Answer:
epidemic: a disease that is constantly present across the world.
Explanation:
An epidemic is a sudden outbreak of a disease that spreads over a large area within a short period.
Endemic disease is a disease that is found regularly within an area at every point in time.
Pandemic disease is a disease that is prevalent over the whole world within a short period.
Incidence is the number of newly reported cases of a disease.
From the definition of each of the term. epidemic is the only one defined incorrectly of all the options.
The incorrect definition is that of an endemic disease, which is correctly defined as a disease that is always present at low incidence, not high incidence, in a population.
Explanation:The definition provided in the question that is INCORRECT is that of an endemic disease. The correct definition is that an endemic disease is one that is constantly present, usually at low incidence, in a population, not at high incidence as suggested in one of the erroneous definitions. In contrast, an epidemic is an outbreak of a disease that occurs in an unusually high number of individuals within a population at the same time. A pandemic is an epidemic that becomes widespread across multiple populations or continents, or even worldwide. Incidence refers to the number of new cases of a disease that appear in a population during a specific period of time. These terms are crucial for understanding the spread of diseases and for public health management.
Some characteristics of DNA are shared between all living organisms, whereas other characteristics of DNA differ between organisms. Classify DNA characteristics as either being a universal attribute of DNA or an attribute of DNA that is unique to particular individuals or species.nucleotides A,C,G,T; triplet; DNA sequence; size of genome;code for amino acids.
Answer:
Universal DNA attribute: nucleotides A,C,G,T; triplet; code for amino acids.
DNA attribute unique to particular individual: DNA sequence; size of genome.
Explanation:
As all the organisms on the earth are evolved from a single organism or individual, therefore, all the organism on the earth share some universal attributes like nucleotide that are used to make DNA are same in all the individuals as all use A, T, G, C nucleotide to make DNA.
Triplet codon for a particular amino acid is also universal so a triplet codon UUU codes for phenylalanine in all the individual present on earth. Due to evolution organisms generated some difference in their genome like genome sequence in almost every individual is different and genome size also differ between organisms. So DNA sequence and size of the genome are unique to a particular individual.
Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because ________.
A) hormones alter cellular operations through direct stimulation of a gene
B) peptide hormones are converted by cell membranes enzymes into second messengers
C) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers
D) the hormone receptor complex moves into the cytoplasm as a unit
Answer:
Cells that respond to peptide hormones usually do so through a sequence of biochemical reactions involving receptor and kinase activation. In order for cells to respond, it is necessary for first and second messengers to communicate. This is possible because C) G protein acts as the link between first and second messengers .
Explanation:
When the first messengers join the receptor, in the external membrane of the cell, it produces a change in the shape of the receptor that causes the join of the G protein to this structure. The G protein joined to the receptor and the first messenger modulates the activity of the second messengers inside the cell.
The kidneys function based on the movement of fluids across the filtration membrane. There are three different types pressure operating at the filtration membrane. List and explain how each influences net filtration pressure.
Answer:
The major force that tends to create a push for the water and solvent to the filtration membrane is Glomerular hydrostatic pressure (GHP). The other pressures are Capsular hydrostatic pressure and Net filtration pressure.Explanation:
Glomerular osmotic pressure: creates pressure in the glomerular blood for the plasma protein to enter filtration membrane.Capsular hydrostatic pressure: it brings back the fluids into the glomerular capillaries. In mathematical term the net filtration can be sated as: Net filtration pressure = glomerular hydrostatic pressure - glomerular osmotic pressure + capsular hydrostatic pressure.What year did theodor schwann contribute to the cell theory
The ABO blood type locus has been mapped on chromosome 9. A father who has type AB blood and a mother who has type O blood have a child with trisomy 9 and type A blood. Using this information, can you tell in which parent the nondisjunction occurred? explain your answer.
Answer:
From this information we can tell that the nondisjunction occurred in the motherExplanation:
Blood group is controlled by 3 allele (Ia, Ib and i). So the following results are possible
Iai - Type A IaIb - type AB (Ia and Ib are codominant over each other and dominant over allele i) Ibi - type B ii - type O (allele i is recessive)
So if non-disjunction had occurred in father then his gametes would contain both Ia and Ib, which when fertilized with ovum having i allele would result in IaIbi which will have blood type AB.
Non-disjunction in female would produce ovum having 2 copies of allele i (or ovum having ii). And gametes of normal male will have Ia and Ib. So if this abnormal ovum (having ii) fertilized with male gamete having allele Ia then zygote will have genotype of Iaii which will be blood type A.
For more information on this visit
https://brainly.com/question/17756498
While playing soccer in your backyard, you disrupt a small fire ant mound. The fire ants emerge and bite your feet. Your feet begin to show swollen, raised areas around the bites. What is happening?
Answer: Your innate internal defenses have been activated.
Explanation:
The ant bite the feet of the child and the ants released some chemicals(venom) in the body of the child.
This is recognized by the immune system of the body and the innate defense in the body starts.
Serious reactions takes place in the body in response to the ant bite. It is more common in the children as compared to that of adults.
Flower color in snapdragons is an example of incomplete dominance. When a red-flowered plant is crossed with a white-flowered plant, the offspring have pink flowers. If a pink-flowered plant is crossed with another pink-flowered plant, their offspring will be______
Answer:
25% red flowered
25% white flowered
50% pink flowered
Explanation:
Let the red flower color be represented by RR, the white color by rr.
When RR was crossed with rr, the offspring had pink flowers;
RR x rr = Rr, Rr, Rr, Rr (Pink color)
Crossing Rr with another Rr
Rr x Rr = RR, Rr, Rr, rr
RR = red
Rr = pink
rr = white
Hence, if a pink flowered plant is crossed with another pink flowered plant, 25% of their offspring will be red, 25% will be white and 50% will be pink.
When two pink-flowered snapdragons are crossed, the possible outcomes could be red, pink, or white flowers in a 1:2:1 ratio.
Explanation:In biological terms, this question is about the concept of incomplete dominance, which is evidenced in the flower color of snapdragons. When we cross a pink snapdragon (CRCW) with another pink snapdragon (CRCW), the expected result can be calculated using a Punnett square. There will be three possible outcomes, represented as a 1:2:1 ratio. The plants may either be red-flowered (CRCR), pink-flowered (CRCW), or white-flowered (CWCW). Thus, if you cross two pink-flowered snapdragons, you might see three different colors as offspring: 25% red flowers, 50% pink flowers, and 25% white flowers.
Learn more about Incomplete Dominance here:https://brainly.com/question/14053639
#SPJ3
Stimulation of muscle fibers at a rate of 20 to 40 stimuli per second does not allow for complete relaxation of the fibers before the next stimulatory event. This results in _________ and can lead to incomplete tetany.
Answer:
Tetanic spasms/ tetanic contractions
Explanation:
Tetanic spasms occurs when a muscle has a sustained contraction because of an increase in action potential in skeletal muscles
Incomplete tetanus occurs when muscle fibers are stimulated at a rate that does not allow for complete relaxation between stimuli.
Explanation:In biology, the phenomenon described in the question is known as incomplete tetanus. Incomplete tetanus occurs when muscle fibers are stimulated at a rate that does not allow for complete relaxation between stimuli. This leads to sustained, but not maximal, muscle contractions.
For example, if muscle fibers are stimulated at a rate of 30 stimuli per second, there is not enough time for the muscle to fully relax between each stimulus. As a result, the muscle remains partially contracted, leading to incomplete tetanus.
This phenomenon can be observed in the body during activities that require sustained muscle contractions, such as gripping objects tightly or maintaining a constant posture for a long period of time.
Learn more about Incomplete tetanus here:https://brainly.com/question/36605850
#SPJ6
Marfan syndrome is the result of inheriting a single allele. Individuals with Marfan syndrome are tall and long-limbed, and have both cardiovascular and eye defects. Of what type of inheritance is the phenotype of Marfan syndrome an example?
A) incomplete dominance
B) pleiotropy
C) codominance
D) a recessive disorder
E) gene linkage
Answer:
Pleiotropy
Explanation:
Marfan syndrome has several signs and symptoms depending on the individual affected.
The main manifestations of the disease are related to the skeletal system, in which the affected individual presents with elongated limbs, elevated height, scoliosis and thoracic deformations; the cardiac system, characterized by mitral valve prolapse (closing of the upper and lower chambers of the left side of the heart) and dilation of the aorta; and the ocular system, characterized by a detachment in the lens of the eye, and myopia.
The ability of genetic defects such as Marfan syndrome to reach such distinct organs is called pleiotropy.
Answer:
Pleiotropy
Explanation:
Pleiotropy is a genetic situation in which a single gene influences or controls the expression of several phenotypes. Consequently, any change that happens to pleiotropic genes always affect multiple characters on the respective organisms.
From the information available, it is obvious that the gene for Marfan syndrome affects the limb, the cardiovascular system and the eye of subjects. Hence, Marfan syndrome gene is a pleiotropic gene.
The correct option is B.
In terms of signaling, what is most significant about action potentials?
a) The number of partial action potentials
b) The number of phases
c) The frequency
d) The magnitude Submit
Answer
b) the number of phases
Explanation:
Action potentials cannot be partial.The frequency of signaling is constant. The magnitude it constant as well.Answer:
Letter C
Explanation:
Action potentials are certainly a key to understand neuronal signaling, and to this day, neuroscientists are still developing specific models to try decipher how much information a bunch of neuronal spikes has to inform in distinct neurons.
Interestingly, throughout evolution action potentials have proven to be a very efficient mechanism of communication, and their most studied and most important attribute has been proved to be frequency, which is a property that depends on the source only, ie it does not change until you reach your destination. So, the right answer is Letter C.
Wilona continually encourages her team to work independently from her -- the group leader. She does this by encouraging group cohesion. Wilona is an example of a ________ leader.
a. transformational
b. servant
c. authoritarian
d. charismatic
Wilona continually encourages her team to work independently from her, the group leader. She does this by encouraging group cohesion. Wilona is an example of a transformational leader, which is option A.
What is a transformational leader?Wilona, who encourages her team to work independently of her, is an example of a transformational leader. Transformational leaders are those who inspire and motivate their followers to achieve extraordinary outcomes and surpass their personal goals. They focus on building relationships, team cohesion, and a vision that resonates with their followers. In this case, Wilona is promoting group cohesion and empowering her team to work independently, which is a characteristic of a transformational leader.
Hence, Wilona continually encourages her team to work independently from her, the group leader. She does this by encouraging group cohesion. Wilona is an example of a transformational leader, which is option A.
Learn more about the transformational leader here.
https://brainly.com/question/31361308
#SPJ2
Which of the following is not an effect of complement activation? Select one: Interference with viral replication Increased phagocytic activity Opsonization Increased blood vessel permeability Bacterial cell lysis
Answer:
The correct answer is "Interference with viral replication".
Explanation:
The complement system is an essential part of the immune system that involves the activation of a series of proteins that act as a cascade and result in the development of inflammatory responses that help to fight infections. There are multiple effects of complement activation, however interference with viral replication is not one of them. The molecules that are able to interfere with viral replication are called interferons, and they synthesis and activation are not related with complement activation.
The processes involved in compliment activation include opsonization, increased phagocytic activity, increased blood vessel permeability, and bacterial cell lysis. However, interference with viral replication is not a result of this process.
Explanation:The effect of complement activation includes several outcomes such as opsonization, inflammation, chemotaxis, and cytolysis. All these protective mechanisms are designed to support the immune system in combating pathogens. For the alternatives provided, interference with viral replication is not an effect of complement activation.
'Opsonization', refers to the coating of a pathogen to enhance its recognition and consumption by phagocytic cells. 'Increased phagocytic activity' and 'Increased blood vessel permeability' result from the complement fragments activities.
'Bacterial cell lysis' is another effect, where proteins bind to bacteria and create holes in gram-negative bacterial cell membranes, causing lysis. So, interference with viral replication, is not an immediate direct effect of complement activation.
Learn more about Complement Activation here:https://brainly.com/question/29697356
#SPJ3
When you are injured and bleeding the clotting factors immediately start to clot and try to seal the wound. This would be an example of ________________________________ level of regulation.
Explanation:
This would be an example of secondary homeostasis
During wound healing, which happens after bleeding from a cut, the homeostatic response is clotting; primary homeostasis involves the formation of a platelet plug at the site, from platelets within the blood
Fibrinogen and platelets form a clot, in order to prevent blood loss and infection. Fibrin is formed through the activation of coagulation factors which stabilise the plug.
Further Explanation:
The nervous system is subdivided into; the central nervous system (CNS), which includes the brain and spinal cord, within the vertebral column; and the peripheral nervous system, which includes nerves that branch into the rest of the body from the brain and spinal cord. Nervous tissue responds to electrical impulses, allowing for communication between different regions of the body.
The peripheral nervous system is further divided into the somatic nervous system responsible for carrying out sensory and motor information between the peripheral nervous system- including sensory organs like the eyes; and central nervous system; and the autonomic nervous system (ANS) which regulates involuntary bodily functions like heartbeat, breathing and blood flow. The ANS is mainly acts unconsciously and affects smooth muscle and internal organs. It is related to homeostasis- where the body maintains a constant internal balance in pH, temperature, blood pressure etc.
During homeostasis the body maintains a constant internal balance in pH, temperature, blood pressure etc. Cells in a multicellular organism become specialized for particular tasks and communicate with one another in order to maintain homeostasis. Within the human body these are known as hormone cascades, where several complex steps occur- the tissues signal to one another with the use of hormones released by the endocrine system. The regulation (increase and decrease) of these secretions is achieved by negative feedback loops, where the release of certain substances during a cascade in turn halts the secretion of hormones at earlier stages.
Learn more about membrane components at brainly.com/question/1971706
Learn more about plasma membrane transport at brainly.com/question/11410881
Learn more about homeostasis at brainly.com/question/1601808
#LearnWithBrainly
Biochemical, evolutionary, and genetic evidence of functionality can help identify single nucleotide polymorphisms (SNPs) that are important in controlling gene expression or contributing to disease progression. True or False?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Polymorphism is a phenomenon that arises when proteins, DNA and RNA can appear with different molecular forms. Polymorphism is characterized as single nucleotide polymorphism when molecular variation occurred in only one nitrogenous DNA base, thus causing genetic variation in a population. This type of polymorphism is very important to regulate the gene expression of individuals and to measure the progression of a disease. This requires that the unique nucleotide polymorphism be identified. This identification occurs through biochemical, evolutionary and genetic evidence.
Color in squash is controlled by epistatic interactions in which color is recessive to no color. At the first locus white squash (W) is dominant to colored squash (w). At the second locus yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y). What is the phenotype of a squash with the genotype wwYy?
a) white
b) green with yellow strips
c) green
d) yellow
e) white with yellow strips
Answer: yellow
Explanation:
Phenotype refers to the observable physical properties of an organism. phenotype is determined by its genotype. Phenotype is a description of your ones physical characteristics.
From the question, the first locus which is a white squash (W) is dominant to colored squash (w) and the second locus yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y).
ww(that is; the coloured squash) are not dominant while y (that is the green) is also not dominant but only the Y(that is ; the YELLOW squash) is DOMINANT.
Therefore, the phenotype of the squash will be Yellow.
What is a microorganism [a microbe] that is innocuous [not harmful] to man or to a given animal species? It is a living being which does not possess the capacity to multiply in our body or in the body of the animal. But nothing proves that if the same microorganism should chance to come into contact with some other of the thousands of animal species in the Creation, it might invade it and render it sick. Its virulence might increase by repeated passages through that species, and might eventually affect man or domesticated animals." —Louis Pasteur Which of the following statements is a reasonable inference to draw from this quote by Louis Pasteur?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- a microorganism can mutate or change with time and can become virulent.
Explanation:
If a bacteria is considered harmless or avirulent then the bacteria will not necessarily affect the animal species.
But when the species come into contact with other sick species caused by the microbe will make the bacteria virulent. This shows that bacteria can change with time depending on the environment it is living in.
Thus in the given question, bacteria can change and mutate with time and can become virulent from avirulent species.
Final answer:
A harmless microorganism in one species may become harmful if it adapts to a new species, suggesting the dynamic nature of microbial-host interactions.
Explanation:
From the quote by Louis Pasteur, a reasonable inference is that microorganisms which are harmless in humans or a specific animal species could potentially become harmful if they come into contact and adapt to other species. The process of adaptation and increasing virulence in a new host species can potentially lead to new diseases affecting humans or domesticated animals.
This highlights the dynamic nature of microbial-host interactions and the potential for previously innocuous microbes to evolve and pose threats to health.
If whales evolved from land-dwelling mammals, one would expect the fossil record to include intermediate forms, creatures more whale-like than land-dwelling mammals yet still possessing hind limbs and a pelvis lacking in modern whales. Such intermediates are termed __________transitional forms
vestigial features
hybrids
homologous structures
Answer:
transitional forms
Explanation:
the form of organism that exhibit the shape which is intermediate between the their ancestors and the descendants (just like a father between grandfather and grandson) is known to be the transitional form of respective organism.
The transitional form organisms or fossils have some traits and similarities which are common to both ancestors and the descendants.
While looking at some seawater through your microscope, you spot the egg of an unknown animal. Which of the following tests could you use to determine whether the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome? See whether the embryo _____.A) exhibits spiral cleavage or radial cleavageB) develops a blastoporeC) develops germ layersD) develops an archenteron
Answer:
The correct answer will be option- A
Explanation:
The protostomes and deuterostomes are the classification of the animal kingdom based on the stages of embryological development.
In protostomes, the mouth develops from the opening called blastopore side whereas anus develops secondarily whereas, in the deuterostomes, the anus develops from the blastopore while the mouth develops secondarily.
This difference begins as a result of the cleavage pattern formed during the initial stages of the embryo that is in protostomes the cleavage pattern is spiral whereas in the deuterostomes the cleavage pattern is radial. In the given question, one should look at their cleavage pattern and can classify the egg
Therefore, option-A is the correct answer.
To determine if the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome, you can observe the type of early cleavage that occurs. Protostomes exhibit spiral cleavage, while deuterostomes undergo radial cleavage.
Explanation:The test you could use to determine whether the developing organism is a protostome or a deuterostome is to observe the type of early cleavage that occurs. Protostomes typically exhibit spiral cleavage, where the cells of one pole of the embryo are rotated and misaligned with respect to the cells of the opposite pole. On the other hand, deuterostomes undergo radial cleavage, where the cleavage axes are either parallel or perpendicular to the polar axis, resulting in the alignment of the cells between the two poles.
Some mutagens cause genetic changes that can be "corrected" by re-exposing cells to the same mutagen. Other mutagens do not behave in this way. Provide one example of each of these two types of agents and describe the mutational changes caused in DNA. Explain why some mutagens behave in one way, while others do not.
Answer:
Explanation:
Mutagen:
It's any agent that can cause changes to the a cell genetic makeup by altering the deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA)
It can be a Physical mutagens (e.g X-rays), chemical mutagens e.g Nitrous acid or biological mutagens as in transposons
Examples of mutagens that cause genetic changes that can be "corrected" by re-exposing cells to the same mutagen are the ones that caused base substitutions (e.g nitrous acid) and Frameshift mutations (e.g proflavin)
A mutagen that do not cause genetic changes like deletion that can be "corrected" Such as by re-exposing cells to the same mutagen is the X rays.
Some mutagens cause genetic changes that can be 'corrected' by re-exposing cells to the same mutagen, such as UV radiation and thymine dimers. Other mutagens, like chemicals inhaled while smoking, cause mutations that cannot be 'corrected' by re-exposure.
Explanation:Mutagens are agents that cause mutations in DNA. Some mutagens cause genetic changes that can be 'corrected' by re-exposing cells to the same mutagen. An example of this type of mutagen is UV radiation, which can cause the formation of thymine dimers in DNA. If not repaired, the dimers can prevent the formation of the double helix. However, cells have DNA repair mechanisms that can recognize and repair thymine dimers.
On the other hand, some mutagens do not behave in this way. For example, chemicals like those inhaled while smoking can modify the bases in DNA, changing their base-pairing properties. These modifications can lead to mutations that cannot be 'corrected' by re-exposure to the same mutagen.
If there is complete linkage with genes Ss (for smooth or wrinkled seeds) and Gg (for green or yellow seeds), what phenotypes would you expect in the offspring of a cross with one heterozygous parent (Ss, Gg), which would all produce all smooth and green seeds, and a homozygous recessive parent (ss, gg), which would produce all wrinkled yellow seeds?
Answer:
Smooth and green seeds
Smooth and yellow seeds
Wrinkled and green seeds
Wrinkled and yellow seeds
Explanation:
This is a typical dihybrid cross involving two linked genes; one gene coding for seed texture and the other for seed colour. The allele for Smooth seed (S) is dominant over the allele for Wrinkled seed (s) in the first gene while the allele for green seed (G) is dominant over the allele for yellow seed (g) in the second gene.
The cross is between a heterozygous smooth, green plant and a homozygous recessive wrinkled, yellow plant
According to the law of independent assortment, each parent will undergo meiosis to produce the following gamtes with genotypes:
SsGg: SG, Sg, sG, sg
ssgg: sg, sg, sg, sg
Using a punnet square to perform a cross between these gametes ( check attached image), a total of 16 offsprings with four different phenotypes will be expected. The phenotypes are as follows:
SsGg: Smooth and green offsprings (4)
Ssgg: Smooth and yellow offsprings (4)
ssGg: Wrinkled and green offsprings (4)
ssgg: wrinkled and yellow offsprings (4)
Final answer:
In a genetic cross involving complete linkage between genes for seed texture and color in pea plants, crossing a heterozygous (SsGg) with a homozygous recessive (ssgg) parent will result in a 1:1 phenotypic ratio of smooth green to wrinkled yellow seeds among the offspring due to the inheritance of genes as a linked unit.
Explanation:
The question concerns a genetic cross involving complete linkage between two genes: one responsible for seed texture (Ss) and the other for seed color (Gg), in pea plants. In this scenario, we have one parent that is heterozygous for both traits (SsGg), capable of producing smooth green seeds, and another parent that is homozygous recessive for both traits (ssgg), capable of producing wrinkled yellow seeds. Because of the assumption of complete linkage, these genes are inherited together as a unit without any recombination between them. Therefore, the gametes produced by the heterozygous parent will be SG and sg, and the gametes from the homozygous recessive parent will always be sg.
The offspring, resulting from these gametes, will exhibit two phenotypes associated with the two types of gametes they receive: smooth green and wrinkled yellow seeds. This is because the heterozygous parent can only pass on either the linked dominant alleles (SG for smooth green seeds) or the linked recessive alleles (sg for wrinkled yellow seeds), and the homozygous recessive parent can only pass on recessive alleles (sg). Therefore, the cross will result in a 1:1 phenotypic ratio of smooth green to wrinkled yellow seeds among the offspring.
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about penicillins. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify the action of penicillinase as causing bacterial resistance by which mechanism?
A. destruction of the beta-lactam ring of the penicillin
B. destruction of the penicillin cell wall
C. rupture of the penicillin membrane
D. enzymatic inactivation of the penicillin
Answer:
A. destruction of the beta-lactam ring of the penicillin
Explanation:
Penicillins and other antibiotics in the beta-lactan family usually contain a characteristic four-membered ring of beta-lactam.
A penicillin is capable of killing bacteria by binding β-lactam to DD-transpeptidase (a bacterial enzyme that binds peptidoglycan chains to form rigid moving cell walls), inhibiting its activity and preventing the formation of a new cell wall.
Without a cell wall, bacterial cells become vulnerable to external water and molecular pressures, and thus die quickly.
Bacteria can generate resistance to penicillin by producing beta-lactamase, a bacterial enzyme that destroys the penicillin beta-lactan ring, rendering it ineffective.
An example of penicillin-resistant bacteria is Staphylococcus aureus, which produces high amounts of β-lactamase. This bacterium can cause skin, blood or lung infections.
Penicillinase causes bacterial resistant by hydrolyzing and breaking the beta-lactam ring of penicillin, which inactivates the antibiotic and prevents it from inhibiting bacterial cell wall synthesis.
Explanation:The action of penicillinase, which causes bacterial resistance, is best described as the destruction of the beta-lactam ring of the penicillin. Penicillinase is a type of beta-lactamase enzyme that bacteria produce to defend against penicillin-class antibiotics. This enzyme targets the crucial beta-lactam ring structure within the penicillin molecule, breaking it open and thus inactivating the antibiotic. Inactivation of the drug occurs through hydrolysis of the beta-lactam ring, which is essential for the drug's bactericidal activity, as it prevents the synthesis of bacterial cell walls.
Which conditions occurs when the bronchial tubes are inflamed and
Answer:
The answer is bronchitis. There is two types acute and chronic.
Explanation:
It causes a cough that often brings up mucus. It can also cause shortness of breath, wheezing, low fever, chest tightness.
One strand of a DNA molecule has the following sequence: 3-AGTACAAACTATCCACCGTC-5. In order for transcription to occur in that strand, there would have to be a specific recognition sequence, called a(n) __________, to the left of the DNA sequence indicated.
Answer: Promoter
Explanation:
Transcription is the first step in gene expression which consists of copying the DNA sequence of a gene to produce a RNA molecule. There are enzymes called RNA polymerases which perform this process of transcription. These enzymes bind nucleotides (the monomers which are part of the nucleic acids) to create a RNA strand using a DNA strand as a mold.
A promoter is a region of DNA that controls the initiation of transcription of a given portion of DNA to RNA. Therefore they promote the transcription of a gene. The promoter region is composed of a specific sequence of DNA located just where the starting point of the DNA transcription is and contains the information needed to activate or deactivate the gene it regulates. The promoter has a binding site for the RNA polymerase enzyme in charge of mRNA synthesis and when it recognizes this site, transcription begins.
Final answer:
The recognition sequence needed for transcription to start is known as a promoter. For the given DNA sequence, the complementary strand would be constructed based on pairing rules: adenine with thymine and guanine with cytosine, resulting in the sequence 5'-TCATGTTTGATAGGTGGCAG-3'. This is important for understanding transcription and the subsequent synthesis of mRNA.
Explanation:
The student's inquiry relates to the transcription process of DNA into RNA, specifically involving the initiation of transcription. The specific recognition sequence mentioned in the question, typically found upstream (to the left considering the conventional 5' to 3' directionality) of the coding region of a DNA strand, is known as a promoter. Transcription factors and RNA polymerase bind to this promoter sequence to initiate transcription.
For the given DNA sequence 3'-AGTACAAACTATCCACCGTC-5', the corresponding sequence on the opposite, or complementary, strand, oriented in the conventional 5'-3' direction, would pair adenine (A) with thymine (T), guanine (G) with cytosine (C), and vice versa to form the complementary strand. Therefore, the complementary strand would be 5'-TCATGTTTGATAGGTGGCAG-3'. However, it should be noted that for transcription purposes, the actual molecule synthesized is messenger RNA (mRNA), which uses uracil (U) instead of thymine (T).
Can I have help with question #32?
Thanks!
Answer:
Proteins synthesized in the ER are packaged into vesicles, which then fuse with the Golgi apparatus. These cargo proteins are modified and destined for secretion via exocytosis or for use in the cell.
Explanation:
Answer:Cool thanks
Explanation:djdhbd
Name 3 processes that increase genetic variation during the process of meiosis or fertilization. Explain why sexual reproduction increases variation among offspring much more than asexual reproduction does.
Answer:
The three processes that increase the genetic variation during the process of meiosis are independent assortment, crossing over, and random fusion of gamete.
During independent assortment, each gene pair assort independently from the other gene pairs in the gametes which brings the different combinations of gene pairs in gamete that cause genetic variation.
Crossing over between homologous chromosomes makes the exchange of genes possible between chromosomes and random fertilization between gametes of two different parents helps in the production of a genetically different offspring. Therefore independent assortment, crossing over and random gamete fusion increase genetic variation during fertilization.
In sexual reproduction there is combination of two different gametes from two different parents which helps in producing an offspring which is genetically different from parents and in asexual reproduction there is no fusion of gamete of different parents and the offsprings are genetically similar to parent therefore in sexual reproduction chances of variation is plenty.
Binding of a signaling molecule to which type of receptor leads directly to a change in the distribution of ions on opposite sides of the membrane?
a. receptor tyrosine kinase
b. G protein-coupled receptor
c. ligand-gated ion channel
d. intracellular receptor
Answer:
c. ligand-gated ion channel
Explanation:
As soon as a signaling molecule binds a ligand-gated ion channel it leads to the opening of these ion channels which in turn causes ions to either rush inside or outside of the cell on which they are located leading to the disruption of distribution of initial ion concentration.
As the name suggests, these kind of receptors are also known as ionotropic receptors.
For example: Binding of acetylcholine hormone to it's receptor which is a ligand gated cation channel located at post synaptic muscle cells leads to the opening of Na⁺ ion channels. As a result of this, Na⁺ rushes into muscle cell leading to the change in the concentration of Na⁺ inside the muscle cells. This is known as depolarisation.
How are rna hairpin turns related to transcriptional termination in e. Coli?
Answer:
The answer is the turns are formed from complementary base pairing and cause separation of the RNA transcript and RNA polymerase.
Explanation:
The turns are formed from complementary base pairing and cause separation of the RNA transcript and RNA polymerase.
Ravi ran 200 metres race in sports day. He feels that his heart was beating faster than usual. a) Why was his heart beating faster? b) Which all organs are involved along with the heart to help Ravi complete his race?
(a) Reason for the heart beating fast:
When we exercise/run the muscles work hard and need more oxygen. So, when Ravi's heart beats faster more blood can be pumped to the muscles thus giving the oxygen required.(b) Organs involved along with the heart to help Ravi complete his race:
The main organs involved along with the heart are quadriceps, hip flexors, hamstring, glutes and calf muscles. The nervous system, muscular system, skeletal system, respiratory system and circulatory system function effectively when a person runs.A nurse is teaching a family how to best help their child who has been recently diagnosed with a neurodevelopmental disorder. Which statement indicates to the nurse that teaching has been effective?
Answer:
The correct answer would be - "we will be able to enjoy more structure in our house".
Explanation:
Neurodevelopmental disorder case of a children need structure, short tasks to be more functional. It is tough and not able to do well as the children with neurodevelopment disorder can not be sit still for longer period of time and are not easily adapt any type of change in routine. So going out in crowded places or bus rides may be tough to accomplish.
Noises places are also be tough with such children so the nurses teaches the parents to perform instructed tasks and structures to keep them functional as such kids have disruptive behaviors and lack of focus.
Thus, the correct answer is - "we will be able to enjoy more structure in our house".
If a portion of the pancreas is surgically removed from a rat and the rat subsequently loses its appetite, one explanation is that the removed portion contains cells that secrete a chemical signal that somehow stimulates appetite. Given this scenario, what type of chemical signaling is occurring?A) autocrineB) paracrineC) endocrineD) neuroendocrine
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-C
Explanation:
The pancreas is a small pear-shaped gland present in the abdomen and surrounded by the stomach. The pancreas acts as both endocrine (secretes glucagon and insulin hormones) and exocrine (secretes digestive enzymes).
In the given question, the pancreatic part removed from the rat results in the loss of appetite as when insulin is not produced in the body results in uncontrolled sugar levels in the body. This leads to the loss of water from the body to the urine and as a result, the loss of appetite is observed.
Since the endocrine portion controls the insulin production therefore, option-endocrine is the correct answer.