Which of the following epochs was the warmest?

Answers

Answer 1
This question is incomplete. The options are:
a. Oligocene b. Eocenec. Miocened. Pleistocene

Option b is correct. This relates to the Paleocene-Eocene Thermal Maximum (PETM) which occured around 56 million years ago and was similar to modern-day climate change. Warming of more than 5 degrees Celcius occured over 15-20 thousand years because of input of more than 2000 gigatons of carbon into the atmosphere. The PETM resulted in mass deep ocean extinctions and mass terrestrial and shallow ocean diversification.

Related Questions

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1. Which factor has greatest importance in determining the characteristics of an aquatic ecosystem? (1 point)day length
water depth
angle of sunlight
average precipitation

2. Which is one way that a freshwater wetland differs from a lake or pond? (1 point)Water flows in a lake or pond but never flows in a wetland.
Wetlands are nesting areas for birds, but lakes and ponds are not.

Water does not always cover a wetland as it does a lake or pond.
Wetlands are salty, but lakes and ponds are fresh.<<<


3.

Answers

1.)Water depth has the greatest importance in determining the characteristics of an aquatic ecosystem.
   2.)Water flows in a lake or pond but never flows in a wetland.

Name and briefly describe the three essential principles of test construction ap psych

Answers

The three essential principles of test construction are listed below:
I. Standardization
II. Reliability
III. Validity


Standardization- To standardize a test means that test is given to a large, representative sample of people, in order to establish the norms that future test takers are compared against (using a normal distribution)

Reliability - This principle requires that a test must produce reliable, consistent results when it is repeated. The reliability of a test can be verified using the test-retest method or the split-half method.

Validity - This refers to the ability of a test to measure what it was designed to measure.

Psychological Test Construction is the standardized test to understand the individual behavior, thinking, and feeling. Three essential principles are:

Standardization.Reliability.Validity.

Three essential principles are defined as:

Standardization is referred to as the establishment of norms or rules for the test. The test is conducted on a large number of people to establish the norms against future patients. Reliability is the principle that results in consistent and reliable results. The reliability of the test can be verified by using the test-retest method. Validity refers to the ability of the test to determine optimum results when used with corresponding tests.

Therefore, three principles are standardization, reliability, and validity.

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How are different climates affected by water erosion?

Answers

Answer:

Water erosion can contribute to pollution.

Explanation:

Remember that pollution refers to the introduction of contaminants in natural environments causing negative changes in the ecosystem.

Water erosion is possible because of the sediments that carries and erode soil surface. Also, it can contribute to water contaminations because of the different types of sediments can carry, finally causing pollution.

Once absorbed the majority of glucose is transported to

Answers

Answer: Liver

Glucose is the most important fuel source for the body, specifically the brain. It is absorbed through the mucosal lining into the epithelial cells of the intestine by active transport via sodium-dependent hexose transporter. From the epithelial cells, glucose is moved into the surrounding capillaries by facilitated diffusion into the liver. Once in the liver, glucose is stored as glycogen.

A species may successfully live in its environment due to

Asexual reproduction
genetic variation

Answers

The answer is genetic variation.

A variable-ratio schedule reinforces behavior after a:

Answers

Final answer:

A variable-ratio schedule reinforces behavior after an unpredictable number of responses, leading to high and steady engagement. It is exemplified by activities like gambling, where the exact moment of reinforcement is uncertain but is statistically average over time.

Explanation:

A variable-ratio schedule reinforces behavior after an unpredictable number of responses. This schedule provides reinforcements after a specific but average number of responses have been made. For example, gamblers playing slot machines or buying lottery tickets experience this type of reinforcement schedule. Each pull of the slot machine's handle or each lottery ticket bought represents a chance for reinforcement, and the schedule is designed so that a win occurs on average every so many responses, although the exact number is unpredictable.

Unlike a fixed-ratio schedule which reinforces behavior after a specific number of responses, the variable-ratio schedule can maintain high and steady rates of responding, as the reinforcement increases with the number of responses. This schedule is considered very effective because it is unpredictable and keeps the participant engaged, not knowing when the next reinforcement will come, much like the behavior of a gambler.

One of the most common digestive problems involving the esophagus is __________.

Answers

There are many digestive problems involving the esophagus (e.g. achalasia, squamous cell carcinoma of the esophagus, etc), but one of the most common esophageal diseases are heartburn or reflux disease also known as gastroesophageal reflux disease or GERD. GERD is characterized by the backflow of the stomach acids to the distal end of the esophagus causing damage and erosion. In chronic cases of GERD, the epithelium of the esophagus transforms from stratified squamous to columnar with goblet cells and this is called columnar metaplasia or Barrett's esophagus. This can predispose the patient to the risk of developing esophageal adenocarcinoma.

How is the structure of transitional epithelium perfect for the function of the bladder?

Answers

The transitional epithelium is a unique kind of epithelium exclusive to the genitourinary tract. This epithelium is actually a stratified epithelium with the ability to contract or relax as needed (but this epithelium has no contractile element). This epithelium can transition from a stratified epithelium to a simple epithelium depending on the distension of the bladder hence the name transitional. This is perfect for the bladder because this functions to accommodate the urine storage function of the bladder by increasing its compliance.
Final answer:

Transitional epithelium in the bladder allows for adaptation to changing volumes of urine. The cells can pile up, forming a thick layer when the bladder is empty, and unfold and stretch as the bladder fills up. The bladder also contains layers of connective tissue and muscle to aid in urine expulsion.

Explanation:

The structure of transitional epithelium is perfectly suited to the function of the bladder. These cells, which are arranged in a stratified layer, can 'pile up' when the bladder is empty, effectively thickening the bladder wall. However, as the bladder fills with urine and expands, the epithelial layer unfolds and increases surface area, making the lining appear thinner. This transitional epithelial tissue is therefore able to adapt to the changing volume of the bladder.

Furthermore, the bladder has multiple dedicated structural features such as layers of loose connective tissue and smooth muscle, collectively known as the detrusor muscle. This muscle contracts to expel urine, and relaxes when the bladder is being filled up. The interior surface, made of transitional epithelium, changes from a columnar to a squamous appearance depending on the volume of urine, making it highly adaptable to volume fluctuations.

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Which gloves are generally used to improve grip when handling slippery objects?

Answers

I believe the answer is Fabric gloves. They are made of cotton or fabric blends and are generally used to improve grip when handling slippery objects. They also help insulate hands from mild heat or cold. A glove is a covering for the hand with separates sections for the fingers and thumb, sometimes extending over the wrist and part of the arm. They may be leather gloves, fabric gloves depending on the material they are made from or the function they are used for.

Nitrile or vinyl gloves are recommended over cotton for improved grip on slippery objects and to reduce the risk of contamination and skin irritation.

The gloves generally recommended for improving grip when handling slippery objects are made from materials like nitrile or vinyl, which provide better traction than traditional cotton gloves. Nitrile gloves are particularly advisable because they don't only improve grip but also offer protection against contamination by microorganisms, chemicals, and can prevent staines and irritation to the wearer's skin.

Unlike latex gloves, which can cause allergic reactions and are no longer recommended, nitrile and vinyl gloves are safer alternatives that are often used in various environments, from medical settings to handling photographs, negatives, and even when touching varnished surfaces.

Which statement best describes how modern taxonomist classify and organism?

Answers

Taxonomy can be defined as science of naming, describing and classifying orgainisms. In 1707-1778, Swedish botanist named Carolus Linneaus developed a modern taxonomic system and the statement that describes the modern taxonomy of organism is that “Organism physical characteristics can be used to differentiate and identify different species and this factor is based on their genetics".

How does the skin on your palm differ from that on the back (posterior) of your hand?

Answers

I think the skin is thinner on the back then in the front

The nurse is caring for a client with nursing diagnosis of ineffective tissue perfusion. which area of the heart would the nurse anticipate being compromised?

Answers

The right ventricle of the heart the nurse should anticipate. Occasionally, circumstances happen where this altercation of gases among the blood and the cells is disturbed in which the cells and ultimately the tissues and organs stop receiving adequate oxygen source. The body cannot function in deprived of oxygen that is clearly a problem. As soon as tissues do not obtain sufficient oxygen over the capillaries, this will result to ineffective tissue perfusion.

Final answer:

In cases of ineffective tissue perfusion related to the heart, the myocardium is most likely to be compromised due to conditions such as heart failure or ischemia caused by narrowed or blocked coronary arteries. This can result in inadequate oxygenation, cell death, and severe impairment of heart function.

Explanation:

When a nurse is caring for a client with an ineffective tissue perfusion nursing diagnosis, it implies that a certain area of the heart is not receiving an adequate blood supply, which could be due to heart failure or ischemia. The heart muscle that is most likely to be compromised is the myocardium, particularly the regions supplied by the narrowed or blocked coronary arteries.

Heart failure occurs when the heart can't pump with sufficient force to meet the body's needs, leading to inadequate oxygenation of tissues, which can result in cell death and severe impairment of heart function. Cardiac muscle, composed of cells with endoplasmic reticula, requires proper functioning to manage calcium ions and ensure adequate contractile force; thus, any impairment in this system can lead to heart failure.

Furthermore, the heart's ability to appropriately allocate resources and oxygenated blood during various states of activity is essential for maintaining cardiovascular homeostasis. When an immunocompromised individual, such as a patient with chronic myelogenous leukemia, experiences additional stress or illness, this can exacerbate heart function and lead to further complications due to the limited regenerative capacity of the cardiac muscle tissue. Ultimately, untreated heart failure can lead to the failure of other organs and severe systemic effects.

A key feature of ________ is an odd motor state in which the individual may remain frozen in a stupor for long periods of time.

Answers

Out of the following choices;

a. catatonic schizophrenia

b. obsessive-compulsive disorder

c. paranoid schizophrenia

d. residual schizophrenia

e. undifferentiated schizophrenia

The answer is a. Individuals who suffer catatonic schizophrenia, in addition to stupor, can also exhibit other symptoms such as catalepsy (where the patient assumes abnormal postures) and stereotypy (repeating one motion/movement for long without reason). The disorder can be managed using methods such as psychotherapy

A client has been admitted to the critical care unit with a diagnosis of peritonitis that has necessitated treatment with gentamicin. as a result, the care team should be cautious when concurrently administering other medications that may cause which?

Answers

There are choices for this question namely:

a. Neutropenia or autoimmune effects
b. Ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity
c. Increased intracranial pressure or changes in cognition
d. Anemia or impaired erythropoiesis

The correct answer is "ototoxicity or nephrotoxicity". Gentamicin is an antibiotic from the class of aminoglycosides. All aminoglycosides have been known to cause both ototoxicity and nephrotoxicity in patients. Other ototoxic drugs or nephrotoxic drugs (i.e. furosemide and indomethacin respectively) shall be given with caution. 

The enzyme plus the substrate involved in the reaction are jointly called the

Answers

I think they are called the Enzyme-substrate complex. Enzyme substrate complex is the intermediate formed when a substrate molecule interacts with the active site of an enzyme. As a result of the formation of the complex the substrate undergoes a chemical reaction and is then converted to a new product. 

Mr. Burns, a retired neighbor of Roger's, is angry at Roger for playing loud music. Roger, who is 9 years old, notices that it is 10:30 AM and decides that Mr. Burns does not like to be interrupted while watching 'The Magic Donkey' superhero program on television, which only comes on during this time slot. Roger decides to do an experiment over the next two weeks and record his findings. To test this hypothesis, Roger could do all of the following EXCEPT?
A)Repeat his behavior at 10:30 AM for the next two weeks and record his findings.B)Bring Mr. Burns his mail at 10:30 every day.C)Play loud music at precisely 2:30 in the afternoon for two weeks.D)Interrupt Mr. Burns at 10:30 AM for the next two weeks by mowing the lawn.

Answers

The answer would be: C)Play loud music at precisely 2:30 in the afternoon for two weeks.

All other option is involving an action at 10.30 AM which the only times  'The Magic Donkey' is aired on the television. If Roger wants to prove the hypothesis, he should do the experiment when  'The Magic Donkey' is aired, not before or after it.

PLEASE HELP ASAP!!!! 100% CORRECT ANSWERS ONLY PLEASE!!!! I CANNOT RETAKE THIS.


Hunting reduced the population size of the northern elephant seal to as few as 20 individuals at the end of the 19th century. Their population has since rebounded to over 30,000, but they have much less genetic variation than a population of southern elephant seals that was not so intensely hunted. How is the lack of genetic variation related to the hunting episodes of the 1800's?



A. Genetic drift occurred; the few individuals left behind were the seals that passed on that specific gene pool.


B. Adaptation occurred; some seals were able to adapt to the hunting environment and they survived to pass on their genes.


C. During the 1800's some northern seals migrated and were able to survive. That gene pool is found in the current population.


D. Natural selection occurred; only the strongest northern elephant seals survived in the 1880's and that restricted gene pool exists today.

Answers

 A.) Genetic drift occurred; the few individuals left behind were the seals that passed on that specific gene pool.
A Genetic drift occurred; the few individuals left behind were the seals that passed on that specific gene pool.

What term defines Mendel's plants that self-pollinated and produced identical successive generations? A. Cross-pollinated B. Genetic C. F1 cross D. True-breeding

Answers

Hello,

Here is your answer:

The proper answer tot his question is A "cross pollinated".

Your answer is A.

If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!

Hope this helps!

DNA replication occurs prior to meiosis and _________.

Answers

Hello,

The answer is option A "mitosis".

Reason:

Mitosis one of the stages of a cell where the cells are separated into two chromosomes therefore putting them into a nucleus. Its not option B because cytokinesis is another part and divides one cell into two daughter cells (which means this is involved of the sex of the child). Its also not D because transcription is involved in gene expression.

If you need anymore help feel free to ask me!

Hope this helps!

~Nonportrit

Answer:

The answer is mitosis

Explanation:

Animals that possess homologous structures probably _____. see concept 26.2 (page 556) view available hint(s) animals that possess homologous structures probably _____. see concept 26.2 (page 556) are the result of convergent evolution are not related are the result of similar environmental pressures in different evolutionary lineages evolved from the same ancestor have increased genetic diversity

Answers

I believe animals that possess homologous structures probably  evolved from the same ancestor. Homologous structures are similar because of common ancestry.  A homologous structure is an example of an organ or bone that appears in different animals, underlining anatomical commonalities demonstrating descent from  a common ancestor. 
Final answer:

Animals with homologous structures likely evolved from a common ancestor. These structures have common ancestry but may have diverse functions. Conversely, analogous structures, resulting from convergent evolution, have similar functions but do not derive from a shared ancestor.

Explanation:

Animals that possess homologous structures probably evolved from the same ancestor. Homologous structures are physical features in different species that have a common ancestry but may have different functions. This concept is a crucial aspect of evolutionary biology. For instance, the bones in the wings of bats and birds are homologous structures; their wings developed from the same limb bones of a common ancestor, although they may serve different functions in their respective species.

However, not all similar structures are homologous. Some similar structures are the result of convergent evolution, where different species evolve similar traits independently, often due to similar environmental pressures. These are known as analogous structures. For example, the wings of a bat (a mammal) and those of an insect, despite serving the same function (flight), do not share common ancestry, and hence are analogous, not homologous.

Determining whether a structure is homologous or analogous can provide insight into the evolutionary history of species. Understanding homologous structures aids in deciphering the phylogeny, or evolutionary history, of different species and determining how closely related different species are.

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Which blood type carries anti-a antibodies in the plasma?

Answers

The blood type B carries anti-A antibodies in the plasma. Blood type B is characterized by the presence of B antigens in the plasma membrane of the red blood cells. With the B antigens present, the opposite (anti-A) antibodies should be present in the plasma. Same goes with other blood types. In blood type A, there is the presence of A antigens on the RBC membrane and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. In blood type O, there are no antigens on the RBC membrane therefore there is the presence of both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma. In blood type AB, there are both the A and B antigens on the RBC membrane but no antibodies in the plasma.

Final answer:

Individuals with type B blood carry anti-A antibodies in their plasma. This immune response targets any foreign A antigens that might enter the body, such as through a blood transfusion.

Explanation:

People with type B blood carry anti-A antibodies in the plasma. This is because they have the B antigen on the surface of their red blood cells (RBCs) and, therefore, their immune system produces anti-A antibodies to target anything that is not recognized as self. These antibodies will attack foreign A antigens if they enter the body, such as through a blood transfusion. On the other hand, individuals with type A blood produce anti-B antibodies, while those with AB blood do not produce either anti-A or anti-B antibodies. People with type O blood, which lacks both A and B antigens on their RBCs, produce both anti-A and anti-B antibodies.

What is the role of natural selection in evolution?

Natural selection is a specific mechanism of evolution in which the heritable traits (characteristics) help an organism to survive his generation.
Natural selection is a specific mechanism of evolution in which the heritable traits (characteristics) help an organism to survive and reproduce successfully.
Natural selection is a specific mechanism of evolution in which all acquired traits (characteristics) help an organism to survive and reproduce successfully.

Answers

Hello!

The correct answer is B - 
Natural selection is a specific mechanism of evolution in which the heritable traits (characteristics) help an organism to survive and reproduce successfully.

Natural selection works by weeding out organisms less fit to their environment, and that way those with more efficient characteristics survive and reproduce.

Answer:

Natural selection is a specific mechanism of evolution in which the heritable traits (characteristics) help an organism to survive and reproduce successfully.

Explanation:

When hybrids in a hybrid zone can breed with each other and with both parent species and also have equal fitness to the parent species, one would predict that __________?

Answers

The hybrid zone would be stable

A client is diagnosed with pancytopenia caused by chemotherapy. what should a nurse teach the client about this complication?

Answers

The nurse should advice the client to avoid traumatic injury and exposure to infection. Pancytopenia is a condition in which the bone marrow is unable to produce enough blood cell. The body will have few red blood cells, white blood cells and platelets. This condition makes he body weak and vulnerable to diseases and that is why the client should be cautious and avoid infection.

An Asian elephant has a weight of 52,900 newtons. This enormous weight is balanced on four feet. In a circus act, these elephants often balance on one foot. The average surface area of a foot pad is 2,920 cm2. What pressure is experienced at the food pad if an elephant balances all its weight on one foot? 0.0551 N/cm2 18.1 N/cm2 52,900 N 1.84 N

Answers

Answer:

Option B, [tex]18.11 \frac{N}{cm^{2}}[/tex]

Explanation:

Given-

The average surface area of one foot pad of an elephant is [tex]2920[/tex] [tex]cm^{2}\\[/tex]

Weight of an Asian elephant is [tex]52900[/tex] newton

As we know, pressure is equal to total weight divided by total area of the surface on which it is concentrated.

Thus, pressure on one foot  pad of elephant is [tex]\frac{52900}{2920} \frac{N}{cm^{2}} \\[/tex]

[tex]= 18.11\frac{N}{cm^{2}}[/tex]

Hence, option B is correct answer

PLEASE HELP
If scientists were trying to construct recombinant DNA molecules, how would they do it?


by combining the RNA of two different organisms

by combining the proteins from two different organisms

by combining the DNA of two different organisms

by using RNA from plants

Answers

I'm pretty sure it would be by combining the DNA of two different organisms

Answer: Option C

Explanation:

The term recombinant DNA technology refers to combination of DNA from two different organisms. The gene of interest from the desired organism is incorporated into the bacterial cell.

When the bacterial cells replication, the gene of interest is also replicated along with the bacterial DNA.

There are many products which is produced for serving the society like medicines, enzymes, chemicals et cetera.

This technique allows us to have a huge amount of product in the very small period of time as the replication rate of bacterial species are very high.

Which of the these does not derive its energy directly or indirectly from the sun? A) Earthquakes. B) Hurricanes. C) animals. D) wind.

Answers

B hurricanes hope I was helpful

Answer:

the correct answer is A) Earthquakes

Explanation:

The solute most abundant in phloem sap is _____. see concept 36.5 (page 797) the solute most abundant in phloem sap is _____. see concept 36.5 (page 797) amino acids minerals sugar hormones water

Answers

sugar
since phloem transports food in plant
Final answer:

The most abundant solute in phloem sap is sugar, specifically sucrose. This sucrose is transported from source cells into companion cells and then into sieve-tube elements, creating a flow from source to sink.

Explanation:

The solute most abundant in phloem sap is sugar, specifically sucrose. Phloem sap is an aqueous solution that contains up to 30 percent sugar, alongside minerals, amino acids, and plant growth regulators. Sucrose is actively transported from source cells into companion cells and then into the sieve-tube elements. This reduces the water potential, which causes water to enter the phloem from the xylem, thereby increasing pressure and causing the bulk flow of phloem from source to sink. Unloading at the sink end of the phloem tube occurs by either diffusion or active transport of sucrose molecules from an area of high concentration to one of low concentration.

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If two haploid yeast cells fuse to produce one diploid cell, and then this diploid cell undergoes meiosis to produce four haploid cells, what is the probability that an individual haploid cell resulting from this meiosis will have a complete parental set of chromosomes

Answers

None of them, 0%, 0/4

If two haploid yeast cells fuse to produce one diploid cell, and then diploid cell undergoes meiosis to produce four haploid cells, as a result 50% probability that an individual haploid cell resulting from this meiosis will have a complete parental set of chromosomes.

What is meiosis?      

 

In the case of the diploid yeast cell that has been formed by the fusion of two haploid cells, it contains two sets of chromosomes, one set from each parents, so when this diploid cell undergoes meiosis, the two sets of chromosomes are separated into four haploid cells, and each haploid cell that is produced from the meiosis will receive a random assortment of chromosomes from the original diploid cell, so 50% haploid cell contains the complete parental set.

Hence, there is a 50% probability that an individual haploid cell resulting from meiosis will have a complete parental set of chromosomes as per the scenario.

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What may prevent the detection of lupus anticoagulant in a plasma sample if the blood used for testing is not centrifuged for a sufficient time?

Answers

Increased platelets in the plasma sample
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