Answer:
the answer is B rectus abdominis!!! i hope this helps
Explanation:
The rectus abdominis is not an appendicular muscle; it is an axial muscle located in the anterior wall of the abdomen. Hence, the correct option is B.
The appendicular muscles are those that are associated with the appendicular skeleton, which includes the bones of the shoulder, arm, pelvis, and leg. The serratus anterior, deltoid, rhomboid major and latissimus dorsi are all muscles connected to the upper extremity of the appendicular skeleton. In contrast, the rectus abdominis is part of the muscles of the trunk and is specifically classified as an axial muscle since it is located in the anterior wall of the abdomen, not associated with the appendicular skeleton.
Continuing in analyzing myprotein and otherprotein, you then decide to run a gel to observe the presence of otherprotein and myprotein Which gel would you run?
a. 2D gel so that we can identify these protein specifically
b. PAGE because it allows for native confirmation so you can observe if these two proteins interact
c. SDS PAGE because it can separate based on size
d. SDS PAGE, Western Blot to find the presence of the both proteins within the protein sample
Answer:
SDC page because it can separate based on size
discuss how an individual who wants to maintain weight, lose weight, or gain weight needs to adjust his/her nutrition and exercise program.
Answer:
At the gym work out gaining weight needs to adjust balanced.
Healthy nutrition, exercise, sufficient sleep, and stress management are all necessary for achieving and maintaining a healthy weight. Other elements could also influence weight gain. Numerous healthful foods are part of a healthy diet.
What is nutrition and exercise program?A nutritious diet supports normal growth, development, and aging, helps people maintain a healthy body weight, and lowers their chance of developing chronic diseases, all of which contribute to overall health and wellbeing.
Physical fitness refers to a person's overall health and well-being as well as their capacity for participating in certain sports, jobs, and daily activities.
In general, healthy eating, moderate to strenuous exercise, physical activity, and adequate rest are required to develop physical fitness.
Therefore, an individual who wants to maintain weight, lose weight, or gain weight needs to adjust his/her nutrition and exercise program.
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Which receptors are responsible for touch, pressure, hearing, and equilibrium?
Select one:
a. photoreceptors
b. thermoreceptors
c. chemoreceptors
d. mechanoreceptors
Answer:
Mechanoreceptors
Explanation:
Mechanoreceptor is a type of sensory receptor that responds against the mechanical pressure. These receptors are present on the hair, skin and tactile corpuscles.
Mechanoreceptors may responds against the change in pressure, detects different sounds (hearing), touch and can sense the equillibrium. These receptors transfer the mechanical information into electrical signals. Mechanoreceptors contain sensory neurons that can respond towards the external stimuli.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Answer:
mechanoreceptors
Explanation:
mechanoreceptors are responsible for touch, pressure, hearing, and equilibrium.
You are a graduate student at the University of Iowa and working as a teaching assistant for a freshman introductory biology course. Two of your students have come to you with a ques- tion about the sequence of an mRNA transcribed from a gene. The original DNA sequence from which the mRNA was transcribed reads: TGACGATCGTA. The students were asked to provide the sequence of bases in the mRNA and came up with the following mRNA sequence: ACTGCTAGCAT. They are confused because their answer does not match the answer in the book. Briefly explain the very common mistake they made and what the correct sequence is.
Answer: The corret DNA sequence is ACUGCUAGCAU.
Explanation: The common mistake that they make is, they forget to replace thymine with uracil as a base pair of Adenine. During DNA transcription Thymine is replaced by Uracil in production of messenger RNA. Uracil is a de-mythylated form of thymine and requires less energy to produce.
The students made an error in understanding the base-pairing rules during transcription. The correct mRNA sequence from the DNA sequence TGACGATCGTA should be ACUGCUAGCAU. Before the mRNA can be used for protein synthesis in translation, it needs to undergo additional processes like capping, tailing and splicing.
Explanation:The common mistake made by the students in determining the mRNA sequence from the given DNA sequence is not understanding the base pairing rules of transcription. During transcription, Adenine (A) pairs with Uracil (U), Thymine (T) pairs with Adenine (A), Cytosine (C) pairs with Guanine (G) and Guanine (G) pairs with Cytosine (C). Therefore, the correct mRNA sequence that is transcribed from the given DNA sequence (TGACGATCGTA) would be ACUGCUAGCAU, not ACTGCTAGCAT. However, remember that in reality, this process requires more steps (such as addition of cap and tail, splicing) before the mRNA is fully mature and ready for translation (the process where mRNA is used to make a protein).
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The output region is the site of ______________________.
a. protein synthesis
b. ligand gated channels
c. voltage gated Na+ channels
d. neurotransmitter release
Answer:
The correct answer is option C (voltage gated Na+ channels).
Explanation:
Output region or axon terminal is the structure of neuron which transmits the signals to other nerve cells.
The signal is transferred via action potential generated by the dendrite cell which moves along the axon and reaches the synaptic junction.
At the synaptic junction, voltage-gated channel (Na+) channels located in the membrane of the axon terminal cell opens due to the changes in the electric membrane potential which play important role in returning the depolarized cell to a resting state.
Thus, option C (voltage-gated Na+ channels) is the correct answer.
The output region of neuron is where neurotransmitters are released, following the arrival of an action potential which opens voltage-gated calcium channels at the axon terminal, leading to neurotransmitter release into the synaptic cleft. The correct answer is d. neurotransmitter release.
In the context of neuron signaling, the output region of a neuron is the terminal end of the axon where synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters are located. When an action potential arrives at the axon terminal, it triggers the opening of voltage-gated calcium channels.
The subsequent influx of calcium ions causes the synaptic vesicles to fuse with the membrane and release their neurotransmitters into the synaptic cleft. These neurotransmitters can then bind to receptors on the post-synaptic neuron, potentially initiating a new action potential in that neuron. This process is essential for the communication between neurons.
Name the 4 main classes of ATP-powered pumps.
Answer: P-class pumps, V-class proton pumps, F-class proton pumps, and ABC superfamily.
Explanation:
The P-class pump can be found at the Plasma membrane of all eukaryotic cells (Ca2+ pump), and Sarcoplasmic reticulum membrane in muscle cells. All P-class ion pumps possess 2 identical catalytic subunits that contain an ATP-binding site. V-class proton pumps can be found at endosomal and lysosomal membranes in animal cells, in the plasma membrane of osteoclasts and some kidney tubule cells. F-class proton pumps can be found at the inner mitochondrial membrane and bacterial plasma membrane. ABC superfamily can be found in bacterial plasma membranes (amino acid, sugar, and peptide transporters), and mammalian plasma membranes.
The amount of blood flow to the myocardium is termed as ____
Answer:
The S-A node which is also known as the coronary artery disease
Explanation:
Final answer:
The amount of blood flow to the myocardium is termed as cardiac output. Cardiac output is the measurement of blood flow from the heart through the ventricles and is determined by the heart rate and stroke volume. Factors that increase cardiac output promote blood flow.
Explanation:
The amount of blood flow to the myocardium is termed as cardiac output.
Cardiac output is the measurement of blood flow from the heart through the ventricles and is usually measured in liters per minute. It is determined by the heart rate and stroke volume. Any factor that increases cardiac output, such as sympathetic stimulation or increased calcium ion levels, will promote blood flow.
Why is reducing caloric intake insufficient for a person to loose weight in a healthy way?
Answer:
The amount of calories intake on daily basis depend upon the the age and sex of the person, more younger and active person can consume more calories.
To loose weight by consuming low calorie diet can could reverse the whole dieting scene. Shortage of calorie intake could result in body storing fats, as a fear of starvation. It could also result in diet distress, just the metabolism becomes slow and body do not loose any weight, and frustration could lead you to over-eat. On the other hand, long term use of such low calories diet could result in fatigue, constipation, diarrhea etc. Gallstones are mostly observed in people using low calories diet.
This is because weight gain and weight loss are governed by many factors and mechanisms that are a balance between energy intake and expenditure. Even after reducing calorie intake weight may not be lost effectively if the metabolic rate of the body is lowered. Metabolic rate can be increased by exercising to burn excess calories.
A fruit fly that is true breeding for gray body, vestigial wings (b+ b+ vg vg) is mated with one thiat is true-breeding for black bodym normal (b b vg+ vg+). Draw the chromosomes.
Answer:
Diagram of the chromosome is attached below.
Explanation:
A fruit fly has gray body and vestigial wings is crossed with a fly with black body and normal wings. These chromosomes represent the pair of homologous chromosomes. These genes are linked gene and present on the same chromosome.
The cross shown below shows the parental generation of the fruit fly.
The question delves into the inheritance of traits in true-breeding fruit flies. Using the grey body and vestigial wings genes as dominant, and the black body and normal wings genes as recessive, the F1 genotype after the mating would have both dominant and recessive traits - grey body and normal wings.
Explanation:The fruit fly question revolves around understanding genetic inheritance, specifically exploring Punnett squares and genetic dominance. The scenario provided suggests a cross between two true-breeding fruit flies, one with a grey body and vestigial wings (b+ b+ vg vg), and one with a black body and normal wings (b b vg+ vg+). Because they are true-breeding, we can infer they are homozygous, i.e., have two identical alleles for the traits.
Step 1: First off, b+ designates the gray gene and b designates the black gene, with gray being dominant over black. Similarly, vg+ is the normal wing gene and vg is the vestigial wing gene, with normal wings being dominant over vestigial wings.
Step 2: Next, we set up the allelic pairs for the genes on either homologous chromosome. The first fruit fly would have [b+ vg] and [b+ vg] on its pair of homologous chromosomes, and the second fruit fly would have [b vg+] and [b vg+] on its chromosomes.
Step 3: When these flies mate, the F1 generation would have one chromosome from each parent, hence their genetic makeup would have a combination of these alleles. Consequently, the F1 genotype would be [b+ vg] and [b vg+].
All of these steps are based on Mendelian genetics, which study how traits are passed from parents to offspring. Dominant traits are expressed when at least one dominant allele is present, while recessive traits are only expressed when both alleles are recessive.
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Which one of the following diseases is caused by a virus?
A. Hepatitis B
B. Tuberculosis
C. Tetanus
D. Strep throat
Answer:
A. Hepatitis B
Explanation:
Hepatitis B is a disease caused by a virus.
Hepatitis B is passed from person to person from bodily fluids.
Tuberculosis, Tetanus, and Strep throat is caused by bacteria.
What is Portal System?
a. It is where an organ has a lot of capillaries for better circulation.
b. It is where an organ is supplied with two interconnecting arteries.
c. It is where an artery supplies blood to an organ and immediately returns to the heart.
d. It is where an artery breaks into two sets of capillaries before returning to the heart.
e. It is where two or more branches of an artery supply blood to different organs.
Answer:
d. It is where an artery breaks into two sets of capillaries before returning to the heart.
Explanation:
A Portal System is where an artery breaks into two sets of capillaries before returning to the heart.
Explain a graded potential.
Explanation:
Neurons communicate by changes in electrical properties of the plasma membrane that move from one cell to another. The architecture of the neuron aids the spread of these electrical signals called nerve impulses. A potential difference exists across every cell’s plasma membrane. The side of the membrane exposed to the cytoplasm is the negative pole, and the side exposed to the extracellular fluid is the positive pole. This potential difference is called the membrane potential.
If the plasma membrane is depolarized (moved toward a polarity above that of the resting potential) slightly, an oscilloscope will show a small upward deflection of the line that soon decays back to the resting membrane potential. These small changes in membrane potential are called graded potentials because their amplitudes depend on the strength of the stimulus. Graded potentials can be either depolarizing or hyperpolarizing and can add together to amplify or reduce their effects. The ability of graded potentials to combine is called summation. The level of depolarization needed to produce an action potential is called the threshold.
Describe the common tissues found in the organs of the intestinal tract. (4 points) Describe the common tissues and structures found in accessory organs. (4 points) Describe these structures and their function in the pancreas: (6 points) Acinar cells that secrete enzymes or bicarbonate _____ Islet cells that secrete insulin or glucagon ____ Blood vessel ______ Describe these structures and their function in the small intestine: (6 points) Villi _____ Smooth muscle ______ Intestinal glands _______
Answer:
1)
Tissues in the intestinal tract made up of loose connective tissues
Mucosa: It playa a role in the secretion of lubricants that lubricate and protect the intestinal wall from digestive enzymes.
Submucosa: It contains nerves, blood vessels and elastic fibers with collagen. It maintains the shape of the intestine by stretching.
Serosa: During digestive movements, it secretes lubricating fluid and prevents from frictional damages.
2)
Accessory digestive organs have common specialized cells, ducts, and secrete digestive hormones to help in digestion.
3)
Acinar cells that secrete and transport enzymes or bicarbonate into the duodenum for the digestion of the food.
Islet cells that secrete insulin or glucagon that increase the glucose level in the blood.
Blood vessels provide oxygen and nutrients for tissue growth and maintenance.
4)
Villi help to absorb digested food.
Smooth muscle moves food through the digestive tract.
Intestinal glands help in digestion and absorption by releasing hormones.
Acinar cells are basic units of the exocrine pancreas, islets are clusters of cells, and blood vessels maintain pancreatic islets. Villi are projections of the small glandular intestine, whose contraction is due to smooth muscle.
The acinar cells represent the functional basic units of the exocrine pancreas. These cells (acinar cells) secrete digestive enzymes called zymogens, which activate when they reach the duodenum.Islets cells are groups of cells within the pancreas that perform specific functions.For example, islets of beta cells, are pancreatic islets involved in the production of insulin, a hormone required to control the level of glucose in the blood.These pancreatic islets are vascularized by many blood vessels, which are adapted in order to favor normal endocrine function.Intestinal microvilli are finger-like projections of the intestinal surface cells, which are capable of increasing the internal surface area, thereby increasing absorption.The smooth muscle tissue found in intestinal walls is responsible for the rhythmic involuntary contractions of the intestine.Intestinal glands are tubular glands localized in the small intestine between the villi, which are capable of secreting digestive enzymes and mucus.There are two classes of intestinal glands: crypts of Lieberkuhn and Brunner's glands.In conclusion, acinar cells are units of the exocrine pancreas, islets are clusters of cells, and blood vessels maintain pancreatic islets. Villi are projections of the small glandular intestine, whose contraction is due to smooth muscle.
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In a certain group of African people, 4% are born with sickle-cell disease (homozygous recessive). In this case, only homozygous recessive individuals have sickle-cell disease. Heterozygous individuals not only don't have sickle-cell disease, they are resistant to malaria. If this group is in Hardy-Weinberg equilibrium, what percentage of the population is heterozygous and resistant to malaria?
Final answer:
To determine the percentage of people heterozygous for sickle-cell allele and resistant to malaria, we use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. With 4% being homozygous recessive, we found out that p = 0.8 and q = 0.2 and calculated the heterozygous population (2pq) being 32%.
Explanation:
To calculate the percentage of the population that is heterozygous for the sickle-cell allele and resistant to malaria, we can use the Hardy-Weinberg principle. This principle states that the frequency of the homozygous recessive genotype (ss) is equal to q2. Given that 4% of the population is homozygous recessive (ss) for sickle-cell disease, we can say that q2 = 0.04, which means q = sqrt(0.04) or q = 0.2. The frequency of the dominant allele (S) is represented as p, and since p + q = 1, we can find p by subtracting q from 1: p = 1 - 0.2 = 0.8.
The frequency of the heterozygous genotype (Ss), which provides resistance to malaria, is 2pq. Therefore, the percentage of the population that is heterozygous and malaria-resistant is 2 * 0.8 * 0.2 = 0.32 or 32%.
What does a hydrogen atom need to be in for hydrogen bonding to occur?
Answer:
Hydrogen Bonding. A hydrogen bond is a weak type of force that forms a special type of dipole-dipole attraction which occurs when a hydrogen atom bonded to a strongly electronegative atom exists in the vicinity of another electronegative atom with a lone pair of electrons
Explanation:
Answer: D. How can the proteins be used to increase the amount of oil produced by a plant?
Explanation:
During inhalation, which changes first in the throacic caviaty, the pressure or the volume? Explain.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: During inhalation, which changes first in the thoracic cavity, the pressure or the volume, is, the volume.
Explanation:
The process of breathing, that is the cylces of inhalation and inspiration, are completely dependent on pressure gradients both on the atmosphere and inside the body, specifically the lungs and thoracic cavity. Before the breathing is initiated, both the atmospheric and alveolar pressures (alveoli are where the exchange of oxygen and carbon dioxide will take place), is equal. However, during the initiation of inspiration, the costal muscles and the diaphragm descend and open up the chest cavity, pulling with them the lungs. This causes an increase in volume capacity and a decrease of pressure within the alveoli. Since gases like oxygen tend to move from higher to lower pressure gradients, as the volume of the lungs increases, and pressure decreases, oxygen will flow from the atmosphere into the lungs. During expiration, as the lungs return to their normal state, volume diminishes, pressure increase, and the gases are thus expelled to normalize pressures again.
The average human body contains 6.10 L of blood with a Fe2+ concentration of 1.50×10−5 M . If a person ingests 12.0 mL of 14.0 mM NaCN, what percentage of iron(II) in the blood would be sequestered by the cyanide ion?
This Chemistry problem involves understanding reactions and stoichiometry. All Fe2+ ions in the blood would be sequestered by the ingested NaCN, leading to 100% sequestration of iron(II) ions by cyanide ions.
Explanation:This problem involves understanding the chemical reactions and stoichiometry. In this scenario, sodium cyanide (NaCN) reacts with Fe2+ in blood to form cyanoferrate(II) complex. Potentially, each CN- ion can bind to one Fe2+ ion, since the cyanide ion has a 1- charge and iron(II) ion has a 2+ charge.
Step 1: Convert everything into molesFirst, convert the volume of blood into liters: the average human body contains 6.1L of blood. Next, calculate the number of moles of Fe2+ ions using the molarity (M), which is moles/Liters:
1.5x10^-5 moles/L * 6.1L = 9.15x10^-5 moles
Do similar calculations for NaCN. Convert the volume ingested, 12.0 mL, to L: 12.0 mL * (1L/1000 mL) = 0.012L. Find the moles of CN- (since Na+ doesn't participate in the reaction):
0.014 moles/L * 0.012L = 1.68x10^-4 moles of CN-
Step 2: Determine how much Fe2+ can be sequesteredAs each CN- ion can bind to one Fe2+ ion, the limiting reactant is the one with fewer moles. Hence in this case, Fe2+ is the limiting reactant. All of it would be sequestered by cyanide ion.
Step 3: Calculate the percentageAs iron(II) is fully sequestered, the percentage sequestered is 100% in this case.
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Theoretically, 100% of the iron(II) in the blood could potentially be sequestered by the cyanide ion as there are more moles of cyanide ions ingested than moles of Fe2+ present in the body.
Explanation:To determine the amount of iron(II) that would be sequestered by cyanide ions, we should first calculate the total amount of Fe2+ present in blood and the total amount of cyanide ions ingested. The concentration of Fe2+ was given as 1.50×10-5 M and we assume an average blood volume of 6.10 L, so the total amount of Fe2+ in moles is (1.5*10-5) * 6.10 = 9.15 * 10-5 mol.
Similarly, the ingested cyanide (NaCN) has a concentration of 14.0 mM in 12.0 mL which is 12.0/1000 = 0.012 L of solution. So total CN- ion in moles is 14 * 10-3 * 0.012 = 1.68 * 10-4 mol.
Therefore, we can see more moles of CN- ions were ingested than there are moles of Fe2+ in the body. Consequently, all of the Fe2+ could theoretically react with the CN- ions indicating that 100% of the iron(II) in the blood could potentially be sequestered by the cyanide ion.
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33. What is the correct term used for the water entering a red blood cell due to being placed in a hypertonic solution and the cell subsequently bursts?
a. Hemolysis
b. Plasmolysis
c. Crenation
d. Diffusion
Answer: a. Hemolysis
Explanation:
Hemolysis can be defined as a rupture of the membranes of the red blood cells and the consequent release of hemoglobin. Hemolysis is the process in which the rupture of the red blood cells occurs and the consequent release in the environment, of hemoglobin and other substances. Hemolysis can occur in the human body or during the processing of blood. It is said that hemolysis is in vivo or in vitro when occurring in the body or outside the body, respectively.
In vivo hemolysis can cause serious health problems, such as hemolytic anemia, a disease characterized by the early destruction of red blood cells. Jaundice and splenomegaly are signs of this pathology, which may be hereditary or acquired. In cases of severe hemolysis, blood transfusions may be required.
The male panda bear has 25 chromosomes in each sperm cell. How many chromosomes would be in the fertilized panda zygote?
Answer:
50 chromosomes
Explanation:
The disease cystic fibrosis (CF) is caused by a mutation to the CFTR gene which affects the respiratory, endocrine, reproductive, and digestive systems. The most common cystic fibrosis allele is missing three bases compared to the normal allele, resulting in the loss of one amino acid in the CFTR protein. What kind of mutation caused the cystic fibrosis allele?
Answer: DF508 mutation. A Genetic, Hereditary, Autosomal and Recessive Mutation.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis (CF) is a recessive autosomal lethal disease, it is most common on Caucasoid populations. Its diagnosis is suggested by the clinical features of chronic obstructive pulmonary disease, persistent pulmonary colonization (particularly with mucoid Pseudomonas strains), meconium ileus, pancreatic insufficiency with or familiarity history of the disease. The FC gene is large, with about 250 Kb of genomic DNA, 27 exons representing about 5% of genomic DNA; encodes a 6.5 kb transcribed mRNA. This mRNA is transcribed into a protein of 1480 amino acid called CFTR (Regulator Transmembrane Conductance Cystic Fibrosis). When a three-base pair deletion, adenosine-thymine-thymine (ATT) identified in the CFTR gene, exon 10, it results in the loss of a single amino acid phenylalanine at position 508 of the protein. This mutation is called DF508; “D” stands for deletion and “F” for phenylalanine amino acid.
Use the drop-down menus to complete each statement about Steven Businger's work with volcanoes in Hawaii.
Volcanoes release a hazy smoke called _____
Steven Businger helped develop a ____
that predicts how this smoke spreads.
To model the smoke conditions, scientists measure the amount of ____
gas a volcano is spewing.
1. Vog
The term vog comes from combining the words volcano and smog. The word itself is created to associate with pollution, as it is a natural pollution of the atmosphere. The vog represents the sulfur dioxide and the other gases and particles that the volcanoes release into the atmosphere when they erupt. These gases and particles further react with the moisture in the atmosphere and the oxygen while exposed to sunlight. This process causes a large natural pollution of the air in the area influenced by the volcanic activity.
2. Model
Steven Businger is a scientists that has devoted big portion of his career in examining the volcanoes and their activities. Most of his research has been on the Hawaii Islands and the volcanoes on them. With his vast experience and knowledge of the volcanic activities and their products, Businger managed to create a model that predicts how the smoke from the volcanoes spreads. This model has been very helpful as it can be used for warning the population on time, as well as using it for avoiding accidents, especially in the air traffic.
3. Sulfur dioxide
One of the gasses that is in largest quantities in the smoke produced by the volcanic eruptions is the sulfur dioxide. This gas is a natural polluter of the atmosphere, so once big amount of it is propelled into the atmosphere, it manages to have big effect over the area that is affected. It is a gas that is very harmful for the living organisms, thus for the human health as well. It is mostly damaging the respiratory system, managing to cause lot of damage that can easily be fatal if the amount of sulfur dioxide is high.
Answer:
1: Vog
2: computer model
3: sulfur dioxide
Explanation:
Just took the questions, Hope this helps :D
Suppose two parents, a father with the genotype AaBbCcDdee and a mother with the genotype aabbCcDDEe, wanted to have children. Assume each locus follows Mendelian inheritance patterns for dominance. What proportion of the off spring will have each of the following characteristics? Round your answers to two decimal places.
The fork line method is used to get genotypic and phenotypic proportions. In this case, 0.03 of the progeny have the father's genotype, 0.03 have the mother's genotype, 0.09 looks like the father, 0.09 looks like the mother, and 0.81 are different from both parents.
---------------------------------------------
Available data:
Five diallelic genes Mendelian inheritance patterns for dominancefather ⇒ AaBbCcDdeemother ⇒ aabbCcDDEeCross: Mother x Father
Parentals) aabbCcDDEe x AaBbCcDdee
To avoid making a Punnett square -which whould be very complex-, we will perform crosses separately for each gene, and then multiply their proportions. This is the fork line method, and is useful to get the proportions of the desired genotypes and phenotypes among the progeny.
Gene A:
Parentals) aa x Aa
Gametes) a a A a
F1) 1/2 = 50% Aa
1/2 = 50% aa
Gene B:
Parentals) bb x Bb
Gametes) b b B b
F1) 1/2 = 50% Bb
1/2 = 50% bb
Gene C:
Parentals) Cc x Cc
Gametes) C c C c
F1) 1/4 = 25% CC
1/2 = 50% Cc
1/4 = 25% cc
Gene D:
Parentals) DD x Dd
Gametes) D D D d
F1) 1/2 = 50% DD
1/2 = 50% Dd
Gene E:
Parentals) Ee x ee
Gametes) E e e e
F1) 1/2 = 50% Ee
1/2 = 50% ee
F1) Genotypes
a. Same genotype as the father ⇒ AaBbCcDdee
1/2 Aa x 1/2 Bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 Dd x 1/2 ee = 1/32 = 0.03 AaBbCcDdee
[tex]1/2 Aa x 1/2 Bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 Dd x 1/2 ee = 1/32 = 0.03 AaBbCcDdee[/tex]
b. same genotype as the mother ⇒ aabbCcDDEe
1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 DD x 1/2 Ee = 1/32 = 0.03 aabbCcDDEe
[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/2 Cc x 1/2 DD x 1/2 Ee = 1/32 = 0.03 aabbCcDDEe[/tex]
Phenotypes
c. phenotypically resemble the father ⇒ A-B-C-D-ee
1/2 A-x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 = 0.09 A-B-C-D-ee
[tex]1/2 A-x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 = 0.09 A-B-C-D-ee[/tex]
d. phenotypically resemble the mother ⇒ aabbC-D-E-
1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 D- = 3/32 = 0.09 aabbC-D-E-
[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 D- = 3/32 = 0.09 aabbC-D-E-[/tex]
e. phenotypically resemble neither parent 26/32 = 0.81
1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-B-C-D-E-[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-B-C-D-E-[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-B-ccD-E-[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-B-ccD-E-[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-B-ccD-ee[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-B-ccD-ee[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-bbC-D-E-[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 A-bbC-D-E-[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-bbccD-E-[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 A-bbccD-E-[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 A-bbC-D-ee[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 A-bbC-D-ee[/tex]
1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-bbccD-ee[tex]1/2 A- x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 A-bbccD-ee[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 aaB-C-D-E-[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 3/32 aaB-C-D-E-[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aaB-C-D-ee[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aaB-C-D-ee[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 aaB-ccD-E-[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- = 1/32 aaB-ccD-E-[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aaB-ccD-ee[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 B- x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aaB-ccD-ee[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- =1/32 aabbccD-E-[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 E- =1/32 aabbccD-E-[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aabbC-D-ee[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 3/4 C- x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 3/32 aabbC-D-ee[/tex]
1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aabbccD-ee[tex]1/2 aa x 1/2 bb x 1/4 cc x 1 D- x 1/2 ee = 1/32 aabbccD-ee[/tex]
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The following DNA fragment contains the sequence for the translation initiation codon usually used in genes: T A T A A G G C A T C A T A T T C C G T A G The template strand must be the:
The template strand must be the complementary DNA sequence: 3'-ATGCCTAACATTAAGT-5'
Explanation:The template strand must be the complementary DNA sequence: 3'-ATGCCTAACATTAAGT-5'
Which valves close when the cusps fill with blood
Answer: (SL) Semilunar Valves
Explanation:
The tricuspid and mitral valves close when the ventricles contract and their cusps fill with blood, preventing backflow into the atria.
When the ventricles begin to contract, the pressure inside them rises, causing blood to flow toward the area of lowest pressure, initially in the atria. This backflow of blood causes the cusps of the tricuspid and mitral (bicuspid) valves to close. These valves are tethered to papillary muscles by the chordae tendineae. As the ventricles contract, so do the papillary muscles, which creates tension on the chordae tendineae.
This tension prevents the cusps of the atrioventricular valves from being blown back into the atria. In contrast, when the ventricles relax, the pressure decreases, which can cause blood to fill the cusps of the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic valves) and close them, preventing backflow into the ventricles. This closing of semilunar valve cusps with blood produces an audible sound during the cardiac cycle.
How do volcanoes function as a disruptive force? Check all that apply.
force people to flee their homes
cause massive earthquakes
pollute the air with volcanic smoke
provide fertile soil for plant growth
make airplanes fly around ash clouds
Answer:
A,C,E
Explanation:
Force people to flee their homes
Pollute the air with volcanic smoke
Make airplanes fly around ash clouds
Volcanoes disrupt life by forcing evacuations, polluting the air with smoke, and changing flight routes around ash clouds. They do not directly cause massive earthquakes or contribute to soil fertility as disruptive forces.
Explanation:Volcanoes function as a disruptive force in several ways. They can force people to flee their homes due to the imminent danger posed by eruptions. During significant volcanic activity, the release of tons of gases and dust into the atmosphere can pollute the air with volcanic smoke, which includes water vapor, carbon dioxide, sulfur dioxide, and other gases. This can result in environmental impacts such as haze-effect cooling and climate change. Additionally, volcanic ash clouds can be so extensive that they make airplanes fly around ash clouds for safety reasons, due to the abrasive and engine-clogging properties of volcanic ash.
While volcanoes can also cause massive earthquakes and provide fertile soil for plant growth, these are not examples of disruptive forces. The fertile soil is a beneficial aspect, and while earthquakes are often associated with volcanic activity, they are not a direct function of the volcano itself, but rather a result of the tectonic plate activity beneath it.
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Explain the differences between the thalamus, hypothalamus, and epithalamus?
Answer:
The epithalamus, perithalamus, thalamus and hypothalamus have in common that they are all part of the brain region known as the diencephalon. This structure is extremely important as it will be responsible for the collection, interpretation, and relying of information from the midbrain and other systems towards the cerebral cortex, and other parts of the brain, and then will be responsible also for collecting the responses from the higher brain regions towards the appropriate places.
However, each of these structures is different and has a different purpose.
The eipthalamus, which would be the outermost structure of the diencephalon, is the first region where information is relayed by the midbrain and the lymbic system. This structure is responsible also for the secretion of melatoning, which controls the circadian rythm, present in its most important portion, the pineal gland. It also controls the secretion of certain hormones of the pituitary gland, but it is not its biggest role.
Then comes the thalamus. This structure is also really important as it is also a centre of collection of information, especially that relayed by the midbrain, towards the cortex. Without the thalamus, there would be no connection between the cerebral cortex, the midbrain, and other parts of the body. Another major role of the thalamus is to regulate all regarding the process of sleep, wakefulness and alertness in the body
Finally, we have the hypothalamus, and its importance its enormous. This small portion of the diencephalon is responsible for the whole process of homeostasis, which means, it regulates all the processes that will bring equilibrium to the body. It also works as a bridge between the nervous and endocrine systems, as the hypothalamus controls the secretion of hormonal messengers from the pituitary gland towards other glands.
These are only a few of the differences between these portions of the diencephalon, without mentioning the anatomical and physiological differences between them.
The thalamus acts as a relay between the cerebrum and the rest of the nervous system, while the hypothalamus regulates homeostasis and autonomic functions. The epithalamus contains the pineal gland and is involved in regulating sleep cycles and circadian rhythms.
Explanation:The thalamus is a relay between the cerebrum and the rest of the nervous system. It consists of several nuclei that can be categorized into three groups: anterior, medial, and lateral. The anterior nucleus relays information between the hypothalamus and the emotion and memory-producing limbic system. The medial nuclei relay information from the limbic system and basal ganglia to the cerebral cortex, facilitating memory creation and determining alertness. The lateral nuclei receive sensory information and relay it to the appropriate sensory cortex of the cerebrum.
The hypothalamus is involved in regulating homeostasis and is situated inferior and slightly anterior to the thalamus. It is responsible for controlling the autonomic nervous system and the endocrine system through its regulation of the anterior pituitary gland. Some parts of the hypothalamus also play a role in memory and emotion as part of the limbic system.
The epithalamus is one of the regions of the diencephalon, along with the thalamus and hypothalamus. It contains the pineal gland, which is involved in the regulation of sleep cycles and circadian rhythms. While the thalamus and hypothalamus primarily have relay and regulatory functions, the epithalamus is more specialized in its role related to sleep and circadian rhythms.
The parent cell that enters meiosis is diploid, whereas the four daughter cells that result are haploid. Which statement correctly describes how cellular DNA content and ploidy levels change during meiosis I and meiosis II? (Note: Ignore any effects of crossing over.)
Answer:
I snatched this from someone else, so it isn't mine, but I hope it helps. They don't have a username so I cannot credit them.
Explanation:
DNA content is halved in both meiosis I and meiosis II. Ploidy level changes from diploid to haploid in meiosis I, and remains haploid in meiosis II.
During anaphase of both meiosis I and meiosis II, the DNA content (number of copies of chromosomes) in a cell is halved. However, the ploidy level changes only when the number of unique chromosome sets in the cell changes. This occurs only in meiosis I (where separation of homologous chromosomes decreases the ploidy level from 2n to n and produces daughter cells with a single chromosome set).
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall in order to ____.
A) accommodate a greater volume of blood.
B) expand the thoracic cage during diastole
C) pump blood with greater pressure
D) pump blood through a smaller valve
Answer:
pump blood with greater pressure
Explanation:
this is because it pump blood with greater pressure
The left ventricular wall of the heart is thicker than the right wall because it has to pump blood with greater pressure to the entire body.
Explanation:The left ventricular wall of the heart is indeed thicker than the right wall. The reason for this is not to accommodate a greater volume of blood, expand the thoracic cage during diastole, or pump blood through a smaller valve. Instead, the left ventricular wall is thicker because it is responsible for pumping blood with greater pressure, option C. The left ventricle has to pump blood to the entire body, while the right ventricle only pumps blood to the lungs, requiring less pressure. Therefore, a thick muscular wall is needed on the left side to generate the necessary pressure.
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Through which duct can pancreatic juice be released into the small intestine without also releasing bile?
Answer:
The pancreatic duct
Explanation:
The pancreatic duct is formed when the many tiny tubes from exocrine part of the pancreas are joined together. The exocrine part of the pancreas consists of pancreatic acinar cells. These cells serve to secrete the digestive pancreatic juice rich in digestive enzymes.
The pancreatic juice is released into the pancreatic duct via tiny tubes. The pancreatic duct opens into the duodenum and releases the pancreatic juice into the duodenum of the small intestine.
The liver is important in carbohydrate metabolism as it processes the monosaccharides galactose and fructose into glucose. What happens to this glucose once it is done being processed in the liver?
Answer: The glucose extracted is stored in the liver as glycogen, which is made available to the body as needed. In this case, the liver cells function as a fuel reservoir.
Explanation:
Glycogen is the available reserve of glucose to supply tissues with a source of energy and is found mainly in the liver, this is considered a source of glucose that can be used throughout the body. The main area of daily glucose consumption is the brain, via the aerobic route. The biggest part of the remaining energy is used by red blood cells, skeletal and cardiac muscles. The body obtains glucose through diet or gluconeogenesis pathway. The glucose obtained from these two primary sources remain soluble in body fluids or are stored in a polymeric form called glycogen. Glycogen is considered the main form of glucose deposition and is found mainly in the liver and muscle.
Once processed in the liver, glucose either circulates in the body supplying energy, gets stored as glycogen for short-term energy reserves, or reformed into triglycerides and fatty acids for long-term storage. If needed, the liver can also produce glucose through the process of gluconeogenesis. These processes are all key parts of carbohydrate metabolism.
Explanation:After glucose has been processed in the liver, it has multiple fates depending on the body's needs. It can remain in the bloodstream, providing energy in the form of ATP through a process known as glycolysis. This process, occurring in body cells, involves a series of reactions that transfer the energy in glucose to ADP to form ATP, with the product being pyruvate.
If the body has more glucose than is immediately needed, this excess glucose can be stored in the liver as glycogen or be converted into triglycerides and fatty acids for long-term storage. Should the body need more glucose, such as during fasting, the liver is capable of gluconeogenesis, a process where it produces more glucose.
The role and fate of glucose in the body is part of the larger process of carbohydrate metabolism, where complex carbohydrates are broken down into simple sugars and ultimately used for energy production.
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