Answer:
a. the fish swam in a zigzag motion.
Explanation:
When someone quantifies (quantity) usually assigns a certain number (1,2,3 etc.) quality is a subjective measure that depends on the point of view of the observer like color, behaviour.
Which of the following describes differences between normal cells and cancer cells?
A. Normal cells have multiple nucleoli, while cancer cells have a single nucleolus.
B. Normal cells have coarse chromatin, while cancer cells have fine chromatin.
C. Normal cells have multiple nuclei, while cancer cells have a single nucleus.
D. Normal cells have a large amount of cytoplasm, while cancer cells have a small amount of cytoplasm.
E. Cancer cells exhibit controlled cell division, while normal cells exhibit uncontrolled cell division.
Answer:
D. Normal cells have a large amount of cytoplasm, while cancer cells have a small amount of cytoplasm.
Explanation:
The cells that repeatedly undergo cell division have higher nuclear to cytoplasm ratio. Cancer cells undergo repeated uncontrolled cell division. They have a higher nuclear to cytoplasm ratio and maintain a small amount of cytoplasm. The larger nucleus of cancer cells has coarse hyperchromatin.
On the other hand, normal cells have a large amount of cytoplasm as compared to the cancer cells. They have fine chromatin and exhibit controlled cell division.
At the end of the practical class, all tissue and the remaining carcass of the cane toad must be placed __________.
Select one:
a. In the normal bin
b. In the glass bin
c. In special waste containers provided
d. Washed down the sink
What would happen to male fetus whose gonads could not produce testosterone
A. It would develop ovaries instead of testes
B. It would not develop male genitals
C. It could not produce Mullerian inhibiting hormone
D. It would produce estrogen
E. It would die
Answer:B. It would not develop male genitals
Explanation:
Testosterone is the male sex hormone. It is an anabolic steroid. It is responsible for the development and maturation of internal genitalia in males. Internal genetalia includes the testes and prostate gland development which aids in production of sperms and seminal fluid.
Thus in the abscenece of testosterone the gonads will not develop internal genitals.
What female organ is homologous with the male's scrotum?
a. uterus
b. cervix
c. corpus luteum
d. ovary
e. labia major
Answer: E
Explanation:
Which of the following is not transmitted by water contaminated with human fecal material?
a. hepatitis A
b. toxoplasmosis
c. polio
d. typhoid fever
e. all of these diseases can be transmitted in this manner
Answer:
e. all of these diseases can be transmitted in this manner
Explanation:
All the diseases mentioned above can be transmitted by water or food infected with human fecal material, so it is important to always know the origin of the foods that are consumed, as well as promote the cooking and efficient cleaning of these foods.
As stated above, these diseases can be transmitted by water contaminated by faecal material from a human who has the disease, this shows the importance of promoting a basic sanitation system in cities, so that everyone has a guarantee of clean and free water. of contaminants. It is also important to avoid bathing in rivers and lakes of suspicious places and always taking available vaccines to fight disease.
P.S. vaccines do not cause health problems, on the contrary, they are designed to protect humans from possible parasites
Each stage of community change during the process of succession is known as a ___________ stage.
a. biome
b. community
c. seral
d. trophic
e. successional
Answer: Seral stage
Explanation:
The seral community commonly known as sere. It is an intermediate stage which is found during the ecological succession in an ecosystem.
This is an intermediate stage that comes before every stage of ecological succession advancing towards its climax community.
It starts with the pioneer species and keeps on evolving until climax community is attained.
Hence, the correct answer is option C
How can you tell the difference between conformity and obedience?
Answer:
Differentiated
Explanation:
Obedience and conformity are two types of social behavior and both allow certain degree of surrender of person's innate nature to the outside source.
Conformity is behavior of a person that matches with certain group of people It is act of showing similar vibrations, beliefs that the group of people have. Conformity comes with a subtle pressure and indirect authority.
Obedience is on the other hand act of following directions and instructions without questioning or any kind of protest.The instructions are often given by some authority or society.
Answer:
To conform means to act in accordance with certain expectations or specifications in place. In contrast, to obey means to fulfill a specific command. Thus, the difference between the two is that conformity is to act as expected without any specific instruction to do so, while obey means the opposite. to obey thing that the want you to do like orders and you have to do it in force someone may force you to do something it like taking orders from someone
Explanation:
What process was given as an example of the violation of Mendel's first law?
a. disjunction
b. nondisjunction
c. linkage
d. deletion
e. insertion
Answer:
b. nondisjunction
Explanation:
During anaphase-I of meiosis-I, homologous chromosomes separate from each other and move to the opposite poles. During anaphase-II of meiosis-II, the sister chromatids move towards the opposite poles. Separation of chromosomes at anaphase is called disjunction.
When chromosomes do not segregate from each other, it is non-disjunction. Non-disjunction leads to the presence of both alleles of a gene in a gamete and violates Mendel's first law.
For example, the non-disjunction of chromosome 21 leads to the presence of both alleles of all the genes present on chromosome 21 in the same gamete.
According to Mendel's first law, each gamete carries only one allele for a gene. It is called as law of segregation.
The endometrium
A. Is the muscle layer of the uterus
B. Is thickest during the preovulatory phase.
C. Is the site of embryo implantation.
D. Lines the vagina.
E. Is directly affected by FSH 1
Answer:
The correct answer is C. Is the site of embryo implantation.
Explanation:
Uterus is composed of three tissues :
1. Perimetrium: Outer layer of uterus made up of peritoneal. 2. Myometrium: middle layer made up of smooth muscles and 3. Endometrium: made up of simple columnar epithelium and mucous membrane.
Endometrium plays an important role during pregnancy. During pregnancy, the production of estrogen and progesterone increases. This helps the proliferation of epithelial lining and secretory gland present in the endometrium.
Progesterone hormone plays an important part in the implantation of embryo in the endometrium layer of the uterus. Endometrial glands start secreting the nutritive fluid for the development of fetus.
Thus, the correct answer is C. Is the site of embryo implantation.
Which method(s) can be used to join double-stranded breaks in DNA? (choose all that apply)
a. homologous end joining
b. polymerase chain reaction
c. homologous recombination
d. Non-homologous end joining
Answer:
Option (a) and (d).
Explanation:
The breaks in DNA molecule may occur due to replication error and oxidizing agent. The double-stranded breaks in DNA can be corrected by Homologous end joining and non homologous end joining.
Homologous end joining is used to repair the DNA present in G2 nad S phases of the cell cycle. The homologous sequences of DNA is used to repair the DNA. Non homologous end joining occurs in the cell present at G0 and G1 phase of the cell cycle. The DNA broken ends are juxtaposed and later rejoin together by DNA ligase.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a) and (d).
Final answer:
The methods used to join double-stranded breaks in DNA are homologous recombination and non-homologous end joining.
Explanation:
The methods that can be used to join double-stranded breaks in DNA are homologous recombination and non-homologous end joining (NHEJ). Homologous recombination repairs a double-stranded DNA break using a homologous sequence as a template, involving enzymes like MRX, MRN, and Sae2. On the other hand, non-homologous end joining directly rejoins the broken DNA ends without the need for a homologous template, often resulting in the loss of some DNA at the breakage site.
All of the events listed below occur in the energy-capturing light reactions of photosynthesis except
A) oxygen is produced.
B) NADPt is reduced to NADPH.
C) carbon dioxide is incorporated into PGA.
D) ADP is phosphorylated to yield ATP
E) light is absorbed and funneled to reaction-center chlorophyll
Answer:
C) carbon dioxide is incorporated into PGA.
Explanation:
Light reactions of photosynthesis include splitting of the water molecule in presence of sunlight and release of electrons and oxygen gas, generation of electrochemical gradient during electron transfer from PSII to NADP+ via PSI and synthesis of ATP and NADPH.
The ATP and NADPH are used in the light-independent phase of photosynthesis which includes the Calvin cycle.
The first stage of the Calvin cycle is carbon fixation during which carbon dioxide is fixed into 3-PGA (3-phosphoglyceraldehyde). Carbon fixation is followed by reduction and regeneration of RuBP.
BRCA-1 is associated with which cancer?
A) breast
B) thyroid
C) nerve
D) leukemia
The correct answer is A. Breast
Explanation:
BRCA-1 that stands for Breast Cancer Type 1 Susceptibility Protein is a tumor suppressor gene and protein related to breast cancer. This means, BRCA-1 can stop cells from developing into cancer, although the function of this gene can change and even be suppressed and thus, cancer might develop due to this. BRCA-1 is located in chromosome 17 in humans and act in cells by repairing DNA or in some cases destroying it, which stop possible mutation that can lead to cancer. Due to this, it is believed by studying BRCA-1 and the correct function of it or possible mutation it might be possible to know the risk for breast cancer in individual as well as detecting first stages of Breast Cancer. Thus, BRCA-1 is mainly related to Breast Cancer.
What are the benefits of photosynthesis?
a. all answers are correct
b. it begins all food chain
c. it makes organic molecules like sugar
d. it produces oxygen gas
Answer:
The correct option is 'a': All the answers are correct.
Explanation:
Since plant's are abundant and can manufacture their own food hence they serve as the beginning of all the food chains hence option 'b' is correct.
In the process of photosynthesis the plants make use of carbon dioxide, sunlight , water, in presence of a pigment called chlorophyll present in plant cells in organelles called as plastids to yield glucose which is a carbohydrate or simplest sugar and release oxygen into the atmosphere. Hence options 'c' and 'd' are also correct.
Describe in a few sentences each the following eating disorders: anorexia, bulimia, binge eating, bigorexia, and exercise compulsion, drunkorexia.
Answer:
Anorexia refers to a loss or lack of appetite for food, it is an emotional disorder featured by an obsessive feeling to lose weight by refusing to eat.
Bulimia refers to an eating disorder, in which a huge quantity of food is eaten in a brief duration, generally followed by the feelings of shame or guilt.
Binge eating refers to an extreme eating disorder in which an individual continuously eats a huge quantity of food and feel unstoppable to eat.
Bigorexia also is known as muscle dysmorphia refers to an exaggerated or delusional belief that the body of one's own is too skinny, too small, inadequately lean, or inadequately muscular. Though in the majority of the situations, the build of the person is normal.
Compulsive exercise also termed as exercise addiction takes place when an individual is motivated to exercise too much. Injury, illness, and other conditions do not stop the individual to exercise.
Drunkorexia is the term given to an individual who limits the intake of food calories in order to make space for alcoholics drink calories. In spite of the risks, it has been shown that about 30 percent of the women between age 18 and 23 diets so that they can drink.
Answer:
Anorexia : Condition which occurs due to very low weight of body due to the fear of gaining weight.
Bulimia: Bulimia nervosa can be described as a condition in which there is binge eating by the person first which is followed up by purging.
Bigorexia: Bigorexia can easily be described as the reverse of anorexia.
Drunkorexia: A condition in which there is binge or purge eating due to the intake of alcohol.
Exercise compulsion : A condition in which a person does excessive exercise.
Binge eating: It is a condition in which a person does excessive over eating without feeling the need to stop.
Explanation:
Anorexia: Anorexia Nervosa, which is also termed as anorexia, can be a psychological disorder in which the person becomes life threatening from the fear of getting fat. As a result, they get an extremely low body weight.
Bulimia: Bulimia, also termed as Bulimia Nervosa, is a condition in which a person does over eating i.e binge of an eating first and then tries to compensate it with any kind of purging activity. The purging activity could be any activity which he tries to do so that he can get rid of the excessive food taken.
Bigorexia: Bigorexia, also termed as Muscle Dysmorphia, is a condition in which the person thinks that he/she is very skinny or under weight when in real he/she is normal or usually over weight.
Drunkorexia : Drunkorexia is a condition in which a person has abnormal eating patterns trying to compensate for the large amount of alcohol that he/she has consumed.
Exercise compulsion : Exercise compulsion is a disorder in which a person focuses only on exercising ignoring the daily activities or any injuries that he/she might have acquired.
Two normally pigmented parents have an albino child. What are the parents' genotypes?
Final answer:
Two normally pigmented parents with an albino child each carry one dominant allele for pigmentation and one recessive allele for albinism, giving them the heterozygous genotype Aa.
Explanation:
When two normally pigmented parents have an albino child, the genetic inheritance involved follows a recessive pattern. Albinism is a condition characterized by a lack of pigment in the skin, hair, and eyes and is caused by a recessive allele. If a child expresses this recessive trait, it means that both parents must have provided a copy of this recessive allele for albinism. Thus, the genotypes of each parent must be heterozygous, meaning they each carry one dominant allele for normal pigmentation and one recessive allele for albinism. This can be represented as Aa, where 'A' is the dominant allele for normal pigmentation, and 'a' is the recessive allele for albinism.
In the context of Mendelian genetics and monohybrid crosses, such as the cross that would involve the two heterozygous parents, a Punnett square predicts that there is a 3:1 phenotypic ratio in the second filial (F2) generation. However, in the first generation (F1), all offspring would display the dominant phenotype. In cases like the one presented, albinism reveals the underlying genotype of the parents due to its recessive nature. The appearance of the recessive phenotype in their offspring unequivocally indicates that both parents were carriers of the albinism trait.
Genotype determination from offspring phenotypes can similarly be applied to other recessively inherited disorders, like alkaptonuria mentioned in Figure 12.6, or examples of epistasis in mice coat color inheritance. Understanding parental genotypes using offspring phenotypes is a foundational concept in genetics and illustrates the predictive power of monohybrid crosses.
The vegetative cell that forms an endospore is geneticallyidentical
to the vegetative cell that emerges from thatendospore.
True or False?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Formation of endospore (sporulation) occurs in some organisms such as bacteria. Sporulation occurs during unfavourable environmental conditions. Sporulation is a process to preserve genetic material during unfavourable environmental conditions. The vegetative cell forms a thick-coated, dormant and resistant spore called endospore.
Endospore was discovered by John Tyndall. It is a resting spore and helps bacteria to overcome the unfavourable environmental conditions.
On the return of favourable environmental conditions, the endospore germinates to form new bacteria cell. Since this process does not involve meiosis, the new bacterial cell is genetically identical to the original vegetative cell.
Cerebellar circuitry coordinates behavior by
a. inhibiting inappropriate muscle groups
b. disinhibiting appropriate muscle groups
c. responding to changes in head tilt, or posture and muscle disposition
d. all of the above
e. none of the above
Answer:
d. all of the above
Explanation:
The main function of the cerebellum is to integrate the sensory and motor pathways. The cerebellum is connected by a large number of nerve bundles with other structures of the brain and spinal cord to integrate the information it receives, specify and control the orders that the cerebral cortex sends to the musculoskeletal system. It is also the regulator of physiological tremor.
To achieve proper posture, the cerebellum must inhibit inappropriate muscle groups, disinhibit appropriate muscle groups, respond to changes in head tilt, or posture and muscular disposition.
Where do prions come from?
A. There are prion-like particles in the brain normally, and when these become abnormal they can cause disease.
B. Mosquitoes.
C. They are clumps which form from normal prion-like particles in the blood that travel to the brain.
D. They are introduced by infectious protozoa.
E. Contaminated water.
Answer:
There are prion-like particles in the brain normally, and when these become abnormal they can cause disease. (Ans. A)
Explanation:
Prions are proteins which can trigger normal proteins to fold abnormally, and they are present in the brain. They are causing many types of neurodegenerative diseases in both humans and animals. Which are known as transmissible spongiform encephalopathies.
Prions can enter the brain with the help of infection, also can arise from the gene mutation that encodes the proteins, and sometimes this affects humans by infected meat.
If a person infected from prion disease, it affects central nervous system tissues like brain, eye tissues and spinal cord.
Koch's postulates are the established rules for determining that a specific pathogen causes a specific disease.
a. True
b. False
Answer: a. True
Explanation: These postulates were formulated by Robert Koch as a result of his experiments with healthy and infected mice. The postulates are often used to determine if a phatogen causes a disease. These are:
The pathogen must be present in sick individuals but not in healthy ones. The pathogen must be isolated from individuals and cultivated in a pure culture.The pathogen cultivated must cause sickness when it's injected in suceptible inviduals.The pathogen must be isolated from the injected individuals and must be exactly as the first one.
Which of the following characteristics of plants is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae?
a. chlorophyll b
b. cellulose in cell walls
c. sexual reproduction
d. alternation of multicellular generations
Answer: d. alternation of multicellular generations
Explanation:
The gametophytic as well as the sporophytic generations are alternative in the life cycle of the multicellular plants. This can be seen among the land plants. This feature cannot be seen in the algal species as they are unicellular in nature. Thus cannot be seen in the relatives of charophyta algae.
Alternation of multicellular generations is the characteristic of plants that is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae.
Vascular plants have a haplodiplont biological cycle with antithetical alternation of generations, this means that there are only two generations that develop in different nuclear phases:
A sporophytic generation in the diplophase responsible for producing spores (n) by meiosis.A gametophytic generation in the haplophase culminating in the production of gametes (n).This cycle differs from the haplonte cycles where the generation or generations develop in the haplofase or from the diplontes when the generation or generations develop in the diplophase; these types of cycles occur in more primitive plants.
When more than one generation alternate within the same phase, it is called homogenesis, as opposed to antigensis (mentioned for higher plants) where there is only one generation in each phase.
However, among charophyte algae there is only isomorphic alternation in ulvophyceae; the rest, including caroficeas, have a haplonte cycle in which the zygote undergoes meiosis.
Therefore, we can conclude that alternation of multicellular generations is the characteristic of plants that is absent in their closest relatives, the charophyte algae.
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Alzheimer's disease is characterized by __________
a. mental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes
b. extreme mood swings
c. loss of energy and suicidal thoughts
d. increased energy and extreme talkativeness
Answer:
a. mental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes
Explanation:
This disease is common in the elderly, and is a common form of dementia. It affects the parts of the brain that control thinking, memory and language. People may have difficulty remembering things that happened recently.
People may not recognize their family members. They may have difficulty speaking, reading or writing.
Archaea have cell walls made of peptidoglycan.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
False.
Explanation:
Three domains of life are bacteria, eukarya and archaea. The prokaryotic organisms are involved in the bacteria and archaea. Eukaryotic organisms are included in the domain eukarya.
The archaea are more similar to eukarya than bacteria. The cell walls of the archaea are made of glycerol-ether lipids. The phospholipids of archaea are built on a backbone of sn-glycerol-1-phosphate. Archaea lacks the peptidoglycan layer in its cell wall.
Thus, the answer is false.
The Great American Biotic Interchange helped establish the fauna that exist in both North and South America today. Which of the following occurred during this event?
a. The first humans dispersed from North to South America
b. Many species that moved from North to South Amenica were very successful and stif exist today
c .Only small mammals moved from South America to North America
d. Many species that moved into North Amenca from South America outcompeted the endemic taxa and still exist today
e. All of the above occurred during the Great American Biotic interchange
Answer:
The correct answer is option d. "Many species that moved into North America from South America outcompeted the endemic taxa and still exist today".
Explanation:
The Great American Biotic Interchange (GABI) was an historical period at which numerous species from South America migrated to North America, and numerous species from North America migrated to South America because of the formation of the Isthmus of Panama. During this event, many species that moved into North America from South America outcompeted the endemic taxa and still exist today. The species that successfully immigrated to South America and exist today were mostly small mammals, such as armadillos and opossums.
50 years ago, pregnant women who were prescribed thalidomide for morning sickness gave birth to children with birth defects. Thalidomide is a mixture of two enantiomers; one reduces morning sickness, but the other causes severe birth defects. Today, the FDA has approved this drug for non-pregnant individuals with Hansen’s disease (leprosy) or newly diagnosed multiple myeloma, a blood and bone marrow cancer. The beneficial enantiomer can be synthesized and given to patients, but over time, both the beneficial and the harmful enantiomer can be detected in the body. Propose a possible explanation for the presence of the harmful enantiomer.
Answer:
I would suggest this as the best reason behind the detection of the harmful enantiomer in the body after the prescription of the beneficial one is that the human liver contains an enzyme that can convert the "good" R-enantiomer into the "bad" S-enantiomer.
Explanation:
Thalidomide (C13H10N2O4) is one of the most controversial drugs that exist nowadays due to the unfortunate error of prescribing this drug to pregnant women because its harmful effects were unknown at that time.
This drug possesses two enantiomers (optical isomers with mirror-image structures). Thalomide has a racemic mixture of both enantiomers, that is, an equal ratio of both 1:1. The R-enantiomer is a highly effective sedative with sleeping effects; whereas the S-enantiomer is teratogenic, i.e. it causes birth deffects by inhibiting the growth of new blood vessels.
After this disaster, researchers decided to prescribe this drug to patients with leprosy, cancer, and other diseases but, of course, not to pregnant women because as it turns out, the "good" enantiomer is also a great drug to treat them.
While they suggested the best way to prevent the presence of the "bad" enantiomer was to separate them into different drugs, they discovered that the human liver contains an enzyme that can convert the "good" R-enantiomer into the "bad" S-enantiomer.
Although there are still many research studies done because its mechanism is still not understood completely, I would suggest this as the best reason behind the detection of the harmful enantiomer in the body after the prescription of the beneficial one.
Thalidomide, with two enantiomeric forms, has both beneficial and harmful effects. Over time, even if only the beneficial enantiomer is given, both enantiomers will be present in the body due to 'racemization'. This is where the body's environment can convert some of the useful enantiomer into the harmful one.
Explanation:Thalidomide, a drug containing two enantiomeric forms, has both beneficial and harmful effects. This is a characteristic seen in many drugs, where one isomer can have the desired pharmacological effect, and the other isomer can cause detrimental side effects. In the specific case of thalidomide, one enantiomer helps reduce morning sickness, while the other is a teratogen, capable of causing birth defects.
Over time, even if only the beneficial enantiomer is synthesized and administered to patients, both the harmful and beneficial enantiomers can be found in the body. This could be due to 'racemization' - a process where one enantiomer changes into the other. Studies have shown that in the body's environment, under physiological conditions, thalidomide can undergo racemization.
Racemization can be thought of as an equilibrium where, over time and under specific conditions, both enantiomer forms can be present. Essentially, the body's environment can convert some of the beneficial enantiomer into the harmful one, causing the secondary adverse effects. Despite only the beneficial form being given, the body's natural biochemistry facilitates the presence of both.
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Which of the following does not occur during the Calvin cycle?
a. carbon fixation
b. oxidation of NADPH
c. release of oxygen
d. regeneration of the CO2 acceptor
Answer:
Release of oxygen. (Ans. C)
Explanation:
Calvin cycle is the set of chemical reaction which it takes place in chloroplast during photosynthesis. It is a light-independent cycle ( where carbon fixation occurs) because it takes place after the energy has been taken from sunlight. These are the steps includes in this cycle:
1) Calvin cycle adds carbon from CO2 present in the atmosphere to a 5 carbon molecule, known as ribulose bisphosphate catches 1 molecule of carbon dioxide and form a 6 carbon molecule.
2) The enzyme RuBisCo breaks the 6 carbon molecule into two equal parts with the energy of ATP and NADPH (oxidation of NADPH) molecules.
3) One trio of carbon molecule leave and become sugar and another trio of carbon molecule move to the next steps.
4) The 3 carbon molecule changing into a 5 carbon molecule, using ATP and NADPH (oxidation of NADPH), and the cycle starts over again.
The Calvin cycle is responsible for carbon fixation and the production of glucose during photosynthesis. It involves several reactions, but the release of oxygen does not occur during the Calvin cycle.
c is correct
Explanation:The Calvin cycle is a series of chemical reactions that occur in the stroma of chloroplasts during photosynthesis. It is responsible for converting carbon dioxide into glucose, a process called carbon fixation. In the Calvin cycle, several reactions take place, including the oxidation of NADPH, the regeneration of the CO2 acceptor, and the synthesis of carbohydrate molecules from G3P using ATP and NADPH.
Out of the given options, the one that does not occur during the Calvin cycle is c. release of oxygen. In photosynthesis, the release of oxygen occurs during the light-dependent reactions, specifically in photosystem II.
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The correct sequence,
from the mostinclusive to the least inclusive, of the taxonomic
levels listedhere is
family, phylum,class, kingdom, order, species, and
genus.
kingdom, phylum,class, order, family, genus, and
species.
kingdom, phylum,order, class, family, genus, and
species.
phylum, kingdom,order, class, species, family, and
genus.
Answer:
Option (2).
Explanation:
The classification of the animals are done on the basis of similarity and differences among the individuals. The system of classification was first explained by Linnaean classification.
The most inclusive of the taxonomy level is kingdom that includes in the plants and animals in the separate kingdom. From the kingdom they are further classified into phylum then into the class, family and order. After the order the organisms are further classified into genus and the species is the least inclusive level of taxonomy.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
Answer:
The correct order of taxonomic categories, from most specific to broadest, is: species, genus, family, order, class, phylum and kingdom.
Explanation:
In the term trace element, the adjective trace means that
a. the elemental is required in very small amount.
b. the element can be used as a label to trace atoms through an organism's metabolism.
c. the elemnt is very rare oon Earth.
d. the element enhances health but is not essential for the organism's long-term survival.
Answer:
The elemental is required in very small amount. (Ans. A)
Explanation:
Trace element is also known as micro-nutrient. It is also defined as any chemical element required by living organisms in a minute or small amounts which is usually part of the vital enzyme (cells produced by catalytic protein).
Exact needs of trace elements vary among species, like commonly required plant trace elements are cooper, zinc, manganese, boron, and molybdenum. Animals commonly required iodine, manganese, and cobalt.
Absence of necessary plant trace elements required by plants in the soil causes deficiency disease, lack of animal trace elements used by animals in the soil may not harm plants, but, animals feeding on those plants develop their deficiency disease.
So, the adjective trace means that the elemental is required in a very small amount.
The correct answer is a) the element is required in very small amounts.
In the term "trace element," the adjective "trace" indicates that the element is needed or required by an organism in only very small or trace amounts. Trace elements are essential nutrients that are necessary for proper functioning and health but are needed in much smaller quantities compared to major or macro elements like carbon, oxygen, nitrogen, and calcium.
These trace elements play important roles in various biological processes, such as enzyme function, cellular metabolism, and maintaining overall health. Despite being required in small amounts, they are crucial for the normal growth, development, and physiological functions of organisms.
Therefore, the correct option is a).
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Differentiate between primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary structures of proteins.
Answer:
Biologists describe the structure of protein at four levels: Primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary.
Explanation:
1. Primary structure: It is the sequence of amino acids in the polypeptide chain. It only gives us the positional information of amino acids within a protein like which one is first, which one is second and so on. We can see only peptide bonds in primary structure.
Also the first amino acid is known as N-terminal and the last as C-terminal.
2. Secondary structure: The protein thread folds either in the form of helix or beta pleated sheet to form the secondary structure.
In alpha helix, there is hydrogen bonding between every fourth amino acid. Example keratin protein of hair.
In beta pleated sheets, two or more polypeptide strands are held together by intermolecular hydrogen bonding.
3. Tertiary structure: The long polypeptide chain usually folds upon itself like a hollow wollen ball. This is termed as tertiary structure. Involves several linkages like hydrogen bond, hydrophobic bond, ionic bond, covalent bond, van der walls forces. Active sites are formed and protein gains functionality. Example: myoglobin
4. Quaternary structure: Quaternary structure is formed when there are more than one polypeptide chains. For example: hemoglobin has four helical polypeptide chains.
Proteins have four levels of structure essential to function: primary (amino acid sequence), secondary (local folding into α-helices or β-pleated sheets), tertiary (three-dimensional folding of the entire peptide chain), and quaternary (arrangement of multiple subunits).
Explanation:Differences Between Protein Structure LevelsThe structure of protein is essential for its function and is organized into four distinct levels: primary, secondary, tertiary, and quaternary. The primary structure of a protein consists of its unique sequence of amino acids. As for the secondary structure, it is characterized by local folding into patterns such as α-helices and β-pleated sheets. The tertiary structure represents the further three-dimensional folding of the entire peptide chain, resulting in a complex globular shape. When a protein consists of more than one polypeptide chain, they associate to form the quaternary structure, which is the arrangement of these multiple subunits.
Each level of protein structure is critical to the protein's ultimate function. Disruption of these structures, such as through denaturation, can result in loss of function. The structure is maintained by various interactions including hydrogen bonding, ionic bonds, disulfide linkages, and dispersion forces.
Explain Mendel's law of segregation and how it predicts the 3:1 dominant-to-recessive phenotypic ratio among the F2 generation of a monohybrid cross.
Answer:
Mendel is known as the father of genetics. He explained the law of segregation by the monohybrid cross. The monohybrid cross involves the cross of a single trait at a time.
Law of segregation explains that at the time of formation of gametes, the allele pairs get separated from the pairs of trait. The concept of dominance was also explained. The traits that express itself even in the heterozygous condition is known as dominant trait (T). The trait that can not express itself is known as recessive trait (t).
For example:
Parents TT × tt. (Laws of segregation)
Gamete T t
F1 generation Tt.
Selfing of F1 generation
Tt × Tt
Offspring : TT (tall) , Tt (tall) , Tt (tall) , tt (dwarf).
The phenotypic ratio is tall : dwarf (3 : 1)
Final answer:
Mendel's law of segregation states that alleles for each gene segregate during the production of gametes, resulting in a 3:1 phenotypic ratio for dominant to recessive traits in a monohybrid cross of the F2 generation. This separation is due to the process of meiosis, where homologous chromosomes segregate into daughter cells.
Explanation:
Mendel's Law of Segregation
Gregor Mendel's law of segregation is a fundamental principle of genetics that explains how alleles (the different versions of a gene) are separated into individual gametes (the reproductive cells) during the process of meiosis. According to this law, an individual with two alleles for each trait (one from each parent) will separate these alleles so that each gamete receives only one allele. This segregation results in the equal likelihood of offspring inheriting either allele from the parents.
Monohybrid Cross and the Predicted 3:1 Ratio
When conducting a monohybrid cross, which is a genetic cross involving a single trait with two alleles, three potential genotypes could result in the F2 generation: homozygous dominant, heterozygous, and homozygous recessive. The presence of dominant alleles results in the dominance of a specific trait, and because homozygous dominant and heterozygous genotypes express the dominant phenotype, this leads to a phenotypic ratio of 3:1 for dominant to recessive traits in the F2 generation. This phenotypic ratio is supported by the Punnett square, a predictive tool used to determine the genotypes and phenotypes of offspring.
The physical basis of this law lies in the first division of meiosis, where homologous chromosomes and their gene alleles are separated into two daughter nuclei. This fundamental genetic mechanism was not understood during Mendel's time but is now considered the cornerstone of how traits are inherited.
Why does sodium react so easily with chloride to make sodium chloride?
A. Both atoms have incomplete outer orbitals and they complete each other's when they combine
B. Sodium chloride is table salt, one of the most reactive molecules in living things.
C. Opposites attract.
D. Both atoms have outermost shells full of electrons.
E. Sodium chloride is highly explosive.