Answer:
tsunami
Explanation:
A tsunami is an example of a short-term environmental change.
Explanation:A short-term environmental change is a change in the environment that occurs over a relatively brief period of time. Out of the examples given, the tsunami would be considered a short-term environmental change. Tsunamis are powerful ocean waves caused by movements in the seafloor. They often result from earthquakes, volcanic eruptions, or large underwater landslides. While tsunamis can have devastating effects, their impact on the environment is relatively short-lived compared to other examples like global warming or ice ages.
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The function of the hormones secreted by the thymus gland is to: a. stimulate lymph production. b. concentrate the lymph and filter out toxins. c. enable lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells. d. break down old erythrocytes and recycle the hemoglobin.
Answer:
C. Enables lymphocytes to develop into mature T cells.
Explanation:
The thymus gland is located behind the sternum between the lungs.
The hormone secreted by the thymus gland is known as thymosin which stimulates the development of T cells.
These T cells are disease fighting cells. They play a vital role in the lymphatic system protecting the body against autoimmunity, this is when the immune system turns against itself. T cells are otherwise known as T lymphocytes.
Answer:
C. ENABLE LYMPHOCYTES TO DEVELOP INTO MATURE T CELLS
Explanation:
Thymus gland is a gland that produces thymosin hormone which is necessary for the production and development of T cells which are essential in immune response against diseases and infections. Thymus gland is located anterior to the chest, behind the sternum and is not found functioning throughout lifespan but mostly at puberty. After puberty it shrinks and replaced by fats in the body. Thymus gland produces thymosin which converts white blood cells into T cells. White blood cells called lymphocytes pass through thymus in which they are transformed into developed T cells which are then released into lymph nodes from which they execute their immune functions.
Glucose + ________ → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy
Sunlight
Sugar
Oxygen
Carbon
Answer:
Oxygen
Explanation:
This is called the process of respiration that the body uses to release energy from digested food (glucose)
The given reaction is for respiration, which is as follows:
"Glucose + Oxygen → Carbon Dioxide + Water + Energy"
Respiration is the biological process by which living organisms, including plants and animals, utilize oxygen to break down organic molecules (such as glucose) and produce energy. There are two main types of respiration: cellular respiration and respiratory gas exchange.
Glucose is a simple sugar and an essential molecule in biology. It is an essential source of energy for living organisms, including plants and animals. Glucose is a carbohydrate, specifically a monosaccharide, and is classified as a hexose because it contains six carbon atoms.
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Cold fronts appear on weather maps in areas of
Answer:
- Large temperature and air pressure decrease
- Temperature and air pressure increase
Explanation:
DNA functions as a sort of recipe for the proteins that make an organism what it is and make it work. It doesn't make proteins directly but directs a series of steps that result in proteins. Which sequence below correctly follows how this works?
Final answer:
DNA directs the steps of transcription and translation to produce proteins.
Explanation:
The sequence that correctly follows how DNA functions as a recipe for proteins is as follows:
DNA serves as the genetic material and provides instructions for protein synthesis.DNA is transcribed into messenger RNA (mRNA) through a process called transcription.The mRNA leaves the nucleus and enters the cytoplasm, where it is translated to produce proteins.So, DNA directs the steps of transcription and translation, ultimately resulting in the production of proteins.
Which of the listed items are TRUE for sauropods?
Select ALL that apply.
A. unidirectional respiration likely lived in large groups
B. hypothesized lifespans of roughly 100 years
C. commonly lived in swamps
D. carried their tails off of the ground
E. forelimbs and hindlimbs both plantigrade
Answer:
A. Unidirectional respiration, likely lived in large groups
B. hypothesized lifespans of roughly 100 years
D. carried their tails off of the ground
Explanation:
Saurapods are long neck hebivores with following characteristics :
Obligate QadrupedalityUnidirectional respirationLikely lived in large groupsVery large Weak teethHypothesized lifespans of roughly 100 yearsCarried their tails off of the ground Extracervical vertebraeReduced skull sizeTooth to tooth occlusion for precise bitesFour or more sacralsReduced number of phalanges on manus.Hence options A, B and D are correct.
Which of the following is a natural driver of climate change?(1 point)
solar radiation
changes in land use
emissions of gases from products
burning fossil fuels
The rotation curve for our galaxy shows stars beyond the sun moving slower than expected. True or False
Answer:
so true!!
Explanation:
Why is the human body compared to a fine-tuned machine?
Answer:
The human body is well defined machine as its parts are performing all the functions like - bones and muscles help the structure-frame means help us to walk , run , lift weights etc . Ear to hear , Nose to smell , Eyes to see , Brain to conduct body parts , Hands to lift up things and legs to walk etc .
Explanation:
Answer:
The human body is well defined machine as its parts are performing all the functions like - bones and muscles help the structure-frame means help us to walk , run , lift weights etc . Ear to hear , Nose to smell , Eyes to see , Brain to conduct body parts.
Explanation:
The Florida Panther was once considered to be a subspecies of cougars and given a special trinomial taxonomy of Puma concolor coryi. Current scientists however, have studied the Florida Panther and removed the subspieces classification to only Puma concolor. Which of the following would most likely explain why the classification of the Florida Panther changed.A) New genetic evidence suggests a much closer relationship between the Florida Panther and other cougars.B) Shared features between the Florida Panther and other cougars were also found in newly discovered organisms in the world.C) Advanced technologies have shown a large difference in cell structure between the Florida Panther and other cougars.D) Trinomial naming conventions are no longer used by longer used by scientists because only the genus and species are important in taxonomy.
Answer:
Trinomial naming conventions are no longer used by longer used by scientists because only the genus and species are important in taxonomy.
Explanation:
Trinomial naming convention is the three naming system of organisms in which three names are given to the organisms i. e. genus, species and subspecies of the organism. This three naming system is removed because genus and species are important in naming system. This is an old method and the new scientist don't use it anymore for taxonomy of an organism.
The most likely reason the classification of the Florida Panther changed from Puma concolor coryi to simply Puma concolor is: A) New genetic evidence suggests a much closer relationship between the Florida Panther and other cougars.
Genetic studies showed fewer differences than previously thought, resulting in the reclassification to just Puma concolor.This means that genetic studies showed fewer differences between the Florida Panther and other cougar populations than previously thought, leading scientists to classify them as the same species. Trinomial taxonomy is used when there is a significant subspecies distinction, but new genetic data can result in reclassification.complete question:
The Florida Panther was once considered to be a subspecies of cougars and given a special trinomial taxonomy of Puma concolor coryi. Current scientists however, have studied the Florida Panther and removed the subspieces classification to only Puma concolor. Which of the following would most likely explain why the classification of the Florida Panther changed.
A) New genetic evidence suggests a much closer relationship between the Florida Panther and other cougars.
B) Shared features between the Florida Panther and other cougars were also found in newly discovered organisms in the world.
C) Advanced technologies have shown a large difference in cell structure between the Florida Panther and other cougars.
D) Trinomial naming conventions are no longer used by longer used by scientists because only the genus and species are important in taxonomy.
Which parts of the amino acids x and y are involved in the formation of a peptide bond?
Answer:
The carboxyl group of x and amino group of Y
Explanation:
An amino acid is made up of a carboxyl (-COOH) functional group, an amino (-NH2) functional group and a side chain (R group) . In the joining of two amino acid molecules, a chemical bond called the peptide bond is formed. The peptide bond is formed by the chemical a reaction between the acid carboxyl group (-COOH) of amino acid X and the amino group (-NH2) of amino acid Y. This reaction is referred to a condensation reaction as one molecule of water is lost in the reaction.
The continuous linkage and formation of peptide bonds between amino acids result to the formation of a polypeptide chain.
An organic molecule that composes functional group amino and carboxylic acid with a side chain distinct for the acid is called amino acids.
The carboxyl group (x) and an amino group (y) are required in peptide formation.
An amino acid involves an acidic carboxyl (-COOH) and a basic amino (-NH₂) group accompanied by a side chain (R group).Two amino acids are linked unitedly by a peptide bond.A peptide bond is formed when the acidic carboxyl group (-COOH) reacts with the basic group (-NH₂) of another amino acid.In this type of reaction, one water molecule gets discharged and hence they are called a condensation reaction.The perpetual bond formation and linkage form the polypeptide chain.To learn more about amino acids follow the link:
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What is environmental science?
Why is environmental science considered an interdisciplinary field?
What is scientific inquiry?
What does CONPTT stand for?
Review your “science is and science is not” handout from the beginning of the year. Know what makes something a “science”! (CONPTT)
What is the difference between an observation and an inference?
What is a food web? What is a food chain? How are they different?
In your own words, explain the 10% rule.
Practice: If you 600 million calories were available to the primary consumers, approximately how many calories would be available to the quaternary consumers? SHOW YOUR WORK!
The following questions are answered below
Explanation:
Environmental science
Environmental science is defined as study of relationships of the natural world and organisms and their environments.
Environmental science considered an interdisciplinary field?
Environmental science is interdisciplinary because each and every scientist should know the concepts of population dynamics, biology, economics, and energy, chemistry, etc. to handle the environmental issues.
What is scientific inquiry?
Scientific inquiry defines the diverse ways in which the scientists study about the natural world and provide the explanations for their work.
What does CONPTT stand for?
CONPTT stands for consistent, Observable, Natural, Predictable, Testable, And Tentative.
“science is and science is not”
A non- science is the study that is not scientific and that is not a natural science or a science that is an object of scientific inquiry.
difference between an observation and an inference
Inference is the act of inferring and observation is the act or instance of noticing .
What is a food web? What is a food chain? How are they different?
A food web consists of many food chains and the food chains has one path as animals find food.
explain the 10% rule.
The 10 % law states that the transfer of energy from one trophic level to the other.
If you 600 million calories were available to the primary consumers, approximately how many calories would be available to the quaternary consumers?
The primary consumers obtain only a fraction of solar energy about 10% that is captured by the producers they eat.
Environmental science is the study of interactions between humans and the environment. It is an interdisciplinary field that incorporates knowledge from various scientific disciplines. The 10% rule states that only 10% of energy is transferred between trophic levels in a food chain or food web.
Explanation:Environmental science is the study of the interactions between humans and their environment. It involves studying topics such as natural resource management, pollution control, and conservation of biodiversity.
Environmental science is considered an interdisciplinary field because it incorporates knowledge and methods from various scientific disciplines, such as biology, chemistry, physics, and geology, to understand and address environmental issues.
Scientific inquiry is the process of asking questions, conducting experiments, and gathering evidence to understand natural phenomena.
CONPTT stands for Consistency, Observation, Natural Cause, Prediction, Testability, and Tentativeness, which are the key principles of scientific inquiry.
The difference between an observation and an inference is that an observation is something directly observed or measured using the five senses, while an inference is a logical interpretation or conclusion based on observations and prior knowledge.
A food web is a network of interconnected food chains that shows the flow of energy from one organism to another in an ecosystem, while a food chain is a linear sequence of organisms where each organism is eaten by the next organism in the chain.
The 10% rule states that only about 10% of the energy from one trophic level is transferred to the next trophic level. This means that as energy flows through a food chain or food web, there is a decrease in the amount of energy available at each successive trophic level.
Based on the 10% rule, if 600 million calories were available to the primary consumers, approximately 60 million calories would be available to the quaternary consumers. This is calculated by multiplying the energy available at the previous trophic level by 0.1.
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The qualities and characteristics that shape a person's unique character and identity refer to
A. perspective
B. classification
C. assessment
D. personality
Answer:
personality on edg
Explanation:
Answer:
D. Personality
Explanation:
Hope that this helps. Please mark me the Brainliest, peace and love
Which physical characteristics are found on earth but not on the moon ?
Answer: Oceans, active volcanoes, an atmosphere, life, etc.
The physical characteristics are found on earth but not on the moon are trees, Oxygen, Water.
What are the characteristics of moon?The Moon is like a desert with plains, mountains, and valleys. It also has many craters, holes created when space rocks hit the surface at a high speed. There is no air to breathe on the Moon. The Moon travels around the Earth in an oval-shaped orbit.
The moon has mountains, plateaus, plains and depressions on its surface. In the reflected light on the Earth these features look like shadows. Hence, we see shadows on the surface of the Moon.
These eight phases are, in order, new Moon, waxing crescent, first quarter, waxing gibbous, full Moon, waning gibbous, third quarter and waning crescent. The cycle repeats once a month (every 29.5 days).
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i’m not to sure what the answer is
Two components of the presumed child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome (CSAAS) are the denial of abuse and recantation of abuse. Researchers who analyzed actual interviews with sexually abused children found that, in reality, the denial and recantation of abuse:
Answer:
are unusual
Explanation:
Two components of the presumed child sexual abuse accommodation syndrome (CSAAS) are the denial of abuse and recantation of abuse. Researchers who analyzed actual interviews with sexually abused children found that, in reality, the denial and recantation of abuse are unusual.
What causes the moose population to decrease? When this happens, what happens to the wolf population?
Answer:
what causes the moose population to decrease? a= Without thinning and new growth caused by wildfires, moose have less feeding and breeding habitat. According to Campbell, moose populations are highest in areas 40 years after a major wildfire. But habitat loss is not the only probable cause of moose decline. ... “Moose rely on deep snow to avoid predators in the winter.
Explanation:
what happens to the wolf population? A= What would happen to the wolf population if the moose population decreases? ... Moose increase; wolves have more food and increase; moose decrease and then wolves decrease.
Wolves rely on moose and other animals to survive. Without moose, the wolf population would either decrease or find other food such as warthogs, fish, and other animals,
Pablo sufre vértigos y mareos, pero no tiene ningunproblemade audición. Acude a su medico de familia, quien lo envía al otorrino. ¿Por qué crees que debe examinarle este especialista, si oye bien?
Answer:
Pablo suffers from vertigo and dizziness, but he does not have any hearing problem. He went to his family doctor, who sent him to the otorrino. Why do you think this specialist should examine him, if he hears correctly?
Vertigo is a sensation of movement or spinning that is often described as dizziness.
Explanation:
There are two types of vertigos: the peripheral ones, that affect the vestibular system of the inner ear and the central ones, which are the ones that affect the brain; and the central vertigo, which is due to a problem in the brain, usually in the brain stem or the back of the brain or cerebellu. This is the reason why the peripheral should be treated by specialists in otorhinolaryngology and the central by neurologists.
Which of the following statements about plant cell walls is true?
(a) The microtubule cytoskeleton directs the orientation in which cellulose is deposited in the cell wall.
(b) The molecular components of the cell wall are the same in all plant tissues.
(c) Because plant cell walls are rigid, they are not deposited until the cell has stopped growing.
(d) The cellulose found in cell walls is produced as a precursor molecule in the cell and delivered to the extracellular space by exocytosis.
Answer:
AExplanation:
1. The cell is present in some type of cells. It is found in plants and bacteria and some others. It is present or found outside the plasma membrane.
2. The functions of cell wall are that it provides tensile strength and protection to the cell against many type of stress. It also plays very important role in many others protections for the cell. There are two layer, named as primary cell wall and secondary cell wall.
3. Composition of Plant cell walls is that they are primarily made of cellulose. Cellulose fibers are linear long polymers of around 100 molecules of glucose. These fibers cluster into bundles, known as or called microfibrils. In plants the microtubule cytoskeleton are present, and there function is that they directs the orientation of cell wall as in which orientation cellulose is deposited in the cell wall.
Why can the same trna and rrna molecules be used to synthesize a wide variety of polypeptides
tRNA and rRNA can synthesize a variety of polypeptides because tRNA molecules recognize and deliver specific amino acids to the polypeptide chain, while rRNA in ribosomes helps align the mRNA and catalyze the formation of peptide bonds between amino acids.
Explanation:The same tRNA and rRNA molecules can be used to synthesize a wide variety of polypeptides due to their structural and functional properties. Transfer RNA (tRNA) molecules have specific sequences called anticodons that can recognize and bind to complementary codons on an mRNA molecule. These codons specify a certain amino acid in the genetic code. A single tRNA molecule can therefore bind to its corresponding amino acid and deliver it to a growing polypeptide chain in a ribosome.
Ribosomal RNA (rRNA), on the other hand, forms the core of the ribosome's structure and facilitates the alignment of the mRNA and the ribosomes, thus ensuring the correct translation of the genetic code into a polypeptide. Furthermore, the rRNA in the ribosome has enzymatic activity and catalyzes the formation of peptide bonds between aligned amino acids.
These unique properties of tRNA and rRNA allow them to interact with a variety of mRNA sequences to synthesize a wide range of polypeptides, hence forming different proteins essential for life processes.
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The same tRNA and rRNA molecules can synthesize a wide variety of polypeptides due to the specific and versatile roles they play in the translation process.
tRNAs serve as adaptors, matching codons on the mRNA template to the correct amino acids. Each tRNA can recognize a particular codon through its anticodon and carry the corresponding amino acid to the growing polypeptide chain.
Despite the diversity of proteins synthesized, the underlying genetic code and translation machinery are almost universal among living organisms, with adaptations in specific cases.
Aminoacyl tRNA synthetases ensure fidelity by charging tRNAs with the correct amino acids. These enzymes are highly specific, matching each tRNA with its respective amino acid.
This process involves the transfer of an amino acid to the tRNA's acceptor stem, forming an aminoacyl-tRNA, ready for use in protein synthesis.
Which of the following stimuli would optimally activate an ON-center ganglion cell? A. A spot of light in the center of the receptive field B. A shadow in the center of the receptive field C. A ring of light covering the surround of the receptive field D. A large spot of light covering both the center and surround portions of the receptive field E. A large shadow covering both the center and surround portions of the receptive field
Answer:
Explanation:
anglion cells are the first neurons in the retina that respond with action potentials.
Assume we have an electrode either in the ganglion cell layer of the retina or in the optic nerve. The response of the ganglion cell will depend upon the responses of the cells that feed into the ganglion cell, including the photoreceptors, the bipolar cells and the various lateral interconnections via horizontal cells and amacrine cells. However, what we are really interested in is the relationship between this ganglion cell's activity (firing rate) and the visual stimulus image.
H.K. Hartline of Rockefeller University in New York did the first important experiments on this, working in the limulus (horseshoe crab). Later Stephen Kuffler at Harvard University, and Horace Barlow at Cambridge University in England also did some of the pioneering work on this topic in the early 1950s, working on the visual systems of both frogs and cats. They analyzed the ganglion cells' sensitivity to light by using the following simple technique. A very small spot of light was flashed on the surface of the retina for a brief duration. The position of the spot of light was systematically varied across the retinal surface, and while they did this the response of the ganglion cell was continuously monitored.
A spot of light in the center of the receptive field optimally activates an ON-center ganglion cell by depolarizing it, as the cell responds positively to direct light stimulus on the center and negatively (hyperpolarizes) to light on the surround.
The ON-center ganglion cell is optimally activated when light stimulus occurs directly in the center of its receptive field but not in the surround. When a spot of light covers the center, the ON-center ganglion cell responds by depolarizing, as the center region is directly connected to the photoreceptors that trigger this response through decreased glutamate release. Conversely, light in the surround causes opposing effects due to indirect communication via horizontal and amacrine cells, resulting in hyperpolarization. Thus, the ideal stimulus for this cell type would be a spot of light precisely covering the center region without affecting the surround. Considering this, the correct answer is A. A spot of light in the center of the receptive field. This stimulus will lead to an increase in the ganglion cell's activity since there is less inhibition from the photoreceptors and the bipolar cells directly associated with the center of the receptive field.
Barry was playing pool. He struck the cue ball (the white ball) with his cue stick. The ball moved toward the other balls that were sitting, all touching each other, in the middle of the pool table. What happened when the cue ball hit one of the other balls?
A. All of the balls lost energy.
B. The cue ball and the ball it hit lost energy.
C. All of the balls except the cue ball lost energy.
D. Only the cue ball lost energy.
Answer:
Only the cue ball lost energy, because when you think about it when the cue ball strikes the others it shoots from the triangle it was formed and the 15 balls shoot across the table until they stop but the cue ball is still at the hit position
Explanation:
Upon impact, kinetic energy and momentum from the cue ball are transferred to the ball it collided with in an elastic collision, where the total energy is conserved but redistributed. Some energy is lost to friction, heat, and sound, making answer B the most accurate.
When Barry struck the cue ball with his cue stick, the cue ball moved with a certain amount of kinetic energy and momentum toward the other stationary balls on the pool table. As the cue ball hit another ball, according to the conservation of momentum and energy in an elastic collision, the kinetic energy and momentum are transferred from the cue ball to the ball it hit. This means that the cue ball loses some of its energy to the other ball, but the total energy in the system is conserved; it is just redistributed among the two balls. In an ideal elastic collision on a frictionless table, no energy is lost; however, in the real world, some energy is always lost to sound, heat, and friction. Therefore, in response to the student question, the closest answer would be B. The cue ball and the ball it hit lost some energy to forces such as friction and sound, not to the other stationary balls.
An organism grown in a high nutrient liquid broth to high turbidity always appears to produce a blue pigment and even when a large inoculum is transferred to a nutrient rich agar plate it appears blue. When the researcher noticed it never appears blue when very small colonies were grown in low nutrient agar plates. What is the most plausible conclusion?
Answer:
The blue pigment production is linked to quorum sensing.
In which domain is the bottom of the DNA-binding cleft? What type of secondary structure lines the bottom of the cleft? In which domain is the bottom of the DNA-binding cleft? What type of secondary structure lines the bottom of the cleft? The bottom of the cleft is in the fingers domain. It is lined with alpha helices. The bottom of the cleft is in the fingers domain. It is lined with a beta sheet. The bottom of the cleft is in the thumb domain. It is lined with both alpha helices and a beta sheet. The bottom of the cleft is in the palm domain. It is lined with alpha helices. The bottom of the cleft is in the palm domain. It is lined with a beta sheet.
Answer:
The bottom of the cleft is in the palm domain. It is lined with beta sheet.
Explanation:
During DNA synthesis, a single DNA strand is being built in by polymerization of nucleotides. These polymerization process is catalyzed by enzymes called DNA polymerase. These DNA polymerase can be visualized as an open right hand which is composed of a thumb domain, a finger domain and a palm domain. The palm domain contains a prominent beta-sheet that forms a plate at the button of the DNA-binding cleft.
The subject in question is Remote Sensing, which involves the use of satellites to collect data from the Earth's surface. This data is obtained through sensors that capture information in both the visible and non-visible portions of the electromagnetic spectrum. An example of this type of data is the Landsat image.
Explanation:The subject in question is Remote Sensing, which involves the use of satellites to collect data from the Earth's surface. This data is obtained through sensors that capture information in both the visible and non-visible portions of the electromagnetic spectrum.
An example of this type of data is the Landsat image, which provides a visual representation of the Earth's surface. It can be used for various applications, such as monitoring vegetation, identifying land cover changes, and studying natural disasters.
The use of satellites and remote sensing technology is an important area in Physics that combines principles from various fields, including optics, electromagnetism, and signal processing.
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The process by which organisms that are better adapted to the environment survive and reproduce is called ?
Answer:
Natural selection
Explanation:
Answer:
I believe it is Natural selection
Explanation:
which change to one of the kits would make it useful for modeling proteins?
Answer:
I just took it and got it wrong so it’s not set 2, add a box for sulfur (s) atoms
Explanation:
Answer: C. Set 3, replace the box of phosphorous (P) atoms with a box of sulfur (S) atoms
Explanation: I just took it and got it right
Bees are a colonial species and live in hives with thousands of other bees. Which description is an example of commensalism? a bee hive located in an attic space a bee hive in a hollow tree a bee hive built in the ground a bee hive in a wall a bee hive in a garage
Final answer:
The example of commensalism among the given options is a bee hive located in a hollow tree. In this scenario, the bees benefit from the shelter without causing harm to the tree, which represents the essence of a commensal relationship between two species.
Explanation:
The description of commensalism in the context of bee hives would be a hive that is located in a place where the bees can live and thrive without negatively affecting their host structure or environment. An example of this would be a bee hive in a hollow tree. The bees benefit by having a protected place to live and raise their young, while the hollow tree is not harmed by the presence of the bees. The tree simply provides a space for the bees that would otherwise be empty or used by other organisms. In contrast, bee hives located in attics, walls, or garages often cause damage or discomfort to humans, and thus, these scenarios do not represent commensal relationships.
A client is being prepared for discharge from an ambulatory surgical clinic after a cataract extraction and an intraocular lens implant. Which statement indicates to the nurse that the discharge teaching was effective?1. "I should call the clinic if my eye begins to hurt."2. "I am so glad that I can take a shower tomorrow."3. "There will be bright flashes of light for a few days."4. "My vision should show some improvement by tomorrow."
Answer: The correct answer to the question is option 1
I SHOULD CALL THE CLINIC IF MY EYE BEGINS TO HURT.
Explanation: Cataract is the opasity or clouding of the lens of the eye making it to deviate from it's normal natural transparent/clear form.It is characterised by blurry vision.Treatment of cataract is by removal of the opaque cataract and replacing it with an clear artificial lens.
Cataract extraction and intraocular lens implant is a generally safe procedure,so when pain occurs after the procedure,it indicates that infection has set in or there is bleeding in the procedure site and it is advices that when a patient notices any of these,it should be reported immediately. Certain things should be avoided after cataract extraction and intraocular lens implant, things like soap,having a bath,washing the hair can all irritate the eye so all these should be avoided from few days to atleast 2weeks after the surgery.
When the patient that has undergone cataract extraction and intraocular lens implant experiences flashes of light,it indicates they there is retinal detachment,this is not expected, but if it is experienced by the patient,it should be reported immediately too.
As mentioned earlier, cataract extraction and intraocular lens implant is generally a safe procedure and rapid improvement in vision is always recorded in some people although some other patients stay several weeks before they achieve an improvement in visual acuity.
Answer:
1.
Explanation:
Normally after cataract extraction and lens implants pain should not be felt by the subject. Therefore urgent attention should be sought if pain is experienced by the individual, which is a sign that an infection has developed or developing or bleeding in the blood vessels supplying the eyes.
Although the patient may experience discomfort after using Irritants which may affects the eyes e,g use of perfumes, soaps and shampoos, this should be avoided.
However if the patient did not use any irritants, then the discomfort should be due to infection or internal bleeding as stated above, and urgent medical help should be sought for.
National goals such as those from Healthy People 2010 and the Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) encourage curricular goals in school PE that include having students work at moderate to vigorous intensities for at least _____% of class time.
Answer: 16.7%
Explanation: Children and adolescents (ages 6 to 17 years) engage in 60 minutes or more of moderate-to-vigorous physical activity daily as described by the CDC in The Physical Activity Guidelines for Americans (second edition).
However, elementary and high schools usually run from 8 a.m to 3 pm (or 3.30pm in some cases) daily. High school students take six one-hour classes or four 90-minute classes and an hour lunch break daily.
Thus, the CDC recommends 60minutes of physical activities daily, which account to 16.7% of the total class duration (6 hours) per day.
Antibiotics are prescribed for a child with otitis media who underwent a myringotomy with insertion of tympanostomy tubes. The nurse provides discharge instructions to the parents regarding the administration of the antibiotics. Which statement, if made by the parents, indicates understanding of the instructions provided? 1."Administer the antibiotics until they are gone."2."Administer the antibiotics if the child has a fever."3."Administer the antibiotics until the child feels better."4."Begin to taper the antibiotics after 3 days of a full course."
Answer:
The preferable option will be - 1.
1. "Administer the antibiotics until they are gone."
Explanation:
A myringotomy is the insertion of tympanoplasty tubes into the middle ear to promote drainage of purulent middle ear fluid, equalize pressure, and keep the ear aerated. The nurse must instruct parents regarding the administration of antibiotics. Antibiotics need to be taken as prescribed, and the full course needs to be completed. The parents should complete the full course antibiotic therapy.
Lipoproteins are important macromolecular complexes that transport lipids through the circulatory system but are also associated with heart disease.
True or False?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Lipoprotein contain some amount of lipid, protein, phospholipids and cholesterol. It carries fat(lipid) molecules in the blood to different parts of the cells and tissues. Fats acts as insulators and protect vital organs.
High level of lipoprotein in the blood causes arteriosclerosis which is the blocking and clogging of the arteries with fats. These fats makes flow of blood difficult in the blood and it eventually causes heart related diseases and death.