Answer:
A, pleiotropy.
Explanation:
Pleiotropy - genes that have multiple phenotypic effects. Remember that phenotype means a physical characteristic caused by a gene, such as eye color or fur patterns.
Incomplete dominance - when neither allele is dominant and they mix together in the phenotype. A popular example is a red flower crossing with a white flower and resulting in a pink flower.
Epistasis - when two genes contribute to the phenotype, but one gene completely masks another gene. An example would be labrador fur colors.
Multiple alleles - 3 or more alternative forms of a gene, but only 2 alleles can occupy an organism. An example is blood type.
Hope this helps!
Final answer:
Pleiotropy is the term that describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects. An example of this is sickle cell anemia, where mutations in a single gene result in various symptoms and health effects.
Explanation:
The term that describes the ability of a single gene to have multiple phenotypic effects is pleiotropy. Pleiotropy can result in multiple, seemingly unrelated physical traits or effects caused by a single allele. A classic example of pleiotropy in humans is the case of sickle cell anemia, where mutations in the hemoglobin B gene not only cause changes in red blood cells but also lead to symptoms such as anemia, pain, and increased risk of infection.
Other terms like incomplete dominance and codominance refer to the expression of two different alleles in the phenotype, while epistasis refers to the interaction of different genes where one gene can mask or modify the effect of another. A trait controlled by more than two alleles is described as having multiple alleles, like the ABO blood group antigens.
Use the model to explain how celiac disease interrupts the normal transportation of energy and other nutrients from the digestive system to the circulatory system.
Answer:
According to the model, the "villi" of small intestines is being damaged as an impact of celiac disease. Small intestines are responsible for absorption of nutrients and minerals from food, this occurs through villi, in case of damaged villi absorption is interfered, thus disturbing the digestive system. If the nutrients, minerals or vitamins are not being absorbed well by small intestines then they will be excreted out of the body and will not be transported to the blood and other areas, this would result in deficiency of minerals and vitamins in blood that cause weakness.
Answer: Plato Answer
The fingerlike shape of the villi is very important for nutrient absorption because it increases the surface area of the small intestine. In celiac disease, the villi flatten, decreasing the surface area of the small intestine. As a result, fewer nutrients get absorbed. Also, the model shows that celiac disease damages the epithelial cells of villi. The epithelial cell layer is important for the diffusion of nutrients to the capillaries. Without a healthy epithelial cell later, fewer nutrients may be absorbed, and the body may not have enough energy to perform its functions.
How does deforestation affect the water cycle
Answer:
Explanation:
Deforestation is a precursor to desertification. A desert is an extremely arid region with little to no rainfall. How does this happen?
Plants contributes a significant proportion of water to the water cycle. During transpiration, water evaporates from the body parts of a plant and this water goes to the atmosphere. The water cools and condenses to form precipitation
When forests are removed, this significant proportion of the water cycle is lost. The water from plants would no longer be available for precipitation. Such an area will suffer drastic changes in the amount of precipitation it receives.
Answer:
It increases the amount of runoff
Explanation:
The light reactions of photosynthesis use chemiosmosis to produce ATP that will be used in the Calvin cycle. The electrochemical gradient that drives this chemiosmosis is formed across which structure(s)?
Answer: Thylakoid membrane.
Explanation:
Photosynthesis is a chemical process carried out by plants, algae, and certain microorganisms, whereby solar energy is captured and converted into chemical energy in the form of ATP and organic compounds. During electron transfer, the protons (H +) of the H atoms are sent to the interior of the thylakoids through their membranes, producing an energy gradient. This electrochemical gradient generates enough energy to phosphorylate ADP and produce ATP, similar to the oxidative phosphorylation that occurs in mitochondria. The end products are ATP and NADPH.
A common column material used in size-exclusion chromatography is dextran, a polysaccharide of glucose. Which type of interaction most likely occurs between proteins and the dextran column material?
Answer:
Hydrogen bonding
Explanation:
A hydrogen bond is a form of the electrostatic force of attraction which takes place between the hydrogen atom and a more electronegative atom such as nitrogen, fluorine, and oxygen. Hydrogen bond falls in the category of weak forces. In size-exclusion chromatography, the type of interaction that takes place between the proteins and dextran is hydrogen bonding. The hydrogen bonding is possible because dextran, being a polysaccharide of glucose has several hydroxyl groups and thus, they get involved in the hydrogen bonding.Check answers.
1. The active site
A. Located in an enzyme (my answer)
B. Is rich in amino acid
C. Is located on a substrate
D. A and B
E. B and C
2. Anabolism is defined as the
A. Sum of all chemical reactions
B. Degradation of polymers in monomers
C. Synthesis of polymers from monomers (my answer)
D. Exchange of elections in chemical reactions
1) A. Located in an enzyme
2) C. Synthesis of polymers from monomers
You're all good!
Answer:
The active site refers to the region present in an enzyme where the binding of the substrate takes place, and the chemical reaction occurs. The amino acids of the enzyme protein combine with the substrate in the active site. Hence, for question 1 the correct answer is option A.
The two kinds of metabolic reactions occur in the cell, that is, catabolism and anabolism. In the anabolic reactions, the energy is consumed, and the small molecules combine to produce the bigger ones. Hence, for question 2 the correct answer is option C.
Keratin is an intracellular protein. How is it made?
Answer: Formed by intermediate filaments
Explanation:
Keratin belongs to the family of fibrous structural proteins. It is found in abundant amount inside the human body.
Hair constitutes of about 90% of keratin protein. The epidermis is the outer layer of skin which is formed by scale like cells known as epithelial cells and specialized cells known as keratinocytes.
These cells protect the body from the outer damage and is formed by long strands of proteins(intermediate filament) inside the cell, hence called keratin.
This is how keratin is made inside the body.
A(n) _____ force is the overall force on an object after all the forces are added together.
Answer:
Net
Explanation:
A Net force is the overall force on an object after all the forces are added together.
Answer:
The correct answer would be Net force.
Explanation:
A force is the interaction with the object which changes the motion of that particular object when there is no opposed interaction. There are many forces which are present in the atmosphere and have impact on the objects, but such forces cannot be felt until and unless they become severe in nature. There are gravitational force, Wind Force, Frictional Force, etc. All these forces are so small that they can't be felt and the balance of the object is not disturbed. These all forces combine to make the Net Force. So Net Force is the overall force on an object after all the forces are added together.
Kinesiology is
a. the science or study of movement, and the active and passive structures involved
b. the science of the morphology or structure of organisms
c. the science concerned with the normal vital processes of animal and vegetable organisms
d. the science concerned with the action of forces, internal, and external, on the living body
e. none of these
Answer:
It could be D or A but D sounds like it explains it better.
Explanation:
Since kinesiology is the study of bodily mechanics.
Answer:
I believe the correct answer is A
A go cart rolling at a speed of 2 m/s begins to accelerate down an inclined street at a constant rate of 1.5 m/s¶. It takes the go cart 6 seconds to reach a level portion of the street. At what speed will the cart be traveling by the time it reaches level ground.
Answer:
[tex]11\frac{m}{s}[/tex]
Explanation:
As per the Newton's first law of motion,
[tex]v = u + at\\[/tex]
where "v" is the final speed
"u" is the initial speed
"a" is the acceleration
and "t" is the time taken
Substituting the given values in above equation, we get -
[tex]v = 2 + (1.5)*6\\= 2 + 9\\= 11[/tex] [tex]\frac{m}{s}\\[/tex]
The cart be traveling at a speed of [tex]11 \frac{m}{s}[/tex] by the time it reaches level ground.
Assume a population of purple and white flower pea plants (2000 total plants) is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium. The frequency of white flower plants is 0.16. On the basis of this information, determine the following:
a. The frequency (decimal form) of heterozygous purple plants. Round to 2 significant digits.
b. The frequency (decimal form) of the dominant allele (1 significant digit).
c. The number of homozygous purple flower plants.
I tried to take 2pg = 2(0.84)(0.16) for part A and got 0.268 (approximately 0.27) for the heterozygous purple flower but that was incorrect.4
Answer:
a) [tex]0.48[/tex]
b)
[tex]p= 0.4\\q=0.6[/tex]
c) [tex]720[/tex]
Explanation:
Given ,
Frequency of white flower plant ([tex]p^2[/tex]) is [tex]0.16[/tex]
Thus, frequency of dominant white allele ([tex]p[/tex]) is equal to [tex]\sqrt{0.16} \\= 0.4[/tex]
As we that, as per Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation
[tex]p+q=1[/tex]
Substituting the value of [tex]p[/tex] in above equation, we get
[tex]0.4+q=1\\q=1-0.4\\q=0.6[/tex]
a) As per Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium equation
[tex]p^2+q^2+2pq=1\\[/tex]
Substituting the given and calculated values in above equation, we get -
[tex]0.4^2+0.6^2+2pq=1\\0.16+0.36+2pq=1\\2pq=1-0.16-0.36\\2pq=0.48[/tex]
b) The frequency (decimal form) of the dominant allele
[tex]p= 0.4\\q=0.6[/tex]
c) number of homozygous purple flower plants
[tex]=[/tex] frequency of purple flower plants ([tex]q^2[/tex]) [tex]*[/tex] Number of flowers
[tex]= q^2 * 2000\\= (0.6^2)*2000\\= 0.36 * 2000\\= 720[/tex]
NEED HELP TIMED TEST WILL GIVE BRAINLIEST
Lara spends her days cultivating new hybrid plants that she sells to Jon. Jon uses these plants to feed cattle because the hybrid plants offer better sources of nutrients.
Which most likely explains the jobs of Lara and Jon?
Lara works as a Nursery Manager and Jon works as a Grader.
Lara works as a Plant Scientist and Jon works as a Farmworker.
Lara works as a Forester and Jon works as a Farm Management Adviser.
Lara works as a Landscaper and Jon works as an Environmental Engineer.
Answer:
Lara works as a Plant Scientist and Jon works as a Farmworker.- second choice
Answer:Explained
Explanation:
Lara works as Plant scientist and Jon works as a farm worker as it is given in
question that Lara spends her days cultivating new hybrid plants and a plant scientist do the same job as specified , trying to find a hybrid plant which has
improved qualities than the parent plants.
While Jon has nothing to do with hybrid plant as he only needs rich nutrient fodder.
A garden aboard the International Space Station allows space scientists to research the growth of plants in space. This research is important because astronauts will need to grow their own food to survive long space journeys.
What challenges would you expect scientists to face when growing plants in space? What challenges will the astronauts have with meeting their own energy needs?
Scientists are also evaluating plants for gene mutations that would help them grow better in space environments. What traits could a plant have that would help it grow better in space?
Answer:
Some of the challenges that scientists might face in space when growing plants would be the fact that plants must have carbon dioxide to carry out their process, which is why they are grown in special chambers. It is true that the astronauts would put off some carbon dioxide, but perhaps not enough. You would also be trying to grow plants in a zero gravity environment, which they aren't accustomed to.
The astronauts would have to be able to provide an extremely large amount of food in order to meet their nutrition needs. There would have to be enough room to grow an adequate amount of food aboard the ship. The plants would also need to be able to produce more than one crop per growing.
If scientists could genetically modify plants to help them grow better in space, they would need to make them able to thrive in a low gravity setting. They would also need to try and engineer them to need less water to survive. They would need to be strong enough to survive the lift off when going into space. The plants would also need to be able to regenerate and produce vast quantities of food.
Explanation:
The challenges that you could expect scientists to face when growing plants in space are microgravity, limited space, light availability, etc.
Scientists are anticipated to confront many obstacles while cultivating plants in space:
Microgravity: The lack of gravity in space has an impact on plant growth and development. Space and resources are limited inside a spaceship or space station. Because sunlight is restricted in space, artificial lighting systems must be employed for photosynthesis.Temperature and humidity control: It is difficult to maintain appropriate temperature and humidity levels within a spacecraft's controlled environment.Astronauts, on the other hand, may encounter difficulties in satisfying their own energy requirements during extended space journeys:
Food supply is in short supply.
Nutritional necessities.
Energy use.
Plants with the following characteristics may grow better in space:
Dwarfism: Due to restricted vertical growth area and lower gravitational effects, plants with shorter height might be favourable in space.
Compact and efficient root systems: Plants with well-developed root systems that can absorb water and nutrients in tight locations will flourish in space habitats' limited root space.
Thus, scientists are currently researching and performing experiments to find and create plants with these desired features in order to increase the effectiveness of plant growth in space and enable astronauts to generate their own food sustainably during extended space trips.
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If a nearsighted person has a far point df that is 3.50m from the eye, what is the focal length f1 of the contact lenses that the person would need to see an object at infinity clearly?
Answer:
[tex]-3.50[/tex] meter
Explanation:
A nearsighted person uses concave lens.
Given -
Far point i.e distance of object [tex]= - 3.5[/tex] meter
Distance of image is not given . Hence we will assume that the image can be formed at any distance. We will take "di" [tex]=[/tex] infinity
As we know
[tex]\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{di} + \frac{1}{df} \\[/tex]
Substituting the given values in above equation, we get -
[tex]\frac{1}{f} = \frac{1}{infinity} + \frac{1}{-3.50}\\ \frac{1}{f} = 0 + \frac{1}{-3.50}\\ f = -3.50[/tex]
Hence, the focal length of the contact lens is equal to [tex]-3.50[/tex] meter
An atom that undergoes radioactive decay and has a large nucleus most likely contains
Answer:
An atom that undergoes radioactive decay and has a large nucleus most likely contains a high neutron-proton ratio.
here is the full questiojn below.
An atom that undergoes radioactive decay and has a large nucleus most likely contains:
(a) a high neutron-proton ratio.
(b) a low neutron-proton ratio.
(c) more protons than electrons.
(d) more electrons than protons.
Answer:
(a) a high neutron-proton ratio
Explanation:
An atom that undergoes radioactive decay and has a large nucleus most likely contains a high neutron-proton ratio. This stance is true because, the neutron–proton ratio of an atomic nucleus is the ratio of its number of neutrons to its number of protons. Among stable nuclei and naturally occurring nuclei, this ratio generally increases with increasing atomic number. This is because electrical repulsive forces between protons scale with distance differently than strong nuclear force attractions. As such, an atom that requires to undergo radioactivity and has large nucleic will most likely contains a high neutron-proton ratio.
Isotopes are atoms with the same atomic number i.e (the same number of protons) but different mass number (i.e number of neutrons). Isotopes are named according to their mass numbers; example chlorine-35, and chlorine-37. Their atomic numbers remain as 17 but neutron numbers differ (35 and 37).
A geneticist is mapping the chromosomes of the newly captured gremlin. Stripe is heterozygous for three linked genes with alleles Ee, Hh, and Bb, that determine if gremlins are evil (E), have hair (H), and biting teeth (B). In order to determine if the 3 genes were linked, a standard testcross was done, and the 1000 offspring had the following genotypes: 48 ee Hh bb 36 ee hh Bb 400 ee Hh Bb 4 Ee Hh Bb 426 Ee hh bb 46 Ee hh Bb 38 Ee Hh bb 2 ee hh bbChoose the alleles on the homologous chromosomes of the heterozygous individuals with the correct gene order.What is the recombination frequency between genes E and B? a. 8.4% b. 9.0% c. 42.6% d. 9.4% e. 10.0%
Explanation:
A geneticist is mapping the chromosomes of the newly captured gremlin. Stripe is heterozygous for three linked genes with alleles Ee, Hh, and Bb, that determine if gremlins are evil (E), have hair (H), and biting teeth (B). In order to determine if the 3 genes were linked, a standard testcross was done, and the 1000 offspring ...
Answer:
The correct gene order is H-e-B
Recombination frequency between genes E and B = 10%
Explanation:
In linkage parental genotype is always in greater number than recombinants, hence:
400 = eeHhBb : Parental
426 = Eehhbb : Parental
Double crossovers have the smallest number hence:
EeHhBb = 4 : Double recombinant
eehhbb = 2 : Double recombinant
Double cross over places middle allele from one sister chromatid to other one. Hence a non parental allele of the middle gene is present with parental alleles of the flanking genes.
Here recombinant type is EHB and parental type is eHB . Only gene order H-e-B would result in double cross over which would give EHB and ehb double recombinants. Hence, the correct gene order is H-e-B.
Single crossover between gene E and B would result in Heb and hEB progeny ( 48 and 46 )
Recombination frequency between E and B = [(Double recombinants + Single E and B recombinants) / Total progeny)*100]
= [ (4 + 2 + 48 + 46)/1000] * 100
= 100/1000
= 0.1 * 100 = 10%
Mitochondria and chloroplasts, organelles inside of eukaryotic cells, have their own membranes and genetic material. This is evidence of A. The endosymbiotic theory. B. Abiogenesis. C. Coevolution. D. Horizontal gene transfer.
Answer: The answer is A
Explanation:...Where the endosymbiotic theory deals with bacterial characteristics and the development of the mitochondria and chloroplast in eukaryote cells.
According to the cladogram shown, which two animal species shared the most recent common ancestor?
A. Primates and crocodiles
B. Birds and rodents
C. Sharks and birds
D. Birds and crocodiles
Answer:
Birds and Crocodiles (Ans. D)
Explanation:
Birds and Crocodiles shows most recent common ancestor because they are part of much larger group known as Archosauria (ruling lizards). When they both species divided from each others, they divided into 2 major evolutionary pathways:
The bird-line archosours , and the second one is crocodile-line archosours (which includes crocodilians and their ancestors).
So, Crocodiles are the closest living relatives of the birds and they sharing the most common ancestor.
Protein synthesis in bacterial cells usually starts with a: a. cysteine residue. b. phenylalanine residue. c. formylmethionine residue. d. valine residue. e. methionine residue.
Answer:
c. formylmethionine residue
Explanation:
The initiation codon (5' AUG 3') is present in the P site of the bacterial ribosomes and bind to the tRNA carrying formyl methionine amino acid. The formyl methionine amino acid serves to initiate the process of protein synthesis in bacteria. The initiator amino acid formyl methionine is encoded by genetic code "AUG".
The direct answer is: c. formylmethionine residue.
In bacterial cells, protein synthesis typically begins with a formylmethionine residue.
Formyl methionine, also known as fMet or fMet-tRNA, serves as the initiator amino acid during translation in bacteria. This modified form of methionine contains a formyl group attached to the amino group, making it distinct from regular methionine. The presence of formyl methionine at the beginning of a protein chain allows the ribosome to recognize the start codon and initiate translation. Once the protein synthesis process begins, subsequent amino acids are added to the growing polypeptide chain. However, it's important to note that in some bacteria, particularly mitochondria, the initiation amino acid can be methionine instead of formyl methionine.
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Which of the functions listed below is/are attributed to various plasma proteins? 1. contribute to blood clotting 2. exert colloid osmotic pressure (to assist the maintenance of water balance) 3. help attack viruses and bacteria 4. function as transport proteins for several steroid hormones 5. transport fat-soluble vitamins 6. transport oxygen
Answer:
The correct answers are options 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5.
Explanation:
Plasma proteins are the proteins found in blood plasma and exhibit distinct functions, like the conduction of various biochemicals in the circulatory system, maintaining the balance of fluid and levels of electrolyte in the body, regulating osmotic pressure, and others.
Some of the more general plasma proteins found in the plasma of the blood are serum albumin, which helps in maintaining the osmotic pressure and transporting biomolecules around the body. Fibrinogen that helps in the formation of blood clots, and globulins that provides antibodies to fight against bacteria and viruses.
Competent cells
are able to take up naked DNA.
are antibiotic resistant.
occur naturally.
can be created in the laboratory.
are able to take up naked DNA, occur naturally AND can be created in the laboratory.
Answer: Competent cells are able to take up naked DNA, they occur naturally and can be created in the laboratory
Explanation: Competent cells are cells that can modify its genetic make up and take other DNA using transfomation. Competent cells are commonky made from e.coli because it can replicate faster, readily available for use. DNA is cleavedusing restriction enzymes making up sticky ends.
Guppies living in a stream have a variety of spot patterns, some of which provide good camouflage against the stones in the streambed and others of which make them stand out against the background, allowing potential mates to see them more easily. If a predator that hunted by sight were introduced to the stream, what would be the most likely long-term consequence for the guppy population?
A The number of guppies in the population would decline, although most of the remaining ones would be uncamouflaged.
B The guppy population would devise a mutation that allowed the camouflaged guppies to find mates by scent or sound.
C The guppy population would die out since none of the guppies would be able to find mates.
D The number of camouflaged guppies in the population would increase while the number of successful matings decreased.
Answer:
A The number of guppies in the population would decline, although most of the remaining ones would be uncamouflaged.
Explanation:
The number of guppies in the population would decline, although most of the remaining ones would be uncamouflaged would be the most likely long-term consequence for the guppy population.
Answer:
D. The number of camouflaged guppies in the population would increase while the number of successful matings decreased.
Explanation:
The predator would eat the uncamouflaged guppies, reducing the number of uncamouflaged guppies. At the same time, the number of camoflouged guppies would increase as a large percentage of the camouflaged guppies that would have mates with the uncamouflaged will instead have offspring with the camouflaged guppies. While the number of camouflaged guppies mating will increase, the total number of successful matings will decrease because a large percent of all matings were with uncamouflaged guppies and now that is being severely cut down since the predator is eating all of them.
What organs develop in the embryo during the 1st month of pregnancy?
Answer:
thus buds that eventually grow into arms and legs are formed in 1st month of pregnancy
The molecules that make up food contain energy. How does the human body get energy from the food molecules?
A- by breaking and reforming chemical bonds in the molecules
B- by combining the molecules together
C- by using them to from ionic bonds
D- by adding energy to the molecules
Answer: A: by breaking ans reforming chemical bonds in the molecules
Explanation: There is energy stored in chemical bonds between food molecules (this is referred to as ATP, or Adenosine TriPhosphate, which is the type of energy your body uses). When chemical bonds are created, some energy is stored in those bonds (personally, I like to think that it's because the bonds need energy to stay bonded, but there is no science to prove this). When one of these bonds are broken, the energy that was stored is released, and can then be used by your body. Your body then uses a different type of energy (called ADP, or Adenosine DiPhosphate) to reform the bonds, which then go on to become waste products.
Answer:
It's A. By breaking them down and reforming chemical bonds in the molecules.
Explanation:
<3
Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all of the following EXCEPT ________. a. weak dilation of the blood vessels of skeletal muscles during exercise b. constriction of most blood vessels c. increase of heart rate and force d. dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera
Answer:
d. dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera.
Explanation:
Cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division include all of the following EXCEPT dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera.
The sympathetic division of the nervous system involves increasing heart rate, constricting most blood vessels, and dilating blood vessels serving skeletal muscles. It does not include the dilation of blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera, which belongs to the parasympathetic division.
Explanation:The cardiovascular effects of the sympathetic division of the nervous system, part of the body's fight or flight response, include several responses geared towards preparing the body for immediate action. These effects include an increase in heart rate and force, constriction of most blood vessels, and the dilation of blood vessels serving skeletal muscles- to improve oxygen supply during exercise. However, the sympathetic division does not include the dilation of the blood vessels serving the skin and digestive viscera. This option is part of the parasympathetic division, which occurs when the body is in a state of rest and digestion.
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Mike and Veronica are expecting their first child and they are nervous about all of the possible health issues a baby can face. Explain how knowing their family medical history can be useful for Mike and Veronica and their doctors as they prepare for the birth of their child.
The possibles is knowing the Medical history of the family which can
tell you what hereditary diseases the child boy/girl might be strangely have which could tell the doctors what to look for and how to solve the problem if it can be impossible to be fixed, it will also prepare the parents for what their expectations are for the their child and not be so surprised about the whole situation.
conmon disorders=heart disease, high blood pressure, stroke, certain cancers and more.. other..
~Have a nice day~
______ contains large amounts of potassium
A. Nephridium
B. Malpighian Tubes
C. Kidneys
D. None of the above
Answer:
Option B, Malpighian Tubes
Explanation:
In excretory system of Arthropods, the malphigian tubules constitute to be the main excretory organs in which bicarbonates of sodium and potassium, uric acid and water are formed. These maplhigian tubules are able to reabsorb the bicarbonates of potassium and sodium and transfers them into the blood known as haemolymph. The potassium ions are pumped out from the tubule into blood by potassium ion pump
Hence, option B is correct.
What is the role of renin in the secretion of aldosterone?
Answer:
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a hormone which is produced by the adrenal glands which are present above the kidneys. The role of aldosterone is to regulate the blood pressure. It causes the reabsorption of water and salts into the bloodstream during the kidney filteration process. Hence, maintains the blood volume, restors blood pressure and salt level.
Renin is an enzyme. It facilitates chemical reactions which stimulates the synthesis of angiotension II, it directs the synthesis of aldosterone.
Renin, produced by the kidneys in response to low blood pressure or blood volume, triggers a chain reaction leading to the secretion of aldosterone. Aldosterone then promotes sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys, thereby increasing blood volume and pressure. This process is part of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS).
The role of renin in the secretion of aldosterone is crucial in the regulation of blood pressure and fluid balance, through the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system (RAAS). When blood pressure or blood volume is low, specialized cells in the kidneys, known as juxtaglomerular (JG) cells, secrete the enzyme renin. Renin then catalyzes the conversion of angiotensinogen, a blood plasma protein produced by the liver, into angiotensin I. This is further converted into angiotensin II in the lungs by angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE). Angiotensin II serves multiple roles:
It acts as a potent vasoconstrictor, narrowing blood vessels to increase blood pressure.It stimulates the release of the hormone aldosterone from the adrenal cortex.It increases thirst and the secretion of antidiuretic hormone (ADH), both of which contribute to raising blood pressure.Aldosterone promotes sodium and water reabsorption in the kidneys, which increases blood volume and blood pressure. This process ensures homeostasis in the body by adjusting fluid and electrolyte balance in response to varying conditions.
PLZ HELP I NEED IT ANSWERED NOW THANKS!! Based on the diagram above, which layer of the intestine contains glands that secrete intestinal juices for digestion?
A. A
B. B
C. C
D. D
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Layer A is the mucosa of the intestinal tract. It where absorption and secretion takes place. This layer also contains glands like Brunner's gland, which secretes fluids to protect the lining of the intestines from the acidic juices of chyme. Secretions of the mucosa also contain enzymes and hormones that aid in digestion.
Which of the following describes the chromosomes in a fertilized egg?
A. Only from the mother
B. Only from the father
C. The diploid number
D. The haploid number
A fertilized egg contains the diploid number of chromosomes, which includes one set from the mother and one from the father, totaling 46 chromosomes in humans.
Explanation:The chromosomes in a fertilized egg are diploid, which means they contain two sets of chromosomes, one set from each parent. In humans, this amounts to a total of 46 chromosomes, with 23 being maternally derived (from the mother's egg) and 23 paternally derived (from the father's sperm). Therefore, the answer to the question would be C. The diploid number. Haploid cells, like the sperm and egg, have only half the number of chromosomes, which combine to form a diploid cell during fertilization. This cellular fusion results in a zygote, the initial cell of a new organism that contains a full set of chromosomes.
Which of the following is often provided by anthropologists and biologists as a possible explanation for the development of bipedal hominids?
A. Standing upright allowed for sightlines over tall grasses and savannah shrubbery
B. Standing upright allowed for better tree climbing
C. Standing upright allowed for more efficient movement
D. Standing upright allowed for better foraging of tree fruits
Answer:
The answer is C. Standing upright allowed for sightlines over tall grasses and savanna shrubbery
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Answer:
The correct answer is option A-standing upright allowed for sightlines over tall grasses and savannah shrubbery.
Explanation:
Bipedalism or walking upright on two legs departed the hominids- Neanderthals and Homo erectus from four-legged apes. Many reasons were given to support the bipedalism of hominids like:
1. They needed to stand over tall grass to minimize the body exposure to the sun in savannah.
2. They needed to stand over tall grass to increase the sightlines to gather foods for themselves especially females and young ones which required hands to be free.
Thus, option A is the correct option.