Answer:
C: High sugar pulls fluid into the bloodstream, which results in more urine production .
This is the best nursing explanation for the symptom of polyuria in a client with diabetes mellitus.
Explanation:
Diabetes can lead to many health problems, even kidney failure. 'Type 1 diabetes' is a disease in which the pancreas halts producing insulin. This insulin hormone is essential to getting energy from food. It can affect humans of any age.
Polyuria occurs in diabetes when the blood has excess amount of sugar. Kidneys produce urine and reabsorb all the sugar and send it back to the body. So, excess sugar has domino effect on the body and leads to more urine. Frequent urination means lots of fluids loss from the body and person becomes dehydrated.
The increase in volume of the muscle fibers due to the enlargement of its components is referred to as
Answer:
The increase in volume of the muscle fibers due to the enlargement of its components is referred to as hypertrophy.
Explanation:
Hypertrophy is about increasing the size of the transverse diameter of muscle fibers, it causes the muscle to grow in volume, due to the stimulation of the growth of muscle cells without cell division in the muscle. Hypertrophy occurs as a result of resistance training.
Based on the information in the video, which of the following correctly answers these three questions:
What was the leading cause of death in the United States in the early 1970s?
What is the leading cause of death in the United States today?
What is predicted to be the leading cause of death in the United States 10 years from now?
a) automobile accidents; cardiovascular disease; HIV/AIDS
b) cancer; cardiovascular disease; cancer
c) bacterial infections; automobile accidents; cancer
d) cancer; HIV/AIDS; cardiovascular disease
e) cardiovascular disease; cancer; bacterial infections
Answer:
The leading cause of death in the United States in the early 1970s were the bacterial infections, nowadays are the automobile accidents and 10 years from now is predicted to be cancer.
Explanation:
In the early 1970s, there was a massive bacterial infection thatcaused the death of hundreds of american citizens, which also was the result of the medical development.
Nowadays the automobile accidents are very common for reseveral reasons such as drogs, sleeping problems.
Because of the alimentation of americans is predicted that the cancer will be the leading cause of death in the United States 10 years from now.
Which of the following is a typical feature of an ATP-driven active transport mechanism?
a) The transport protein is irreversibly phosphorylated as transport takes place.
b) The transport protein catalyzes the conversion of ADP to ATP.
c) The solute moves against the concentration gradient.
d) The transport protein must cross to the correct side of the membrane before the solute can bind to it.
Answer:
The solute moves against the concentration gradient. (Ans. C)
Explanation:
Active transport: In this transport a substance moves against a concentration gradient. Active transport mechanism expending the energy to maintain ions or molecules right concentration in living cells. Active transport basically divided into two types:
1) Primary active transport: In which for the movement of ions across the membrane against their gradient they use directly a source of chemical energy from ATP. Example of active transport is sodium potassium pump.
2) Secondary active transport: It is also called as co-transport. They are using electrochemical gradient which is generated by active transport. In which for the movement of ions across the membrane against their gradient, and they don't require a source of chemical energy from ATP.
ATP-driven active transport mechanisms require the use of ATP and move substances against their concentration gradient. One typical feature is that the transport protein must cross to the correct side of the membrane before the solute can bind to it.
Explanation:ATP-driven active transport mechanisms require the use of ATP, the energy currency of cells. These mechanisms move substances against their concentration gradient, meaning from an area of low concentration to an area of high concentration, which requires energy input. One typical feature of ATP-driven active transport is that the transport protein must cross to the correct side of the membrane before the solute can bind to it.
The processes of DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli are similar in some respects and different in others.
Select the THREE statements below that describe BOTH DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli.
Question options:
a.The direction of enzyme movement on the template strand is 3' to 5'
b.The process requires a primer.
c.The mechanism of reaction is attack by the 5'OH group of the pentose on the a-phosphate of an incoming nucleoside triphosphate.
d.A specific region of the DNA is recognized and bound by the polymerase.
e.The direction of polymerization is 5' to 3'
The process includes its own 3' to 5' exonuclease proofreading mechanism.
Answer:
a d e are the options that describe BOTH DNA replication and RNA transcription in E. coli.
Explanation:
a)The direction of enzyme movement on the template strand is 3' to 5'
d) A specific region of the DNA is recognized and bound by the polymerase.
e)The direction of polymerization is 5' to 3'
Distinguish between a renal corpuscle and a renal tubule
Answer:
Explanation:
In the kidney the renal corpuscle are part of a nephron that consists of a glomerulus and a glomerular capsule( Bowman's capsule) they are used to filter blood in the nephron before urine is formed.
While renal tubule is a part of a nephron it is an extension of the renal corpuscle to the collecting duct
The renal tubule contains filtrate collected from the renal capsules and empties it into the duct system. The tubule allows the reabsorbption of filtrate back into the blood.
The renal corpuscle and renal tubule are main parts of the nephron in the kidney. The renal corpuscle is responsible for filtration of blood, while the renal tubule is responsible for reabsorption and secretion processes.
Explanation:The renal corpuscle and renal tubule are two main components of the functional unit of the kidney, known as the nephron. The renal corpuscle is composed of a glomerulus and Bowman's capsule, located at the beginning of the nephron. It is responsible for filtration of blood, allowing fluid and solutes to pass into the Bowman's capsule, while larger structures such as proteins and blood cells are retained.
On the other hand, the renal tubule, which extends from the Bowman's capsule, is where most of the reabsorption and secretion processes take place. This tubule includes the proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule, and collecting duct, each with specific functions in maintaining body homeostasis through selective reabsorption and secretion.
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A method used by horticulturalists when they rotate the use of fields—planting crops on a particular piece of land for a period of time, then letting it go fallow as they move on and begin planting again in a different area—is called:
Answer:
The correct answer will be- Crop rotation
Explanation:
When the growth of a type of crop which uses soil nutrients in abundance and then growing another crop in the same filed led to the decrease in the production of the next crop.
Thus farmers adapted to avoid such farming practices and developed a new practice which allowed the land to become fertile again so that the growth of next crop will not be affected.
The practice involved the planting of a crop on a piece of land then leaving the soil ploughed and unsown for a longer period of time and growing corp on another piece of land allowing the time to restore the nutrient content. This practice is known as "crop rotation".
Thus, crop rotation is the correct answer.
Which of the meninges is a delicate connective tissue membrane that clings tightly to the brain like cellophane wrap following its every convolution? a) pia mater b) meningeal layer of the dura mater c) periosteal layer of the dura mater d) arachnoid mater.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- A
Explanation:
Meninges is the outer membranous layer of the brain which plays an important role in the brain. Meninges help protects the structure of the brain, acts as a supportive structure and protect the CNS from mechanical injuries.
The structure of the meninges in made up of three layers called:
1. Dura mater: Tough outer layer present just underneath the skull which contains the vasculature of the brain. The dura mater contains two layers of connective tissue called: periosteal layer and meningeal layer.
2. Arachnoid Mater: Middle layer of the brain which is devoid of the vasculature.
3. Pia mater: thin inner layer of the meninges which is tightly adhered to the contours of the brain.
Thus, pia mater is the correct answer,
which would be the first thing in the body to attack bacteria
Answer:
Antibodies in the body would be the first to attack bacteria in case they enter our bodies
Hope this helps!
If a father with bushy eyebrows and a mother with normal eyebrows have 12 children with bushy eyebrows, how many children would you expect to find with normal eyebrows?
Answer:mmmm
Explanation:
A 45 year-old male who is in good health presents with complaints of pain in his left heel. He states that the first few steps out of bed in the morning are extremely painful. He has no history of trauma. What is the likely etiology of his pain?
A. Achilles tendinitis
B. Plantar fasciitis
C. Calcaneal spur
D. Arthritis of the foot
Answer:
B. Plantar fasciitis
Explanation:
Plantar fasciitis occurs when the plantar fascia that joins your heel to your toes becomes swollen and painful as a result of constant straining. The plantar fascia, which has a web—like appearance, is very functional in providing support during movement and also acts as shock absorber. Continuous straining of this thick ligament when involved in activities that puts much strain on it for long often results in the inflammation of the plantar fascia. Excessive running or walking, standing for long periods, wearing of inadequate shoes, and constant injury that strains the ligament are major causes.
Final answer:
The 45 year-old male is likely suffering from plantar fasciitis, characterized by heel pain upon taking the first steps in the morning
Explanation:
The patient presents with classic symptoms of plantar fasciitis, which is the most likely etiology of his heel pain. The hallmark of plantar fasciitis is pain in the heel with the first few steps in the morning or after rest, which improves with movement but may return with prolonged standing or when standing up after sitting.
Plantar fasciitis results from inflammation of the plantar fascia, a thick band of tissue that runs across the bottom of the foot and connects the heel bone to the toes.
The cholera bacterium Vibrio cholerae produces an enzyme toxin that chemically modifies a G protein involved in regulating salt and water secretion in intestinal cells. Stuck in its active form, the modified G protein stimulates the production of a high concentration of cAMP, which causes the intestinal cells to secrete large amounts of salts into the intestines, with water following by osmosis. An infected person quickly develops profuse diarrhea and if left untreated can soon die from the loss of water and salts.
What is the basic effect of the cholera toxin?
A.The basic effect of the cholera toxin is loss of specificity of the response of intestinal cells to a
B. The basic effect of the cholera toxin is premature termination of a signaling pathway.
C. The basic effect of the cholera toxin is signal amplification.
Answer:
C. The basic effect of the cholera toxin is signal amplification.
Explanation:
Cholera toxin can cause its symptoms by amplifying the signals responsible for intestinal electrolyte transport through the following process:
The toxin binds to a membrane ganglioside (a phospholipid with carbohydrate residues) in the secretory cells in the small intestine. After that, a toxin subunit penetrates the cell, causing permanent activation of a G protein.
G protein activates adenylate cyclase, which catalyzes the formation of cAMP (A type of secondary messenger, important in signal transduction in cells), responsible for activating protein kinases.
Proteins undergo phosphorylation, this process amplifies chloride ions (Cl⁻) secretion.
The flow of negatively charged chloride ions out of the cell causes positively charged sodium ions to follow them in the flow.
Then water follows the electrolytes to the lumen of the small intestine by osmosis, resulting in severe diarrhea.
The cholera toxin induces excessive salt and water secretion from intestinal cells, leading to profuse diarrhea, dehydration, and electrolyte imbalance, which can be life-threatening if untreated.
The basic effect of the cholera toxin is to induce excessive secretion of salts and water from intestinal cells, leading to profuse diarrhea. This occurs through the modification of a G protein involved in regulating salt and water secretion, causing it to remain in its active form.
Consequently, the modified G protein stimulates the production of cyclic AMP (cAMP) at high concentrations within the intestinal cells. Elevated cAMP levels trigger the secretion of large amounts of salts into the intestines, followed by the movement of water via osmosis.
This results in the rapid onset of profuse diarrhea, leading to dehydration and electrolyte imbalance, which can be fatal if left untreated.
Complete question : The cholera bacterium vibrio cholerae produces an enzyme toxin that chemically modifies a g protein involved in regulating salt and water secretion in intestinal cells. stuck in its active form, the modified g protein stimulates the production of a high concentration of camp, which causes the intestinal cells to secrete large amounts of salts into the intestines, with water following by osmosis. an infected person quickly develops profuse diarrhea and if left untreated can soon die from the loss of water and salts. what is the basic effect of the cholera toxin?
In a given population of Drosophila, curly wings (c) is recessive to the wild-type condition of straight wings (c+). You isolate a population of 35 curly winged flies, 70 flies that are heterozygous for straight wings, and 45 that are homozygous for straight wings. What is the total number of alleles in the gene pool?
A) 2
B) 300
C) 150
D) 230
Answer:
B) 300
Explanation:
There are two types of alleles present for wing type in this population of Drosophila, c and c+. Various combinations of these two alleles will produce different phenotypes.
c+c+ : straight wings = 45
c+c: straight wings = 70
cc: curly wings = 35
Total flies = 150
Each fly has one gene with two alleles for wing type. Hence 150 flies will have 300 alleles in the gene pool.
Which taxa are parasitized more by fungi than the others?
Answer:
Plants
Explanation:
Fungi have neither chlorophyll or chloroplasts. They feed on already manufactured food. They parasitize the plants because they have chlorophyll and make their own food. The fungi send haustoria to the roots of the plants where they obtain manufactured food.
A silent mutation is the result of a change in a codon for an amino acid in a protein to a stop codon.
A) results in a shorter mRNA transcript of the gene.
B) results in a protein that is truncated from the N terminal end.
C) would likely not affect the activity of a protein.
D) would not affect the primary structure of a protein.
Answer:
Explanation:
A results in a shorter mRNA transcript of the gene
Final answer:
A silent mutation is a type of mutation that does not change the protein product. It occurs when a change in a codon for an amino acid in a protein results in a different codon that still encodes the same amino acid. Therefore, option C) would likely not affect the activity of a protein is the correct answer.
Explanation:
A silent mutation is a type of mutation that occurs when a change in a codon for an amino acid in a protein results in a different codon that still encodes the same amino acid. This type of mutation does not change the protein product and is considered neutral. It can only be detected if the gene is sequenced. Therefore, option C) would likely not affect the activity of a protein is the correct answer.
______________________ is considered a recombination event for sexual reproduction because it merges the genetic material from two genetically distinct individuals, creating a genetically unique individual.a. Independent assortmentb. Nondisjunctionc. Homologous separationd. Crossing overe. Fertilization
Answer:
Fertilisation
Explanation:
Fertilisation occurs through the fusion of two gametes, one from each parent, together in sexual reproduction.
Answer:
The correct answer is option e. "Fertilization".
Explanation:
Sexual reproduction involves the mating of two or more individuals with different genres for the creation of new life. The basis of sexual reproduction is fertilization, considered a recombination event that merges the genetic material from two genetically distinct individuals, creating a genetically unique individual. The recombination event is what allows that brothers and sister are not identical even if they share the same mother and father.
A cell has a mutation that prevents it from breaking down unwanted proteins present in vesicles. Which cellular structure is most likely to be disrupted by this mutation?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- lysosomes
Explanation:
The proteins are formed in the endoplasmic reticulum of the cell which after secretion are destined to their usable sites. The unwanted proteins not used in the cells or the used proteins have to be destructed or degraded in the cell, function performed by an organelle called lysosomes.
The lysosomes is a double membrane organelle which contains acid hydrolases enzymes which have the ability to breakdown the macro-molecules.
According to the question, if mutation takes place in the organelle which breakdown the unwanted proteins, therefore, the organelle in the lysosomes and is the correct answer.
Cystic fibrosis is a genetic disorder that causes thick mucus to build up due to inoperative proteins. These proteins are reponsible for allowing chloride ions to pass through the cell membrane. These proteins are most likely ____________ proteins.
Final answer:
Cystic fibrosis involves defective integral membrane proteins known as CFTR which are responsible for chloride ion transport. A mutation in the CFTR gene disrupts this process, leading to the production of thick mucus that obstructs various organs.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is an autosomal recessive genetic disease characterized by the production of thick and sticky mucus that causes obstructions in respiratory and digestive organs. The proteins responsible for allowing chloride ions to pass through the cell membrane are known as cystic fibrosis transmembrane conductance regulator or CFTR proteins. These are integral membrane proteins that normally function as ion channels to regulate the movement of Cl- ions across epithelial cell membranes.
When a person has cystic fibrosis, the mutated CFTR gene results in the production of a defective version of these proteins. This leads to a failure in the correct transport of Cl- ions out of the cells, disrupting water movement, and ultimately causing the mucus to become abnormally thick and sticky, which is problematic for organs like the lungs and pancreas.
Terminal cisterns ________. a) are made of smooth endoplasmic reticulum b) store acetylcholine c) are an important link between the nervous system and the muscle cell d) carry the action potential deep into the muscle cell
Terminal cisterns carry the action potential deep into the muscle cell.
Explanation:The correct answer is d) to carry the action potential deep into the muscle cell. Terminal cisterns are part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum, which is a specialized type of smooth endoplasmic reticulum found in muscle cells. They are important for muscle contraction as they store and release calcium ions, which is necessary for muscle contraction. Terminal cisterns are positioned close to the T-tubules, and together they form the triad structure which allows for the transmission of the action potential deep into the muscle cell.
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Terminal cisterns are part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum in muscle cells. Their role is to store calcium ions, which are released during an action potential to trigger muscle contraction. Terminal cisterns do not store acetylcholine nor directly carry the action potential into the muscle cell, that role is for T-tubules.
Explanation:Terminal cisterns are specialized structures found inside muscle cells. These structures are part of the sarcoplasmic reticulum which is a specialized type of smooth endoplasmic reticulum. The primary role of terminal cisterns is to store calcium ions which are essential for muscle contraction.
They do not store acetylcholine, which is a neurotransmitter that binds at a motor end-plate to trigger depolarization, resulting in muscle contraction. Instead, calcium ions stored in the terminal cisterns are released during an action potential to enable muscle contraction.
In the context of propagation of an action potential, while terminal cisterns and the sarcoplasmic reticulum play crucial roles in muscle contraction, they do not directly carry the action potential deep into the muscle cell. Instead, it's the T-tubules, another structure in muscle cells, that transmit the action potential from the surface to the interior of the muscle cell.
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Receipt of extracellular signals can change cell behavior quickly (e.g., in seconds or less) or much more slowly (e.g., in hours).
A.What kind of molecular changes could cause quick changes in cell behaviour?
B.What kind of molecular changes could cause slow changes in cell behaviour?
C.Explain why the response you named in A results in a quick change,whereasthe response you named in B results in a slow cha"
Answer:
A. Molecular changes such as extracellular signals on extracellular ligands can result in quick changes in cell behaviour. One example is insulin. Upon insulin binding on the receptor on the cell membrane, the cell release GLUT4 transporters (for muscle cells) to increase uptake of glucose.
B. Slow changes in cell behaviour can be observed for other lipophilic hormones or intracellular receptors such as glucocoortoid or estrogen which reacts with receptors in the cells.
C. Insulin is required to maintain a constant blood glucose level and hence levels of insulin has to be mediated in correspondence to the blood glucose levels. Fast acting signalling is thus required for homeostasis of blood glucose levels. Where for such lipophilic hormones such as steriods, glucocortoid, these hormones tend to have a longer lasting effect and hence results in a slow change.
A. Extracellular ligand signals can quickly change cell activity. Muscle cells release glucose transporters when insulin attaches to a cell membrane receptor.
B. Lipophilic hormones or intracellular receptors, like glucocortoid or estrogen, delay cell behavior.
C. Insulin levels must be regulated to maintain blood glucose. Glucose homeostasis needs quick signaling. Lipophilic hormones like steroids and glucocortoid create a slow shift.
What is cell signalling?Cell signalling refers to the process whereby a cell responds to substances that are found outside of the cell through signaling molecules that are found on the surface of the cell as well as inside the cell.
Extracellular signaling molecules are cues that are meant to send specific information to target cells. Some examples of extracellular signaling molecules include growth factors, hormones, cytokines, extracellular matrix components, and neurotransmitters.
The ability of cells to respond to cues coming from their surroundings and from outside the cell is facilitated in large part by intracellular signaling. Gene expression, mRNA splicing, protein expression, and protein modifications can all be modified by cells in order for them to respond to extracellular cues. Cells are able to sense their surrounding environment.
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PLEASE!!!!
In which circumstance is displacement the same as distance traveled?
A an object travels in a straight line, then comes to rest
B an object moves left and right as it travels forward
C an object returns to its initial point of departure
D an object makes a right-hand turn midway in its trajectory
Answer:
Option A
Explanation:
The displacement in simple term can be defined as the difference between the final and initial position of an object. However, distance is the total length of the movement.
For example - If an object move from point A to B which is a distance of 100 meters, then returns back to point A, and then the total distance traveled is equal to 200 meters while the displacement is zero.
Of all the given options, the distance and displacement is same for option A as the object travels from one to other and stops their only.
Hence, option A is correct
What will be the length of an open reading frame (ORF) in an mRNA (in number of bases) encoding a protein made up of 100 amino acids?
Answer:
300
Explanation:
300
Each codon has three bases and would therefore have 300 bases for the mRNA( massenger RNA coding) coding for 100 amino acids.
The open reading frame (ORF) in molecular genetics is the component of a reading frame that can be interpreted.
The length of an open reading frame (ORF) in an mRNA encoding a protein made up of 100 amino acids can be estimated by multiplying the number of amino acids by the average number of codons per amino acid.
Explanation:The length of an open reading frame (ORF) in an mRNA can be determined by calculating the number of nucleotides in the coding sequence that corresponds to the protein. Since each amino acid is encoded by a triplet of nucleotides called a codon, and there are 20 amino acids in the protein sequence, we can use this information to find the length of the ORF.
For each amino acid, there is a specific codon that encodes it. This means that there are 64 possible codons (4 x 4 x 4) and 61 of them correspond to amino acids, while 3 are stop codons. The start codon (AUG) also encodes the initiation of translation. Therefore, we can estimate the length of the ORF by converting the number of amino acids to the number of codons.
Since there are 61 codons that correspond to amino acids, we can divide the number of amino acids in the protein (100) by the average number of codons per amino acid (61/20 = 3.05). This gives us an estimate of approximately 305 codons. Since each codon consists of three nucleotides, we can multiply 305 by 3 to find the length of the ORF, which is 915 nucleotides.
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What are the formal charges on the sulfur (S), carbon (C), and nitrogen (N) atoms, respectively, in the resonance structure that contributes most to the stability of the thiocyanate ion, SCN−? The possible resonance structures for the thiocyanate ion, SCN−, are There is a structure of a thiocyanate ion. It has a charge of minus 1 and consists of a carbon which has a sulfur and a nitrogen atom attached by double bonds. Both the sulfur and the nitrogen atoms have 2 lone pairs. There is a structure of a thiocyanate ion. It has a charge of minus 1 and consists of a carbon which has a sulfur and a nitrogen atom attached. The sulfur atom has 3 lone pairs and is attached by a single bond, while the nitrogen atom has 1 lone pair and is attached by a triple bond. There is a structure of a thiocyanate ion. It has a charge of minus 1 and consists of a carbon which has a sulfur and a nitrogen atom attached. The nitrogen atom has 3 lone pairs and is attached by a single bond, while the sulfur atom has 1 lone pair and is attached by a triple bond. Structure A Structure B Structure C Express your answers as integers separated by commas.
In the most stable resonance structure of the thiocyanate ion (SCN−), the formal charges on sulfur (S), carbon (C), and nitrogen (N) respectively are +1, 0, -1. This distribution of charges satisfies the criteria for stability as it keeps the formal charges as close to zero as possible.
Explanation:In the thiocyanate ion, SCN−, the formal charges of sulfur (S), carbon (C), and nitrogen (N) atoms that contribute most to the stability of the ion can be calculated by assigning each bond as if one-half of the electrons are assigned to each atom. Let's focus on the first structure with -1 on nitrogen, +1 on sulfur, and 0 on carbon. This distribution satisfies the criteria for the most stable distribution of formal charges because it keeps the formal charges as close to zero as possible, which is the preferred arrangement. In a resonance structure, the actual distribution of electrons (the resonance hybrid) is an average of the distribution indicated by the individual Lewis structures (the resonance forms).
Based on this, the formal charges on sulfur (S), carbon (C), and nitrogen (N) respectively are +1, 0, -1.
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Sam sees a brand new car that he would love to buy, but then he starts thinking about how much money he has already put into the car he currently owns. He just paid $700 to have the radiator in his car fixeD. Ultimately, he decides to not buy the new car. What principle best explains Sam’s decision?
Select one:
a. mental accounting
b. the sunk cost fallacy Correct
c. the endowment effect
d. framing effects
Answer:
b.
Explanation:
Based on the information provided within the question it seems that the principle that best explains Sam's decision is the sunk cost fallacy. This term refers to a cost that cost that has been incurred but cannot be recovered or changed. Usually these costs were known before being incurred and do not affect future costs for the individual or business. Which is basically what Sam is mentioning when talking about all the money that he put into his already owned car, which influenced his decision on whether or not to buy a new car.
The structure and morphology of the genitalia of many insects sits in the gray area between pre- and post-mating isolation. The analogy most similar to the functional use of genital structures in these insects is a _____________________.a. ratchet that moves one directionb. bottlebrush similar to lab cleaning suppliesc. traffic light that can show red, yellow, or greend. rasp with a roughened surface for scrapinge. lock and key, where correct fit between components is critical
Answer:
Lock and key, where correct fit between components is critical.
Explanation:
Reproductive isolation may be defined as the evolutionary and physiological differences that prevent the mating of the different species. This process is critical for the speciation.
Pre reproductive mechanism prevents the meeting as well as mating of the different group of organisms. The genital structure of the insects match and unique within the species. The genital structure of the male and female species fit with each other as the key fits into its lock.
Thus, the correct answer is option (e).
Over the past half century, there has been a trend in the United States and other developed countries for people to marry and start families later in life than did their parents and grandparents. What effects might this trend have on the incidence (frequency) of late-acting dominant lethal alleles in the population?
The late marriage trend in developed countries have affected the late acting lethal alleles in a population because it causes diseased carrying genes in offspring.
Explanation:
The trend of getting married at a late age and starting family after that has been seen in many developed countries especially USA. However, it has a negative impact on the dominant alleles in the population. Marrying at a late age causes genetic disorders or diseases in offspring of humans.
It also causes the chances of having less number of babies. Older parents are more prone to having Huntington’s disease which causes people to have less children.
Marrying and starting families late in life may potentially increase the frequency of late-acting dominant lethal alleles like Huntington's disease in the population. This is because these diseases don't show symptoms until adulthood, so carriers may pass them on unknowingly until the manifestation of the disease.
Explanation:The trend for people to marry and start families later in life could have its effects on the presence of late-acting dominant lethal alleles like Huntingon's disease in the population. Dominant lethal inheritance patterns are generally rare because neither heterozygotes nor homozygotes survive. But in the case of some late-acting dominant lethal alleles, such as the allele for Huntington's disease, it may shorten the lifespan but may not be identified until after the person reaches reproductive age and has children.
For instance, Huntington's disease is an inherited disease that causes the progressive breakdown of nerve cells in the brain. It's a debilitating disease that typically manifests in middle age. Because these diseases don't show symptoms until well into adulthood, individuals with these genes may not even know they carry them until they've already passed them on to the next generation.
In view of this, the frequency of such diseases in the population could potentially increase if more individuals choose to have children later in life, considering they might unknowingly carry and pass on these detrimental genes before the manifestation of the disease.
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Cranial nerve ______ conducts equilibrium and auditory information to the brain.
Answer:
Cranial Nerve VIII
Explanation:
Cranial nerve VIII is also known as vestibulocochlear nerve. It conducts equilibrium, balance and auditory (hearing) information to the brain. It is found in the inner ear.
There are in total 12 cranial nerves. In brief the roles and names of other nerves are:
CN I (Olfactory nerve): conducts sensation of smell to the brainCN II (Optic nerve): conducts visual information to the brainCN III (Occulomotor nerve): this nerve is important for eye movementsCN IV ( Trochlear nerve): this nerve is also important for eye movementCN V (Trigeminal nerve): this nerve conducts sensory information from faceCN VI (Abducens nerve): this nerve plays a role in eye movementCN VII (Facial nerve): this nerve is important for muscles of face and also plays a role in conducting taste sensation from tongueCN VIII (Vestibulocochlear nerve): auditory information and equilibriumCN IX (Glossopharyngeal nerve): this nerve plays a role in conducting taste sensation from tongue, controls blood pressure and also innervates stylopharyngeus muslce (responsible for laryngeal and pharyngeal elevation)CN X (Vagus nerve): it supplies innervation to many visceral organs and also innervates pharyngeal and laryngeal musclesCN XI (Spinal accessory nerve): it innervates 2 important muscles; sternocleidomastoid and trapeziusCN XII (Hypoglossal nerve): this nerve innervates tongue musclesThe cranial nerve that conducts equilibrium and auditory information to the brain is the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII).
The vestibulocochlear nerve, also known as cranial nerve VIII, conducts both equilibrium and auditory information from the inner ear to the brain. It includes structures responsible for balance and hearing. Damage to these structures could cause deficiencies in either or both systems.
Explanation:The cranial nerve that conducts equilibrium and auditory information to the brain is the vestibulocochlear nerve (CN VIII). This nerve carries both equilibrium and auditory sensations from the inner ear to the medulla. It is a part of the body's anatomy involved in our sense of balance and hearing.
The inner ear consists of the vestibule, which is the portion for equilibrium, composed of the utricle, saccule, and the three semicircular canals and the cochlea, which is responsible for transducing sound waves into a neural signal. These sensory nerves from the vestibule and cochlea travel side by side as the vestibulocochlear nerve, and synapse in nuclei of the superior medulla. Deficits in one or both systems could occur from damage to structures close to both nuclei.
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Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and frequently has periods where he can hardly breathe. The problem is the result of
a) inflammation of the bronchi.constriction of the trachea.
b) thick secretions that exceed the ability of the mucus elevator to transport them.
c) laryngospasms that occur in response to a toxic substance produced by the epithelial cells.
d) collapse of one or both lungs.
Answer: b) Thick secretions that exceed the ability of the mucus elevator to transport them.
Explanation: In cystic fibrosis the primary defect in ion transport leads to defective mucociliary action, and accumulation of thick viscid secretions that obstruct the airways. This leads to a marked susceptibility to bacterial infections, which further damage the airways. With repeated infections there is widespread damage to airway walls, with destruction of supporting smooth muscle and elastic tissue, fibrosis, and further dilatation of bronchi. The smaller bronchioles become progressively obliterated as a result of fibrosis (bronchiolitis obliterans).
Cystic fibrosis is the disease of the lungs, kidneys and liver. It resulted because of thick secretions that overextended the ability of mucus to transport them.
What is Cystic fibrosis?Cystic fibrosis is a disease that affects the mucus and the digestive juices of the respiratory and the digestive system of the body. The mucus and the other fluids become thick and sticky that resulting in the blockage of the ducts, tubes and other passages.
The blockage of the tracts by the mucus causes further bacterial infection and leads to the destruction of the air passages, smooth muscles, dilation of bronchi and many others.
Therefore, option b) thick secretion of the mucus resulted because of cystic fibrosis.
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In a genetic cross between aabbccddee and aabbccddee what fraction of the offspring will be homozygous dominant for all five genetic loci?
Answer:
None
Explanation:
The desired homozygous dominant genotype is AABBCCDDEE. To have an offspring with genotype "AABBCCDDEE", at least one copy of the dominant alleles for the genetic loci should be present in either of the parent. However, both the parents are homozygous recessive for all the five mentioned genetic loci and therefore, cannot have a progeny with homozygous dominant genotype "AABBCCDDEE". All the progeny of a cross between the two parents each with genotype "aabbccddee" would have homozygous recessive for all the give loci.
aabbccddee x aabbccddee = All aabbccddee
In a genetic cross between aabbccddee and aabbccddee, all offspring will be homozygous recessive for all five loci. There is no possibility of any offspring being homozygous dominant because both parents only have recessive alleles.
Explanation:The organisms in question have double recessive alleles for all five loci (aabbccddee). Therefore, when crossed, all of their offspring will likewise be homozygous recessive for all five loci. No offspring will be homozygous dominant since dominant alleles are absent in both parents. This is because an organism is homozygous dominant for a trait if it inherited a dominant allele from each parent. It's also important to note that each locus segregates and independently assort as adequately explained by Mendel's principle of random segregation. This exposes the offspring to a variety of possible combinations of the parent's alleles.
When crossing two individuals that are homozygous dominant for all five genetic loci, the offspring will be heterozygous for all five loci. Therefore, none of the offspring will be homozygous dominant for all five genetic loci.
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A _____ consists of all the individuals of a given species that live and reproduce in a particular place
Answer:
Population
Explanation:
Population is a group of individuals that live in the same geographical area which have the ability to interbreed because they belong to the same species. So organisms of the same species when live in a particular area are considered in population but members of the same species that are geographically isolated and can not interbreed do not make a population.
Many population comes together to form community and many communities together forms an ecosystem. An ecosystem is a functional unit which is made up of many communities with interacts with its physical environment. So the correct answer is population.
Answer:
species
range
population
family
Explanation: either one will be correct
The text states that ribonucleotides can diffuse through some types of liposomes. It is likely that the lipids present early in chemical evolution had short chains. Would liposomes formed from these types of lipids be more or less permeable to ribonucleotides than if early cells formed from long-chained lipids?
Liposomes is more permeable
Explanation:
Alec D Bangham discovered Liposomes in the 1960 at the Institute of Babraham and still Now it is field of research. With the help of natural lipids first formation is composed.
At present scientist can include natural and synthetic lipids and also surfactants. Now The capability of liposomes has work as hydrophilic and lipophilic agents. According to their formation method it can be established.