Answer:
The answer is D: decreased risk of cancer.
Explanation:
As the men get older, the risk of presenting a neoplasm increases; The highest incidence of prostate cancer has been scientifically demonstrated in men over 50 years of age, such as breast cancer, and a higher frequency of lung and gastric cancer has also been seen.
In regards to the spinothalamic tract, where does the second order neuron cross the midline?
a. at that spinal cord segment
b. in the brainstem
c. at the thalamus
d. never crosses midline
Answer:
The correct answer will be option A.
Explanation:
In spinothalamic tract is a projection with axons which terminates in the thalamic nuclei. This tract comprises of three neuron pathways: primary order neurons, secondary order neurons and tertiary order neurons.
The axons of the secondary order neurons receive the impulse to form the primary order neuron in the dorsal neuron and then crosses the midline at the anterior spinal cord in ventral white commissure to reach the opposite sides. after this neuron passes through the brainstem to the thalamus.
Thus, option A- at that spinal cord segment is the correct answer.
It is the opening of the urethra and is also known as the external urethral orifice.
Answer:
The urinary meatus
Explanation:
The urinary meatus is the opening of the urethra and is also known as the external urethral orifice.
The urine is stored in the urinary meatus for both males and females.
It is considered dangerous sometimes if you don't release your urine because it could explode inside your body.
Which of the following procedures can be used to repair a detached retina?
A. irindeclesis
B. strabismus correction
C. scleral buckling
D. canthotomy
Answer:
Scleral buckling
Explanation:
Scleral buckling is one of the type of eye surgery that helps in the restore loss vision in an individual. The main risk associated with scleral buckling surgery is retinal incarceration.
Scleral buckling is mainly processed to repair a damaged and detached retina. Retinal detachment may occur due to increased age, previous cataract surgery and diabetes.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Which one of the following diuretics is a potassium sparing diuretic?
A. Hydrochlorothiazide
B. Spironolactone
C. Indapamide
D. Furosemide
Answer:
(B). Spironolactone.
Explanation:
Diuretic drugs are used to treat hypertension by increasing diuresis (urine formation). Potassium sparing diuretics can be defined as a class of diuretic drugs that decrease secretion of potassium ions into the urine.
Normal diuretic can cause increased potassium loss that lead to hypokalemia (low level of potassium). Potassium ions are necessary for proper nerve transmission and muscle functioning.
Hence, potassium sparing drugs are used with diuretics for hypertension without causing lose of potassium ions from the body. Examples of potassium sparing diuretics are spironolactone, amiloride, and eplerenone.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
The increased risk of lung cancer that results from smoking and asbestos exposure is an example of a/an _________ effect.
Answer:
The answer is Carcinogenic effect.
Explanation:
When a physical, chemical or biological agent is capable of producing a neoplasic disease we speak of a carcinogenic or carcinogenic effect. The carcinogenic effect of cigarettes and asbestos has been scientifically demonstrated, asbestos being one of the largest producers of lung cancer in people working with this material, hence its use has already been banned in several countries.
Australopithecus afarensis:
A-all of these
B-is found in southern and eastern Africa
C-is the largest well-studied collection of early hominins
D-the fossil skeleton known as "Lucy" belongs to this species
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. all of these.
Explanation:
Australopithecus afarensis was early hominin that found between 3.9 and 2.9 million years ago in southern and eastern Africa. this hominin was well built and had a slenderly body. these were thought to be closely related to the genus homo than other primates of that time. These hominins were the most studied collection of hominins.
The most famous fossil is Australopithecus afrarensis is a skeleton named Lucy which is thought to be a very intelligent species of its time.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. all of these.
__________ are supposed to catch doctors' mistakes when it comes to interactions:
a. Nurses
b. Pharmacists
c. Director of Nursing
d. None of the above
Answer:
I think it's nurses?
There are many different kinds of sweeteners: white sugar, brown sugar, sucanat, honey, maple syrup, Splenda, aspartame, stevia. Which one is the best for you?
Answer:
The answer is Honey.
Explanation:
For my concept the best sweetener is and will continue to be honey, because it is a natural product without any other chemical or preparation components that alter its natural condition.
Final answer:
Choosing the best sweetener involves balancing natural sweeteners like honey and maple syrup, which offer slight nutritional benefits, with artificial sweeteners like aspartame and stevia that are calorie-free. Both types have their places in a diet, but moderation is essential, and whole foods should be prioritized for nutritional needs.
Explanation:
When considering which sweetener is best for you, it's important to balance between natural sources of sweetness and artificial or non-nutritive sweeteners. Natural sweeteners like honey, maple syrup, and molasses can offer nutritional benefits such as minerals and antioxidants, albeit in small amounts. These natural sweeteners, however, are still sources of added sugar and should be used in moderation. On the other hand, artificial sweeteners, including aspartame, sucralose, and stevia, provide a sweet taste without the calories. These are much sweeter than sucrose, so only a small amount is needed. It's notable that the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) and Health Canada have approved several artificial sweeteners for use, confirming their safety based on extensive reviews. However, there is ongoing debate about the long-term health effects of artificial sweeteners. Ultimately, the best sweetener for an individual depends on personal health goals, dietary needs, and taste preferences. It might be beneficial to use natural sweeteners in limited amounts for their nutritional benefits and flavors, and artificial sweeteners can be a calorie-free way to enjoy sweet tastes. Moderation is key, and considering whole foods rich in minerals and antioxidants should be a priority.
Which of the following statement(s) about cells is/are true?
1. Mitosis --- division of somatic cells
2. Meiosis --- division of sex cells
3. Somatic cells are diploid
4. Sex cells are haploid
A) 1, 2, 3, 4
B) 1 and 2
C) 3 and 4
D) 1 and 4
E) 1, 2 and 4
Answer:
The correct answer is option A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
Explanation:
Mitotic cell division is a type of cell division in which one parent cell gives rise to two identical daughter cells. This type of cell division takes place in all the cells except sex cells.
Somatic cells go through mitosis and help organisms in their growth, repair, and renewal of cells and tissue. Somatic cells are diploid in number that means they have two homologous chromosomes in their nucleus.
Meiosis is also a type of cell division that takes place in the reproductive cell or sex cells to form gametes. In this type of cell division, one parent cell gives rises to four daughter cell with half the number of chromosomes which is haploid. The sex cells are haploid as they are produced by the meiotic division.
Thus, the correct answer is option A. 1, 2, 3, 4.
What is the Icd 10 code for diverticulitis of sigmoid colon?
Answer:
The answer to the question: What is the ICD-10-CM code for Diverticulitis of sigmoid colon, as of 2018, would be: K57.32
Explanation:
The ICD-10-CM classification, is a system that is used to unify and codify diagnosis, procedures and signs and symptoms, so that healthcare professionals can identify them easily, and also so that the healthcare system, including healthcare insurance companies, and other agencies, may have a common language when it comes to talking about diseases, procedures and signs and symptoms. This code was preceded by the ICD-9-CM and both were born from the Classification of Diseases created by the WHO (World Health Organization). Today, the ICD-10-CM coding system is the one used in the United States, and the code given to Diverticulitis of the large intestine without perforation or abscess without bleeding, including Diverticulitis of the sigmoid colon is, as of 2018 and still accepted in 2019, K57.32.
The site of communication between two neurons or between a neuron and another effector cell is called a ___________.
a. Cleft
b. Synapse
c. Pre and post neuronal axis
Answer:
B. Synapse
Explanation:
The synapse is the space or the communication between two neurons or betwenn a neuron and a muscular cell or a secretory cell. Humans use the chemical synapse. The processes begings with an action potential producing a depolarization openening neurotransmitters (NT) vesicles releaseing calcium allowing the NT allowing the NT to the membrane of the postsynaptic cell sending the signal.
A synapse is the site of communication between two neurons or a neuron and another effector cell, with the synaptic cleft being the gap where neurotransmitters are released and signal transmission occurs.
Explanation:The site of communication between two neurons or between a neuron and another effector cell is called a synapse. The synapse includes a narrow space known as the synaptic cleft, which is the actual gap between the presynaptic neuron's terminal button and the postsynaptic neuron's dendrite, axon, or soma. During neurotransmission, neurotransmitters are released from synaptic vesicles within the axon terminal of the presynaptic neuron.
These neurotransmitters cross the synaptic cleft and bind to receptors on the postsynaptic cell, thereby transmitting the signal. If the postsynaptic cell is another neuron, the binding of neurotransmitters can initiate an action potential, continuing the signal transmission process.
A male patient presents with the following respiratory volumes and capacities: TV = 500 mL, ERV-600 mL, IRV 2,700 mL.
What is this patient's VC? Are these values normal? If not, are they more consistent with an obstructive or restrictive disease pattern? Explain.
Answer:
The patient VC is 3800ml.
Explanation:
Vital capacity may be defined as the maximum amount of air that a person can expel after maximum inspiration. Tidal volume is the sum of expiratory reserve volume, inspiratory reserve volume and tidal volume.
Vital capacity (VC) of a patient is 3800 (500+600+2700). The patients has restrictive disease pattern because its expiratory reserve volume has been decreased. The patients suffers from the lung restriction and respiratory failure.
Thus, the patient VC is 3800 ml and has restrictive disease pattern.
The patient's Vital Capacity, calculated as the sum of Tidal Volume, Expiratory Reserve Volume, and Inspiratory Reserve Volume, is 3,800 mL, lower than the average for males, and may suggest a restrictive lung disease.
Explanation:The patient's Vital Capacity (VC) can be calculated by adding the Tidal Volume (TV), the Expiratory Reserve Volume (ERV), and the Inspiratory Reserve Volume (IRV) together. In this case, the VC will be the sum of 500 mL (TV) + 600 mL (ERV) + 2,700 mL (IRV), which equals 3,800 mL.
The average male VC is approximately 4,800 mL, so this patient's VC is somewhat lower than usual. These values might suggest a restrictive disease pattern, characteristic of conditions such as pulmonary fibrosis or muscular dystrophy, in which lung expansion is limited and the total lung volume is reduced.
Learn more about Pulmonary Volumes and Capacities here:https://brainly.com/question/31142085
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Which of the following airways precisely carry air to each of the lung?
a. terminal bronchioles
b. bronchioles
c. tertiary bronchi
d. secondary bronchi
e. primary bronchi
Answer:
D - Secondary bronchi
Explanation:
The secondary bronchi is the first subdivision of the lung and it directly carries air to each lobe of a lung. It serves as a pathway of gas exchange to provide air to the 3 lobes of the lung (superior, middle and inferior).
Dysfunction of the pituitary gland woutld probably affect the functioning of the _______:
a. parathyroid gland
b. gonads
c. pancreas
d. adrenal medullia
Answer:
(b). gonads
Explanation:
Pituitary gland can be defined as an endocrine gland, which regulates functions of various glands by synthesizing and secreting various hormones. Gonads are under regulation of hypothalamic-pituitary pathway.
The anterior pituitary gland secreted LH (luteinizing hormone) and FSH (follicle-stimulating hormone), which stimulate gonads to release testosterone and estrogen.
On the other hand, parathyroid gland, pancreas, and medulla work independently and do not depend on hormones released from pituitary.
Hence, dysfunction of pituitary gland would mainly affect the functioning of gonads.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).