare.
The MSN is given in every three months.
It is not related to medical bill.
Thus, the MSN is a medical summary notice. If Mrs Duarte disagree with the MSN, she can file a complaint against it.
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How much exercise should teens do daily
Answer:
At least 60 mins
Explanation:
What means that a physician is required to have the training and expertise necessary to treat a patient?
1) Standard of care
2) Due care
3) Licensed care
4) Legal care
The term 'Standard of care' means a physician must have the necessary training and expertise to treat patients adequately. This includes proper education, specialized training, and passing licensing exams. It ensures that healthcare providers offer acceptable and appropriate care. Option 1 is correct .
This concept refers to the level of care, skill, and treatment that is recognized as acceptable and appropriate by reasonably prudent similar healthcare providers in similar circumstances. It ensures that physicians must have detailed knowledge of underlying diseases, their treatment, and the competence to apply this knowledge in practice.
For a physician to meet this standard, they must undergo extensive education, specialized training, and pass licensing exams, which allows the government to ensure that only qualified providers are permitted to practice medicine.
List some of the most common problems for which people go to a doctor when seeking medical advice and an examination
Answer:
colds/Viruses
the flu
allergies
gas buildup
major heartburn
addiction
Which of the following is not a function of the male reproductive system
The function that is not part of the male reproductive system is B, nourishing the growing embryo, which is a role of the female reproductive system. The male reproductive system's functions include producing sperm, transporting them, maintaining the cells, and secreting testosterone.
The question asks which option is not a function of the male reproductive system. The correct answer is B: The function of nourishing the growing embryo is carried out by the female reproductive system. This differentiates from the main functions of the male reproductive system, which are to produce sperm, transport them to the female reproductive tract for potential fertilization, maintain these cells, and secrete male sex hormones, like testosterone.
Testosterone is responsible for the development of male secondary sexual characteristics and is a crucial hormone in the male reproductive system. Sperm is produced in the seminiferous tubules of the testes, and the entire system is geared toward ensuring that these sperm can effectively be delivered to the female reproductive system.
The correct question is:
Which of the following is not a function of the male reproductive system?
A. The secretion and production of male sex hormones
B. The function of nourishing the growing embryo is carried out by the female reproductive system.
C. To produce, transport, maintain, and to nourish sperm
D. Discharging of the sperm within the female reproductive tract
How can self-help books help with depression
explain the relationship between the key terms in each of the following pairs
1. aggressive and assertive
2. self concept and self esteem
3. emotion and mental health
Aggressive and assertive denote types of behavior with the former being conflict-causing and the latter not. Self-concept and self-esteem both relate to one's view of themselves and usually, a positive self-concept results in high self-esteem. Lastly, emotions affect our mental health significantly, with persistent negative emotions potentially harming it.
Explanation:The relationship between the key terms in each of the pairs is as follows:
Aggressive and Assertive: These terms represent different types of behavior. Assertive communication involves expressing your point of view in a clear, non-conflict-causing way, respecting yourself and others. However, Aggressive behavior tends to disregard the feelings and opinions of others and can often lead to conflict.Self Concept and Self Esteem: These are closely connected as they both relate to our perception of ourselves. Self-concept is a person's perception or image of their abilities and uniqueness. On the other hand, Self-esteem is a person's overall sense of their value or worth. A positive self-concept often leads to high self-esteem.Emotion and Mental Health: There is a strong relationship between these two terms. Emotions greatly influence our mental health. Frequent negative emotions can have a detrimental effect on our mental health, whereas positive emotions can enhance our mental well-being.Learn more about Psychological Concepts here:https://brainly.com/question/34138052
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which victim of cardiac arrest requires smaller aed pads
Answer:
children
Explanation:
The victim of cardiac arrest with complication such as lack of response, no pulse and no breathing, small AED pads are required.
Explanation:
An AED, elaborately called automated external defibrillator is an electronic gadget that can investigate a heart musicality to decide whether an electric shock is required for somebody in heart failure.
In the event that a adult or a youngster over age 8 years is in heart failure (not responsive, not breathing and no heartbeat), cardiopulmonary revival (CPR) is initiated with chest compressions, and small AED pads.
When then AED is accessible, chest compressions and salvage breathing is initiated by one person whereas another person turns on the AED and appends the cushions.
In the event that the AED says "stun exhorted", the current shock is given followed by CPR.
Johnny is seven months old and is playing happily with toys in his room. His mom walks in the door, and he begins to smile and get excited at the sound of her voice
•Preoperational
•toddlerhood
•pre-adolescence
•sensorimotor
This question discusses the behaviour of a seven-month-old child reacting to his mother, which falls under the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development in psychology.
Explanation:The subject of this question is Psychology and the grade level is High School.
This question discusses the behaviour of a seven-month-old child, Johnny, who reacts with excitement and smiles when his mother enters the room and speaks to him. This behaviour is a clear example of the sensorimotor stage of Jean Piaget's cognitive development theory. During this stage, infants start to become aware of and interact with their surroundings using their senses and motor abilities. Johnny's response to his mother's voice shows that he is developing an understanding of cause and effect and recognizing familiar people.
In conclusion, Johnny's behaviour of getting excited and smiling at the sound of his mother's voice is an example of the sensorimotor stage of cognitive development.
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Which of the following tactics can reduce the likelihood of injury?
Answer:
What tactics? I don't see anything
Answer:
This question is incomplete
Explanation:
There are many precautions that can be taken to reduce the likelihood of injury in everyday life, work, exercise, etc.
Everyday life: Wearing a seat belt in the car, driving the speed limit, being cautious when crossing the street, watch where you're going.
Work: Follow the safety guidelines (especially when working with dangerous equipment or chemicals), make sure you are wearing the correct uniform/safety protection gear, if there is an injury report it so that the victim can receive proper assistance.
Exercise: Warm up and stretch properly before and after a workout, make sure not to overexert yourself, make sure you are using the gym equipment correctly.
All of an organisms genetic information can be obtained within the chromosomes in a single cell almost every kind of cell in an organism has the same number of chromosomes for example most human cells have each 46 chromosomes which is a type of cell that contains 23 chromosomes in a human?
Answer:
Genetic information are derived from the chromosome of a single cell.
Explanation:
Each organism has a particular number of chromosome in their cell. Almost every kind of organism has the similar number of chromosomes, as in human. Human cells have 46 chromosomes which have 23 pairs, known as homologous pairs.
Human sperms have haploids i.e. one homologous chromosome for each pair. When the process of sperm fusion takes place the genetic components of the sperm unite themselves into a single set of diploid chromosomes.
The two chromosomes of mother and father in a pair are quite similar and carry same genetic information. However the gene types are different.
Lana cannot recognize faces. She has to fake knowing or recognizing people she has already met. Lana
MOST likely suffers from:
Answer: Since Lana cannot recognize faces, she most likely suffers from "Prosopagnosia."
Explanation:
This is known also as facial blindness. It can strike people who have had a brain injury or even a stroke. This is classified as a neurological disorder. There are cases where the person can look in a mirror or at their own pictures and not know themselves. There are even people who are born with Prosopagnosia. As of 2019, it effects just 2% of the world's population. There is currently not a cure for this.
How would eating fruits and vegetables and whole grains instead of processed high fat foods most likely affect a persons health?
Answer:
they would be healthier with less o f a chance of developing cardiovascular problems
Explanation:
Answer: Explanation:
Consuming fruits, vegetables and whole grain instead of processed food can help protect an individual against life-threatening diseases such as cancer, diabetes and high blood pressure.
An increased intake of vegetables, fruits and whole grains lower blood pressure, reduce the risk of having stroke, prevent some types of cancer, minimize risk of eye and intestinal problems. It also have a huge positive effect on blood sugar, which can help keep appetite in check and reduce weight gain or obesity.
What is the primary role of communication in enhancing health?
Communication prevents a person from having cancer.
Communication helps medical staff determine a healthcare plan.
Communication ensures that a person will get great health care.
Communication prevents medical staff from misdiagnosing a condition.
Answer: Communication helps medical staff determine a healthcare plan.
Explanation:
This is the best option out of all of these choices. Communication is key for a healthcare plan because the individual wanting healthcare has to voice what they want and their needs.
Answer:
B
Explanation:
What is outbreak at Watersedge?
Answer: A public health discovery game
Explanation:
The query seems to explore the reasons behind and connections between certain events that could lead to public health concerns, referencing environmental damage and infrastructure failure. Confirming any links requires a multidisciplinary approach, incorporating historical, environmental, and health studies.
Explanation:The question regarding 'Outbreak at Watersedge' appears to refer to a hypothetical scenario possibly linked to historical events or environmental studies, as the provided excerpts do not directly relate to a specific outbreak named 'Outbreak at Watersedge'. However, based on the context given, examining potential causes and links between described scenarios can include factors such as environmental damage, infrastructure failure, and public health concerns. For instance, the breakage of moorings and water pipes, and the displacement of a piling due to a north mooring line could lead to water contamination, which is a common precursor to public health crises. The historical note on the Winnebago Outbreak of 1827 suggests that investigating historical records and environmental impacts can offer insights into possible causes and connections between seemingly disparate events. Confirming suspected links would involve interdisciplinary approaches, combining historical research, environmental science, and public health studies to trace the origins and impacts of such events.
2 Points
Which of the following is not a risk associated with using legal drugs without
medical supervision?
A. Taking inappropriate or dangerous dose amounts,
O
B. Ignoring or not recognizing the side effects.
C. Paying too much on the black market instead of getting a
prescription
D. Not having a guarantee of purity or potency of the drug,
SUBMIT
Answer:
C. paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription
Explanation:
this will not happen with illegal prescription
The option that is not associated with the risk of using legal drugs without medical supervision is paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription. Thus, the correct option is C.
What is Medical Supervision?Medical supervision may be defined as the process of regular coordination, direction, and inspection by a physician of an individual's exercise of delegation to deliver medical services to patients.
Paying too much on the black market instead of getting a prescription may be considered an illegal activity that can not have any risk associated with using legal drugs without medical supervision.
Therefore, the correct option for this question is C.
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