Ball and Socket Joint
This type of joint allows for a wide range of rotation and movement. The shoulder and hip are ball and socket joints.
The ball-and-socket joint, such as the hip and shoulder joints, enables the widest range of movement in the human body.
Ball-and-Socket Joint: The joint with the greatest range of motion is the ball-and-socket joint. For example, the hip joint and the glenohumeral (shoulder) joint are ball-and-socket joints that allow extensive movement in different directions.
Assume that while on a biology field trip, you find an unusual insect that you and several other biologists are unable to identify. Upon further study you find that no one has reported its existence and you want to classify it. What approach would you take?
Answer:
To describe a new specie, it has to be carefully examined in order to determinate that it doesn´t belong to an another specie already described.
Once it has been determinate the novelty of the specie, the researchers write a formal description of it, takes pictures and name it with the new scientific name. Then, the researchers refer it to a scientific magazine. The editor of the publication will comunicate the new discovery to an experts in that gender. If the experts agreed, and the publication accept the study, the specimen converts to a new specie. The process is long and could take years betwen the inicial discovery and the formal acceptation of the new specie
Explanation:
Determine whether the study is an experiment or an observational study, and then identify a major problem with the study.A medical researcher tested for a difference in systolic blood pressure levels between male and female students who are 12 years of age. She randomly selected four males and four females for her study.
Answer:
The study is an observational study because the researcher is simply collecting data from the students.
Explanation:
This case is an observational study since the medical investigator is observing and comparing individuals regarding a difference in systolic blood pressure levels between males and females.
For the study to be an experiment, the researcher should do an intervention on the students, to then collect data and study the effects of it. Also, he should group the students by chance to properly conduct an experiment.
Cephalizationa) is a feature of most invertebrates, including the spongesb) is characterized by the concentration of sensory organs in the anterior endc) occurs in marine protozoad) results when the brain does not develop properly
Answer:
b) is characterized by the concentration of sensory organs in the anterior end.
Explanation:
Cephalization is a feature of most animals (but not all) in which sensory organs (photoreceptor, chemoreceptors, mechanoreceptors, etc) and nerves (can be a brain) are localized together in the anterior end of them. This "end" is what we called "head".
Sponges don't have "head" and this feature is not exclusive of invertebrates, so option (a) is wrong. Similarly, option (c) is incorrect too because cephalization is an animal characteristic not of protozoa.
Option (d) can't be true because cephalization refers to a localized cluster of specialized sensory and nervous tissues and organs in the "head-end"; it is not necessary that there be a complex brain. However, when a brain is present, there is cephalization too.
In angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperm. What do these sperm do? In angiosperms, each pollen grain produces two sperm. What do these sperm do?
A. One fertilizes an egg, and the other is kept in reserve.
B. Both sperm fertilize a single egg cell.
C. One fertilizes an egg, and the other fertilizes the fruit.
D.Each one fertilizes a separate egg cell.
E. One fertilizes an egg, and the other combines with two polar nuclei, which develop into stored food cells (endosperm).
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-E.
Explanation:
In angiosperms, the fertilization of male and female gametes occurs through a process called double fertilization.
The male gametes produces two sperm cells while the female gametophyte is 8 celled structure in which 3 cells are known as antipodal cells, 2 cells known as polar cells, 2 cells are synergids and 1 cell is egg cell.
During double fertilization, a zygote is formed when one sperm of the male gamete fuses with the egg cell and one sperm cell fuses with the 2 polar nuclei of the central cells which forms a triploid structure called endosperm which provides nutrition to the growing embryo.
Thus, option-E is the correct answer.
The function carried out by The two sperms produced by each pollen grain is : ( E ) One fertilizes an egg, and the other combines with two polar nuclei, which develop into stored food cells ( endosperm)
Double FertilizationDouble fertilization occurs in flowering plants whereby the fusion of a sperm cell and egg occurs simultaneously with the fusion of the second sperm cell with two polar nuclei
This process occurs in angiosperms, the female gametophyte exists as an 8 celled structure where only 1 cell is the egg.
Hence we conclude that The function carried out by The two sperms produced by each pollen grain is : ( E ) One fertilizes an egg, and the other combines with two polar nuclei, which develop into stored food cells ( endosperm).
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"E. coli is an intestinal organism, and Staphylococcus epidermidis resides on the skin. What do you hypothesize will occur when both are inoculated onto mannitol salt agar?
A. Both organisms will grow since they are both ubiquitous of 20.
B. Neither organisms will grow beacause 75% salt inhebits at organisms.
C. The salt inhibits the growth of E.coli which is not a halophyte, but S.epidermidis grows.
D. The S epidernidis will not grow since it must exist at as a pure cuture the E.coli will grow."
Answer:
C) The salt inhibits the growth of E.coli which is not a halophyte, but S.epidermidis grows.
Explanation:
Mannitol Salt Agar is highly selective and is widely used to isolate Staphylococcus. These microorganisms are capable of fermenting mannitol which is the source of carbohydrate. High concentrations of sodium chloride inhibit most bacteria except Staphylococcus.
A bone thickens Select one:
a. as a result of cell division in the medullary cavity.
b. due to increased production of bone matrix by osteoclasts.
c. as a result of increased activity within the epiphyseal plate.
d. as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis.
Answer: Option D.
Explanation:
The process of bone thickening starts with the formation of a template of the hyaline cartilage diaphysis from chondrocytes. Due to developmental signals the bone matrix begins to calcify. This calcification allows the prevention of nutrition diffusion into bone matrix and opens the cavities in diaphysis cartilage. Blood vessels enters into the cavities and osteoblasts and osteoclasts modifies calcified cartilage matrix into spongy bone. Osteoclasts allows the break down of spongy bone and forms a medullary cavity in diaphysis. Irregular connective tissue forms a periosteum (covers compact bone) around the bones and allows the attachment of bone to tissues, tendons, and ligaments. The bone then continues to grow and get thick.
Hence, the correct option is D.
Final answer:
A bone thickens d. as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis. This process involves osteoblasts adding new bone tissue, which is part of appositional growth and modeling, allowing the bone to increase in diameter while maintaining a balanced structure.
Explanation:
The question pertains to how a bone thickens. To answer this, we look into the appositional growth of bones, particularly long bones. This process involves the activity of two types of bone cells: osteoblasts and osteoclasts. Specifically, osteoblasts, which are crucial for bone formation, add new bone tissue beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis. This action results in the thickening of the bone as compact bone is deposited. Concurrently, osteoclasts resorb old bone tissue lining the medullary cavity to maintain the balance in bone density and ensure the bone does not become too heavy. Hence, the correct answer to the question is (d) as compact bone is deposited beneath the periosteum of the diaphysis, which signifies the integral role of osteoblasts in the appositional growth and modeling of bones.
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the location of the heart?
a. The apex of the heart rests on the diaphragm.
b. About two thirds of the heart’s mass lies to the left of the body’s midline.
c. The heart is located between the sternum and the vertebral column.
d. The base of the heart rests on the diaphragm.
e. The heart is located within the mediastinum.
The false statement about the location of the heart is that the base of the heart rests on the diaphragm. In fact, it is the apex of the heart that rests on the diaphragm.
Explanation:The statement that is false about the location of the heart from the options provided is: option d. The base of the heart rests on the diaphragm. This is incorrect. The heart is indeed located within the mediastinum, between the sternum and the vertebral column. The apex, not the base, of the heart points downward and rests on the diaphragm. It is also true that about two-thirds of the heart's mass lies to the left of the body's midline.
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Write the complementary sequence for the following DNA sequence, in order from 3' to 5': 5′−CGATATTGAGCTAAGCTT−3′ Use all capital letters to write the DNA sequence.
Answer:
3'-GCTATAACTCGATTCGAA-5'
Explanation:
The DNA is a macromolecule formed by two strands of polynucleotides forming a double helix.
These chains are composed of monomers called nucleotides, there are 4 different types in DNA, called nitrogenous bases: two purines, guanine (G) and adenine (A) and two pyrimidines, thymine (T) and cytosine (C). They are joined by covalent bonds in each chain.
These bases are complementary: G with C, and A with T between the two strands by hydrogen bonds making the double-stranded DNA molecule.
A sequence 5'-CGAT-3' is equivalent to a sequence written 3'-ATCG-5' , because the 5' and 3' notation defines the direction of reading. If one strand is noted 5' to 3', then the complementary strand will be from 3' to 5' in the same sense.
So, all we need to do is write the complementary bases from the 3' end to 5':
5'-CGATATTGAGCTAAGCTT-3'
3'-GCTATAACTCGATTCGAA-5' (answer)
The complementary strand of 5−CGATATTGAGCTAAGCTT−3′ is
3'-GCTATAACTCGATTCGAA-5'
A part of one nucleic acid chain is often bonded to another by a sequence of base pairs. The DNA is composed of macromolecule characterized by two strands of polynucleotides often called a double helix.
The sequence of a complementary strand can be gotten when one has sequence of the template strand.
The two strands are said to complement each other.
The Adenine always pair with Thymine while the Guanine always pair with cytosine held together by hydrogen bonds.
DNA is always read in the 5' to 3' direction, that is from free phosphate and finish at free hydroxyl group.Conclusively, the 4 nitrogenous bases which are guanine (G) and adenine (A), thymine (T) and cytosine (C), are held together by strong covalent bond.
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Select the most appropriate example of the denaturation of protein.
A.
Egg albumin, which is a translucent fluid, changes to opaque white solid after boiling.
B.
Rice granules, which are smaller in size and translucent, appear larger and opaque white after cooking.
C.
Oil, if kept for a longer time at room temperature, turns rancid and appears discolored.
Answer: Option A is the correct answer because rice granules are source of carbohydrates and oil is a source of lipids.
Explanation:
Egg albumin is a translucent protein which denatures and loses shape and texture in high temperatures. The protein uncoils and tangles together because heat disrupts the peptide bonds that polymerize amino acids, thus boiled egg's albumin turns white and shifts from liquid to solid state.
Mitosis unfolds through a sequence of stages marked by specific events in the cell. The structural changes in the cell are brought about by a series of tightly coordinated underlying mechanisms.
Sort each process into the appropriate bin to indicate the stage of mitosis in which it occurs. If a process occurs in more than one stage, sort it to the stage when it first occurs.
1. Cohesins join sister chromatids of duplicated chromosome.
2.Tubulins assemble into spindle microtubules.
3. Microtubules attach to kinetochores.
4. Spindle microtubules disassemble.
5. Kinetochores are motionless in relation to poles of cell.
6. Kinetochores move toward poles of cell.
7. Cohesins break down.
a. Prophase
b. prometaphase
c. metaphase
d. anaphase
e. telophase
Answer:
1.- Prophase:
Cohesins join sister chromatids of duplicated chromosome.
2.- Prometaphase:
Microtubules attach to kinetochores.
3.- Metaphase:
Kinetochores are motionless in relation to poles of cell.
4.- Anaphase:
Kinetochores move toward poles of cell
5.- Telophase:
Spindle micrutubules disassemble.
Your study group is in the midst of a discussion on fungi. One of your classmates emphatically states that animals and fungi do not share an evolutionary relationship because they lack common characteristics. You could counter his argument by stating that animals and fungi both ________.
Answer:
The correct answer is "Both are eukaryotic and heterotrophic".
Explanation:
Even though animals and fungi do not share evident similarities, all of them share that they are eukaryotic and heterotrophic organisms. Animals and fungi belong to their own and independent kingdoms, however both belong to the taxon Eukarya or Eukaryota, cells with nucleus and defining membrane-bound organelles. Also, animals and fungi are heterotrophic organisms that dependend of producers to gather their food and energy.
Animals and fungi are both heterotrophic and store carbohydrates as glycogen, and both have cells containing chitin. Furthermore, molecular biology highlights their close evolutionary relationship.
Explanation:You could counter your classmate's argument by stating that animals and fungi both share an evolutionary relationship and have several common characteristics. While fungi are not plants due to their lack of photosynthesis and are heterotrophic like animals, there are notable similarities between animals and fungi. For instance, both fungi and animals store carbohydrates as glycogen, their cells are strengthened by chitin—with chitin being a component of the exoskeletons in arthropods, and they both possess melanin, which is also found in the skin and hair of animals. Additionally, molecular biology analyses have shown that fungi are more closely related to animals than they are to plants.
Breeders can use a Punnett square, such as the one below, to predict the outcome of a genetic cross. If the genotype of both parents was Aa, what would be expected of the genotypes among their possible offspring? Half would have the genotype AA. Half would have the genotype Aa. Three-quarters would have the genotype aa. Three-quarters would have the genotype Aa.
Answer:
Half would have the genotype Aa.
Explanation:
Given that the genotype of both of the parents was "Aa"; both parents would make two types of gametes. The 50% gametes from each parent would carry allele "A" while the rest 50% gametes from each parent would carry allele "a".
The random fusion of gametes of two parents would give the progeny with genotype ratio 1/4 AA: 1/2 Aa: 1/4 aa.
Answer:
Option B) Half would have the genotype Aa.
Vertebrate span across a diverse array of life on earth today. Fish are the first to evolve and amphibians still live with strong ties to bodies of water which is evident in their life circle
Answer:
Fossil evidence shows that vertebrates made the transition from water to land during the DEVONIAN period.
SALAMANDERS are amphibians that most closely resemble early tetrapods in body form with a long tail and 4 limbs of similar length.
A distinctive characteristic of mammals that is not observed in other vertebrates is ENDOTHERMY.
By the end of the CAMBRIAN period, all major animal lineages were present in the seas due to a great adaptive radiation of animals.
The vertebrate lung first appeared in AMPHIBIANS
Explanation:
Vertebrates started to transition from water to land later in the Devonian period. The vertebrates had to adjust to living on land such as withstanding gravity, breathing in air, adjusting senses to living on land than on water, and significant water loss due to the new environment. This was a big step in the realm of evolution because vertebrates were now able to thrive because they are no longer limited to the resources and space of water.
Salamaders are said to have not evolved much and have some characteristics that resemble early tetrapods. Regeneration of limbs is one of the salamanders unique capability which early tetrapods possessed.
Amphibians are ectotherms, which means they get their energy outside their body or their source of heat would be the heat from the environment. Amphibians and reptiles are ectotherms, and mammals are endotherms. Endotherms can generate heat internally.
The Cambrian period marks the Cambrian Explosion. According to fossil records modern organisms evolved rapidly and soon after split into different phyla due to adaptive radiation as a result of the extinction of dinosaurs.
The evolution of lungs is one of the most important changes in vertebrates which allowed early amphibians of water to move to land. It enabled them to breath air.
What are the main functions of pollen? Select all that apply. Select all that apply. protection of the male sporophyte delivery of the sperm to the female gametophyte protection of the male gametophyte nutrition of the male gametophyte
Answer:
- Delivery of the sperm to the female gametophyte
- Protection of the male gametophyte
Explanation:
The pollen grain is a microspore present in angiosperms and gymnosperms, it contains the male gametophyte.
The pollen tube present in pollen grains and the way they are transported (by wind) allows these plants to require no water for reproduction.
In addition, the pollen grain has two very resistant walls (internal and external), composed mainly of cellulose, ensuring protection to the male gametophyte until it meets the female gamete.
Mintu wants to increase the heat transfer between a metal iron and another piece of metal he wants to shape. He decides to increase the time the two metals are in contact, use a larger metal iron, and use a new metal material with a higher specific heat. Where is Mintu's error?
A) Mintu should have decreased the size of the metal iron.
B) Mintu should have decreased the time he touches the two metals.
C) Mintu should have chosen a material with a lower specific heat.
D) Mintu should have chosen a material the same temperature as the iron.
Answer:
Mintu should have chosen a material with a lower specific heat.
Explanation:
When we talk about specific heat, we refer to a specific quantity of heat that is needed for a substance or material to rise its temperature. In more concrete terms, is the amount of heat required for 1 gram of substance/material to elevate its temperature by 1 degree Celsius.
This would mean that a material with a high specific heat would require a higher quantity of heat to increase its temperature, so in this case, if Mintu wanted to make the heat transfer easier between the metal iron and the other piece of metal, he should have chosen a material that could elevate its temperature by receiving a lower quantity of heat, that is a material with a low specific heat. But instead he chose a metal with a higher specific heat, which will now make the heat transfer more difficult,and that was the error.
Answer:
c
Explanation:
Research participants were asked to identify a word that could be associated meaningfully with each of three other words. Solutions that occurred with sudden insight were accompanied by a burst of activity in the brain's ________ lobe.A. Right temporalB. Left parietalC. Right occipitalD. Right parietalE. Right frontal
Answer:
A. Right Temporal Lobe
Explanation:
The main function of the temporal lobe is interpreting sensory input, both audio and visual., meaning, it analyzes everything we see and hear, and helps us comprehend the information.
The right temporal lobe also deals with our ability to understand and learn a languages, both in spoken and in written form, so when the participants read or listened to the word, the association had to come from the language area: the right temporal lobe.
Steroid hormones bind to receptors in the nucleus of their target cells. cannot diffuse through cell membranes. remain in circulation for relatively short periods of time. are transported in the blood dissolved in the plasma. are proteins.
Answer:
The correct answer is - bind to receptors in the nucleus of the target cells.
Explanation:
Steroid hormones are the chemical compounds that are a member of the class of steroids and act as hormones. These hormones are released by the adrenal cortex, testes and ovaries in the body placenta also release steroid hormone during pregnancy.
The steroid hormones do not bind to the plasma membrane of the target cell but binds to the receptors present on the nucleus of the cell. These cells pass through the cell and reach the nucleus and bind to it or gene to produce proteins for the biological process.
Thus, the correct answer is - bind to receptors in the nucleus of the target cells.
Steroid hormones are fat-soluble molecules that enter target cells and bind to intracellular receptors, modifying gene expression to regulate cell processes.
The steroid hormones are a type of lipid-derived hormones that can diffuse through the plasma membrane into target cells due to their fat-soluble nature. Once inside the cell, these hormones bind to specific intracellular hormone receptors that may be located in the cytoplasm or nucleus. This hormone-receptor complex can then act as a transcription regulator, which alters gene expression by increasing or decreasing the synthesis of mRNA molecules of specific genes. The changes in gene expression regulate numerous cell processes by determining the amount of corresponding protein synthesized, which may modify cell structure or catalyze chemical reactions.
Muscles of the internal organs and glands are controlled by the _____ nervous system.
Answer:
Also know as the skeletal nervous system. The part of the peripheral nervous system that controls the glands and the muscles of the internal organs (such as the heart).
Mark the following statements as true or false concerning waters relevance to living systems. Water is the universal solvent in biological systems. Water bathes organs in fluid, which provides protection and support. The high specific heat of water means that we only lose a small amount of heat when the sweat on our skin evaporates. Water plays a major role in our bodies’ chemical reactions.
Answer:
Water is the universal solvent in biological systems. - TRUE
Water bathes organs in fluid, which provides protection and support. - FALSE
The high specific heat of water means that we only lose a small amount of heat when the sweat on our skin evaporates. - FALSE
Water plays a major role in our bodies’ chemical reactions. - TRUE
Explanation:
Water dissolves polar molecules hence critical solvent for energy molecules such as glucose and electrolytes such as sodium. Water also acts as a metabolite in reactions such as photolysis in photosynthesis and also in hydrolysis reactions. Water is a temperature buffer due to its high heat capacity (meaning it takes more energy to raise the temperature of water by one degree). This means it is good for the regulation of temperatures in the body.
Water is the universal solvent in biological systems and plays a major role in our bodies' chemical reactions. It also bathes organs in fluid, providing protection and support. The high specific heat of water helps regulate body temperature.
Explanation:Water is the universal solvent in biological systems, meaning it can dissolve many substances necessary for life. Water also bathes organs in fluid, providing protection and support. Additionally, the high specific heat of water allows us to lose a small amount of heat when sweat on our skin evaporates, helping to regulate body temperature. Lastly, water plays a major role in our bodies' chemical reactions, as many biochemical processes occur in the watery contents of cells.
A. thaliana, or Arabidopsis, is a common weed. Biologists have selected it over hundreds of thousands of other flowering plant species to serve as an experimental model organism because __________________.(a)it can withstand extremely cold climates(b)it can reproduce in 8–10 weeks (c) it produces thousands of offspring per plant (d) both b and c
Answer:
The correct answer is option (d) "both b and c".
Explanation:
Experimental model organisms used in scientific investigations have to fulfill certain criteria in order to be useful in the laboratory. Two of the desired characteristics are being able to reproduce quickly and with enough number of offspring in order to study genetic behaviors. Arabidopsis thaliana characteristics of being able to reproduce in 8–10 weeks and producing thousands of offspring per plant (because it can produce thousands of seeds) makes it a model flowering plant for experimental studies.
Final answer:
Arabidopsis thaliana is favored as a model organism in plant biology due to its ability to reproduce quickly (in 8–10 weeks) and produce thousands of offspring, which facilitates genetic research. The correct answer to why biologists prefer Arabidopsis is (d) both b and c.
Explanation:
Arabidopsis thaliana, often referred to as Arabidopsis, is a preferential model organism for plant biologists due to its simple yet comprehensive characteristics relevant to plant science. Unlike hundreds of thousands of other flowering plant species, Arabidopsis has been selected for study primarily because it meets specific criteria that facilitate extensive genetic and developmental research. The correct answer to why biologists have selected Arabidopsis over other species as an experimental model organism is (d) both b and c, meaning it can reproduce in 8–10 weeks and it produces thousands of offspring per plant. These features make Arabidopsis particularly suitable for genetic experiments, allowing for rapid generation turnover and extensive offspring analysis, which are invaluable for studying inheritance patterns, mutations, and plant development. Additionally, Arabidopsis's fully mapped DNA and its ability to be easily cross-pollinated for genetic mapping and creation of multiple mutation strains further underscore its utility as a model organism in plant biology. This work with Arabidopsis not only advances our understanding of basic plant biology but also has practical applications in improving crop species like wheat, rice, and corn through genetic engineering for resistance to environmental stresses.
Eukaryotic cells, like those seen here, are very similar in structure. If we compare the three cells we note that both the plant and fungal cell have something in common, something that is lacking in the animal cell. That is
Answer:
Cell wall
Explanation:
Certain group of cells are classified as Eukaryotic cells because they possess a membrane-bound nucleus that houses their genetic material (DNA) in addition to other cellular organnelles. Organisms with eukaryotic cells fall within three major groups viz: Plants, Fungi and Animal. These three distinct organisms, although all eukaryotic, have their own differences.
As stated in the question, plant cells and fungal cells share a unique structure that the animal cell does not possess. This unique structure is the CELL WALL. In addition to their cell membrane, plant and fungal cells have cell walls that is made up of cellulose and chitin respectively. The cell wall confers rigidity upon their cells. However, animal cells lack cell walls in their cells.
Which of the following best explains why "carbs" (carbohydrates) are advertised by manufacturers of candy bars and sports drinks as a "quick energy boost"?Select one:a. This is an advertising gimmick that has no scientific evidence to support it.b. Carbs are reduced molecules that have high-energy electrons.c. The energy in them can be stored as fat, which has high energy per unit weight.d. The carbons in carbs are rich in energy because they are highly oxidized
Answer:
The correct option is B.
Explanation:
Carbohydrates are the major macro molecules that are used as a source of fuel in biological systems. The smallest unit of carbohydrate is glucose and this is the only macro molecule that biological systems can use to produce energy. Other macro molecules such as fats and proteins can be converted to glucose if their is shortage of glucose in the body.
Generally, carbohydrates have high level of energy in their reduce electrons, thus, when they are oxidized they give rise to large amount of energy, which can be used to do work in the biological systems.
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The process by which plants capture energy from the sun and uses it to make food for themselves is called _.
A.) lactic acid fermentation
B.) Alcoholic fermentation
C.) Cellular respiration
D.) Photosynthesis
Answer:
d photosynthesis
Explanation:
Answer:
The answer is D
Chloroplasts work to convert light energy of the Sun into sugars that can be used by cells. The entire process is called photosynthesis and it all depends on the little green chlorophyll molecules in each chloroplast. Plants are the basis of all life on Earth.
Explanation:
Digestion includes breaking substances into their simpler building blocks, synthesizing more complex cellular structures from simpler substances, and using nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP. True/False
Answer:
The correct answer is - false statement.
Explanation:
The statement mentioned in question explaining the process of metabolism. Metabolism is a procedure that includes catabolic and anabolic process that which are chemicals reactions takes place in the body. Metabolism is breaking large molecules into simpler and simpler molecules to synthesizing complex molecules from simpler molecules.
Digestion is the process in which ingested food break down to simpler substances and absorbed to provide nutrients to body.
Thus, the correct answer is - false statement.
The statement provided is true as digestion indeed encompasses the breakdown of nutrients into simpler building blocks, synthesis of complex structures from simpler ones, and the usage of nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP for energy.
Explanation:Digestion and Energy Production
The statement that digestion includes breaking down nutrients into their simpler building blocks, synthesizing more complex cellular structures from simpler substances, and using nutrients and oxygen to produce ATP is true. Digestion is a multi-step process that begins with the ingestion of food and is followed by digestion, absorption, and elimination. The breaking down of complex macromolecules such as proteins, fats, and carbohydrates into simple molecules like amino acids, fatty acids, and simple sugars is essential for maintaining cellular functions. After absorption, cells utilize these simple molecules for various functions, including synthesizing cellular building blocks (macromolecules) and generating & storing energy, chiefly in the form of ATP. Additionally, the body must eliminate waste and potentially harmful substances that are the byproducts of digestion and metabolism.
For example, the act of chewing a piece of chicken begins the physical breakdown of food, which is then further chemically digested through the action of digestive enzymes, making nutrients available for absorption into the bloodstream. Once absorbed, nutrients are used by cells for biosynthesis and energy production, and unnecessary or harmful substances are expelled from the body.
Sergei Winogradsky Choose one: A. discovered microbial fermentation. B. developed a pure culturing system using agar. C. identified microbes using biotechnology. D. discovered chemolithotrophs in natural environments.
Answer:
D. Discovered chemolithotrophs in natural enviroments.
Explanation:
Sergei Winogradsky was a russian microbiologist. He observed in his research with genus of bacteria Beggiatoa, they were able to oxidize hydrogen sulfide as an energy source. Being the first example known of lithotrophs (organisms that use inorganic substrate in order to obtain energy).
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. "discovered chemolithotrophs in natural environments".
Explanation:
Sergei Nikolaievich Winogradsky was a ecological and soil scientist famous for being a pioneer for the definition of the concept of cycle of life. Winogradsky is also known for being the first scientist who discovered chemolithotrophs in natural environments. He made this achievement during his research with Beggiatoa in 1887, reporting that this organism was able to oxidize hydrogen sulfide as an energy source.
A 20-year-old male shoots his hand with a nail gun while replacing roofing shingles. Which of the following cell types would be the first to aid in killing bacteria to prevent infection in his hand?
a. Eosinophils
b. Neutrophils
c. Leukotrienes
d. Monocytes
Answer:
The correct answer is b. Neutrophils
Explanation:
Neutrophils are the cells that first reach to the infection side and kills the bacteria. Neutrophils comprises most part of WBCs approximately 50-70% of total WBCs. Neutrophils kills the foreign bacteria by engulfing them and this process is called phagocytosis.
The engulfed bacteria is called phagosome and phagosome then fuse with lysosome making phagolysosome. Now fused lysosome secrete lytic enzymes like proteases, lipases and glycosidases which kills the engulfed bacteria by digesting them.
So neutrophils will be the first cells migrates to prevent bacterial infection in the hand of 20 year old boy who shoots his hand with nail gun.
Unlike _____, which punishes companies for not achieving specific gender and race ratios in their work forces, diversity programs seek to benefit both organizations and their employees by encouraging organizations to value all kinds of differences.
Answer:
The blank should be left with "affirmative action".
Explanation:
Affirmative action and diversity programs, although many times mistaken as being the same thing, are hugely different from one another. Affirmative action is a punitive policy that compensates for past discrimination, and seeks to give preference on employment opportunities to minorities, punishing organizations for not meeting the ratios imposed by them on race and gender of their employees. Diversity programs, on the contrary, does not punish but encourage the employers to integrate in their work force very different people with diverse personalities and abilities, achieving a much stronger social integration.
9) The two types of lipids are
enzyme
nucleic acid
oils
proteins
fats
The correct pairs related to the two types of lipids are "fats" and "oils."
The two main types of lipids are:
Fats (triglycerides): These are lipids that are solid at room temperature. Fats are composed of three fatty acid molecules linked to a glycerol molecule.
Oils (also triglycerides): Oils are lipids that are liquid at room temperature. They are also composed of three fatty acid molecules linked to a glycerol molecule.
In the given options, "enzyme" and "nucleic acid" are not types of lipids. Enzymes are proteins, and nucleic acids (such as DNA and RNA) are a different class of biomolecules. It's important to note that proteins are also a distinct category of biomolecules, different from lipids.
So, the correct pairs related to the two types of lipids are "fats" and "oils."
Hyla versicolor and H. chrysoscelis are frogs which are morphologically indistinguishable, non-hybridizing and broadly sympatric in central Texas. There is no evidence that these species utilize different natural resources and both reproduce throughout the spring and summer. Mating involves males clutching the females but fertilization is external. These species are easily distinguished by their mating calls; males and females of H. versicolor are "slow trilling" whereas males and females of H. chrysoscelis are "fast-trilling." The factor that most likely maintains these forms as species is
Answer: reproductive isolation
Explanation: reproductive isolation is a factor that affects the speciation process. It is specially important in sympatric populations because blocks genetic flow within them due to physical, seasonal or behavioral differences.
In this particular case, there is a behavioral difference that allow individuals from a specie recognize each other through sound so they can reproduce and do not mix with other species.
Edwin Hubble is credited for the initial development of the Big Bang theory, an idea which helps to explain the formation of the universe over 15 billion years ago. Which piece of evidence did Hubble find that led him to begin the development of the Big Bang theory? A) The sun is the center of the universe. B) The universe is expanding in all directions. C) New universes are being made on a regular basis. D) All life appeared on earth about 3.5 billion years ago.
Answer:
B) The universe is expanding in all directions.
Explanation:
i already learned it
Answer:
b
Explanation:
space is infinate