Answer:
C. Canyon
Explanation:
Canyons are valleys made by rivers eroding away land around them, creating large cracks in the ground.
g You are performing DNA sequencing reactions as part of your job as a employee at GeneTech, Inc. In your current project, you are attempting to sequence a 700 bp DNA fragment sent by a customer. After the reaction has begun, you realize that due to a decimal error, you accidentally added the fluorescently labeled di-deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (ddATP, ddGTP, ddCTP, ddTTP) at ten times higher than the desired concentration. What do you expect will be the consequence of this mistake?
Answer:
The consequence of this error will be the waste of material, since several nucleotides were placed in the reaction and will not be used.
Explanation:
There are several DNA sequencing protocols and although we don't know which one the GeneTech, Inc. employee is using, we can say that the fluorescence-labeled di-deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates will be used to make countless copies of the DNA particle that he wants to sequence.
As we know, DNA replication separates the DNA strands and uses each strand to make copies of new DNA molecules. These copies are made with the DNA polymerase enzyme by adding deoxyribonucleosides to the new tapes. As the enzyme is highly regulated and has a DNA strand as a template for the new strands, it will not add nucleotides beyond what is necessary.
Therefore, by placing excess di-deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates in the reaction, the consequence will be just the waste of product.
Like DNA, RNA has
bases.
RNA also contains four different bases. Three of these are the same as in DNA: adenine, guanine, and cytosine. RNA contains uracil (U) instead of thymine (T).
Final answer:
RNA, like DNA, consists of four nitrogenous bases, where thymine (T) in DNA is replaced by uracil (U) in RNA; adenine (A), cytosine (C), and guanine (G) are found in both.
Explanation:
Like DNA, RNA has nitrogenous bases that are essential for storing and transferring genetic information. DNA contains four bases: adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), and guanine (G). RNA also consists of four bases, but with a crucial difference: instead of thymine, it has uracil (U). The bases adenine, cytosine, and guanine are common to both DNA and RNA. In the structures of DNA and RNA, adenine pairs with thymine/uracil, and guanine always pairs with cytosine. This base pairing is essential for the replication of DNA and the synthesis of proteins, as RNA uses the information from DNA to assemble amino acids into proteins.
how is the geologic time scale divided?
Answer: Geologic time is divided into units. Major changes in the earth's surface or climate and the extinction of species help to divide the time scale into smaller units.
Explanation: Rocks grouped within each unit contain a similar fossil record.
Which animal is a great hunter? Why?
Answer:
the lion
Explanation:
the lion is a great hunter becuse it likes to hunt more then to kill
Answer:
Orcas.
Explanation:
Orcas are on of the deadliest predators in the world. They have no predators and hunted animals such as seal, dolphin, shark, and many more marine creatures.
Please help me :(((
What type of inheritance is shown by the genes that control sickle cell anemia?
Answer: The genes have a codominant pattern of inheritance because the heterozygous forms both traits equally.
Explanation:
Final answer:
The genes that control sickle cell anemia are inherited through autosomal recessive inheritance. Those with two mutated genes have sickle cell anemia (HbSS), while carriers (AS) are resistant to malaria.
Explanation:
Inheritance of Sickle Cell Anemia
The type of inheritance exhibited by the genes that control sickle cell anemia is autosomal recessive inheritance. This condition affects the hemoglobin in the blood, leading to red blood cells that take on a crescent or "sickle" shape. Individuals with two copies of the mutated hemoglobin gene (HbS), one inherited from each parent, will develop sickle cell anemia, with a genotype of HbSS. Conversely, an individual without sickle cell alleles has a genotype of HbAA, with two normal adult hemoglobin variants.
Carriers of the disease, known as heterozygotes with genotype AS, do not typically suffer from the full spectrum of symptoms but have increased resistance to malaria, which explains the prevalence of the sickle cell trait in malaria-endemic regions.
7. How are a white dwarf and a planetary nebula related?
Final answer:
A white dwarf is the core remnant of a star that has shed its outer layers to form a planetary nebula, and eventually cools into a white dwarf. There are more white dwarfs than planetary nebulae because nebulae are short-lived. In stellar evolution, white dwarfs can be involved in events like novas and Type Ia supernovae when in binary systems.
Explanation:
A white dwarf and a planetary nebula are related in the final stages of a star's life cycle. When a star of a certain size exhausts its nuclear fuel, it expands and sheds its outer layers, creating a planetary nebula. The core that remains eventually becomes a white dwarf, which is the dense remnant of the star's core. Over time, the planetary nebula disperses into space, leaving the white dwarf. This explains why there are more white dwarfs than planetary nebulas in the Galaxy since the planetary nebulas are ephemeral, while white dwarfs can exist for billions of years before cooling to become black dwarfs.
In the Orion Nebula, an active star-forming region, it would be unlikely to find white dwarfs because this nebula is relatively young, and stars within it have not yet evolved to that stage of their life cycle. Additionally, in binary star systems, a white dwarf can receive material from its companion star, potentially leading to novas or even Type Ia supernovae if certain conditions are met, such as exceeding the Chandrasekhar limit or the merger of two white dwarfs.
White dwarfs differ from neutron stars in that a white dwarf is supported against gravity by electron degeneracy pressure, whereas a neutron star is supported by neutron degeneracy pressure. Both are dense, collapsed stars, but neutron stars are the denser and smaller remnants of supernova explosions of more massive stars, while white dwarfs are the remnants of less massive stars.
Third-base wobble allows some tRNAs to recognize more than one mRNA codon. Based on this chapter's discussion of wobble, what is the minimal number of tRNA molecules necessary to recognize the following amino acids?
a. leucine
b. arginine
c. isoleucine
d. lysine
Answer:
a. leucine
Explanation:
In the case of the amino acid leucine alone, there are six different codons (TTA, TTG, CTT, CTC, CTA, and CTG) that can recognize and translate tRNA. Since there is only one codon to be translated, only one tRNA is required. The anti-codon in the tRNA identifies complementary positions on the codon, and due to the characteristic of the third-base motif, there is no 1: 1 ratio between the number of codons present and the required anti-codon.what is the complementary RNA called?
Answer:
It is miRNAs or microRNA
I hope this helps
Answer: Complementary RNA (cRNA) is a copy of a strand of RNA that will bind to the appropriate region of the original molecule.
Explanation: If the original RNA stand had a base sequence of AUU, for example, the sequence of the cRNA strand would be UAA. I hope this helps :).
eukaryotic cells. Classify each statement according to whether it occurs in eukaryotic cells, prokaryotic cells, or both.
Eukaryotic Cell Only Both Prokaryotic Cell Only
1. The start codon is often AUG.
2.There are multiple ribosome binding sites.
3. The ribosome is 70S.
4. The large subunit of the ribosome is 60S.
5. Translation occurs in the cytoplasm.
6. The ribosome initially binds the 5' of mRNA.
Answer:
Both:
The start codon is often AUGEukaryotic cell only:
The larger subunit of the ribosome is 60s.The ribosomes initially binds the 5' end of mRNA.Prokaryotic cell only:
The ribosome is 70sTranslation occurs in the cytoplasmThere are multiple ribosome binding siteExplanation:
AUG is the common start codon for both eukaryotic as well prokaryotic cells. In eukaryotic cell, it codes for methionine . While in prokaryotic cell, it codes for formyl methionine.In prokaryotic cell, ribosomes are found in cytoplasm, hence the translation occurs in cytoplasm.Eukaryotic ribosome consists of two subunits; 40s and 60s(larger subunit)Prokaryotic ribosomes have 70s ribososme, which consists of 50s and 20s subuints in eukaryotic cell, 40s ribosome initially binds to the cap at the 5' end of mRNA.Bacterial mRNA contain multiple ribosome binding sites.Which of the following statements is not true regarding mutations? A. Mutations are always harmful B. Mutations may be helpful C. Mutations generate the raw material for natural selection D. Mutations create variety in the gene pool
Mutations are changes to an organism's DNA and can be harmful, advantageous, or neutral. They are not always harmful.
Explanation:Mutations are changes to an organism's DNA and are an important driver of diversity in populations. Some mutations are harmful, some are advantageous, and some are neutral. Advantageous mutations lead to changes that improve an individual's survival and/or chances of reproduction. For example, the mutation for resistance to insecticide in mosquitos improved their survival. Neutral mutations have no effect on survival or reproduction. The statement that mutations are always harmful (A) is not true, as mutations can be beneficial or neutral as well.
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The statement that mutations are always harmful is not true. Mutations can be beneficial, neutral, or harmful and are essential for evolution as they create genetic diversity upon which natural selection can act.
Explanation:The statement that is not true regarding mutations is: Mutations are always harmful. This is incorrect because mutations can have various impacts, including beneficial, neutral, or harmful effects on the organism. Mutations are the primary source of genetic variation, which is essential for evolution. They provide the raw material upon which natural selection acts. Most mutations are indeed neutral, having no significant effect on an organism's fitness. However, some mutations may confer an advantage in certain environments and will be selected for, thereby becoming more common in the population. Conversely, harmful mutations that negatively impact survival or reproduction are typically eliminated from the population by natural selection. In this way, mutations contribute to the diversity in a population's gene pool and play a critical role in the process of evolution.
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Certain substances pass from the blood in the glomerular capillaries into the ultrafiltrate under normal circumstances. Other substances will only appear in the ultrafiltrate under abnormal circumstances. Categorize the following substances' appearance in the ultrafiltrate into normal and abnormal.
1. Albumin (a protein)
2. Amino acid
3. Glucose
4. NaCl
5. Plasma
6. Red blood cell
7. White blood cell
Final answer:
Under normal circumstances, amino acids, glucose, NaCl, and plasma appear in the ultrafiltrate. Albumin, red blood cells, and white blood cells are considered abnormal.
Explanation:
Under normal circumstances, the appearance of substances in the ultrafiltrate is as follows:
Normal: Amino acids, glucose, NaCl, and plasma
Abnormal: Albumin (a protein), red blood cells, white blood cells
In normal conditions, substances like albumin and blood cells should not be found in the ultrafiltrate. If they are present, it indicates abnormal circumstances such as kidney damage or disease.
Please help. This is bio question.
Answer:
D: 1:2:1
Explanation:
What is the Function of cambium
Answer:
the function of the cambium: layer of actively dividing cells between xylem (wood) and phloem (bast) tissues that is responsible for the secondary growth of stems and roots (secondary growth occurs after the first season and results in increase in thickness).
Explanation:
Answer:
Your answer would be "B"
Explanation:
You have a 15kb plasmid. EcoRI cuts the plasmid into 7kb and 8kb pieces, and BamHI cuts the plasmid into 1kb and 14kb pieces. If you do a double digest with both EcoRI and BamHI on your plasmid, which of the following band patterns are possible on your gel?a. Bands at 1kb, 6kb and 8kb.b. Bands at 1kb, 7kb and 8kb.c. Bands at 1kb, 6kb and 14kbd. Bands at 7kb, 8kb and 14kb.
Answer:
a. Bands at 1kb, 6kb and 8kb
Explanation:
The EcoRI and BamHI are the restriction enzymes which cut the DNA sequence especially a plasmid at specific sites called the restriction sites.
The restriction enzymes produces bands of specific length therefore these restriction enzymes are used to estimate the approximate length of the DNA.
In the given question, the
1. EcoRI- produces two strands of 7 kb and 8 kb
2. BamHI- produces two strands of 1kb and 14kb
This shows that the length of DNA sequence is 15kb
But when the DNA strand are digested with both the enzymes simultaneously then it will produce three bands as:
i) 14 kb can be broken down in 2 bands of 6 kb and 8 kb
ii) 1 kb band is already produced by the Bam HI.
This shows that 1+6+8= 15 kb
Thus, Option-A is correct.
In guinea pigs, black fur is dominant and white fur is recessive. A homozygous dominant black guinea pig is bred with a homozygous recessive white guinea pig. The dominant allele is represented by F, and the recessive allele is represented by f. Create a Punnett Square and answer the following question: What is the probability of having white fur guinea pigs with this combination
Answer:
The following cross represents the parent genotype for the offspring whose phenotype is to be determined.
Homozygous dominant black guinea pig FF
X
Homozygous recessive white guinea pig ff
The probability of having white fur guinea pig offspring is zero in the first generation because all of the offspring will be Ff, which is the genotype for black fur.
Punnett Square:
F F
f Ff Ff
f Ff Ff
Hope that answers the question, have a great day!
Blood flow
The necessity of the normal pattern of blood flow through the heart is graphically illustrated in a pathology known as Transposition of the Great Vessels (TGV). About 4/10,000 infants are born with the congenital heart defect TGV. In this disorder, the origin of the aorta and the pulmonary trunk are switched, however the destinations of these vessels are normal. You may have to do some online research to find a diagram and a description in order to understand this pathology.
1. Select each answer choice that describes the NORMAL sequence of structures through which blood flows, starting with vena cavae. Note that not all structures are listed and that more than one answer may be correct.
a. Bicuspid → right ventricle → aortic valve → pulmonary circulation
b. Right atrium → semilunar valve right ventricle → AV valve → systemic circulation
c. Left atrium → bicuspid → left ventricle → AV valve → systemic circulation
d. Tricuspid → right ventricle → pulmonary valve → pulmonary circulation
Answer:
D. Tricuspid → right ventricle → pulmonary valve → pulmonary circulation
Explanation:
The circulatory system is the system of organs and blood vessels which is associated with the circulation of the blood in the body.
The circulatory system is divided into two portions: the systemic circulatory system (body) and the pulmonary circulatory system (lungs).
The vena cava brings the oxygen-poor blood from the body to the right atrium from where the blood is transferred to the same side of the ventricle controlled by the tricuspid valve (atrioventricular valve).
From the right ventricle, the blood is pumped to the pulmonary artery which transports the blood to the lungs where the oxygen will be exchanged.
Thus, Option-D is correct.
Identify each statement as TRUE or FALSE. a. Plants are defined as multicellular, eukaryotic, photosynthetic autotrophs. b. Plants are defined by their chloroplasts, which contain chlorophyll a and b. c. Charophytes and land plants share four derived traits that suggest they share a relatively recent common ancestor. d. Charophytes are embryophytes.
Answer:
A. True
B. True
C. True
D. False
Explanation:
A. Plants in general are multicellular organisms, they are often referred to as eukaryotic autotrophs because they are make their own foods. They carry out photosynthesis, meaning the obtain their energy from sunlight.
B. Plants can be characterized by the presence of chloroplast, an organelle that helps in absorption of sunlight, because of the presence of green pigment called chlorophyll. There two major forms of chlorophyll in plants which are chlorophyll a and b.
C. Charophytes are a type of green algae, but several studies shows they have similar traits to land plants compared to other algae, making them have a common ancestor as plants. Some of the traits similarities to land plants compared to other algae are: they have similar enzymes, they have similar type of cell division, also their sperm is also similar to that of land plants.
D. Charophytes are not embryophytes. Embryophytes are also referred to as land plants, they are multicellular in nature, they include ferns and mosses. Charophytes are a type of green algae similar in traits embryophytes. Although embryophytes are a sister group to charophytes, they are not the same.
Final answer:
The statements identify key characteristics defining plants as multicellular, eukaryotic, photosynthetic autotrophs with chlorophyll in chloroplasts, shared traits between charophytes and land plants, but incorrectly classify charophytes as embryophytes.
Explanation:
Identify each statement as TRUE or FALSE regarding plants:
a. Plants are defined as multicellular, eukaryotic, photosynthetic autotrophs. TRUEb. Plants are defined by their chloroplasts, which contain chlorophyll a and b. TRUEc. Charophytes and land plants share four derived traits that suggest they share a relatively recent common ancestor. TRUEd. Charophytes are embryophytes. FALSE
Plants, being multicellular eukaryotes, have distinctive features including chloroplasts containing chlorophyll for photosynthesis. Though charophytes share common traits with land plants pointing to a shared ancestry, they are not classified as embryophytes, highlighting the distinction and evolutionary pathway between aquatic and terrestrial plants.
Which of the following describes empirical evidence?
A
dogs are good pets
B
dogs can speak English
C
dogs have two eyes and two ears
D
pet dogs should be allowed at school prom
Empirical evidence is information that is verifiable through observation or experimentation. Out of all the presented options, the fact that 'dogs have two eyes and two ears' qualifies as empirical evidence.
Explanation:Empirical evidence refers to information that can be verified by observation or experimentation. In the listed options, C 'dogs have two eyes and two ears' best describes empirical evidence. This statement is factual and can be supported through observation and experiment, unlike claims that 'dogs are good pets', which is subjective, or that 'dogs can speak English', which is inaccurate, or that 'pet dogs should be allowed at school prom', which is an opinion.
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How many cells are produced in Mitosis
Answer:
Mitosis produces two diploid somatic cells that are genetically identical to each other and the original parent cell.
Explanation:
When a cell divides by way of mitosis, it produces two clones of itself, each with the same number of chromosomes.
In the neuron, the sodium-potassium pump helps to
Answer:
The sodium-potassium pump carries out a form of active transport—that is, its pumping of ions against their gradients requires the addition of energy from an outside source. That source is adenosine triphosphate (ATP), the principal energy-carrying molecule of the cell.
Explanation:
The sodium-potassium pump is vital for establishing a neuron's resting potential by creating a negative charge inside the neuron and using ATP to pump ions against their concentration gradients.
Explanation:The sodium-potassium pump plays a crucial role in maintaining the resting potential of a neuron. This active transport mechanism uses ATP to move sodium ions out of the neuron and potassium ions into it, both against their concentration gradients. For every ATP consumed, three sodium ions are exported and two potassium ions are imported, which helps to establish a net negative charge inside the neuron. The difference in charge across the cell membrane is essential for the transmission of nerve impulses as it keeps the neuron ready to respond to stimulation.
The sodium-potassium pump is a mechanism of active transport that moves sodium ions out of cells and potassium ions into cells. It helps to maintain a difference in charge across the cell membrane of the neuron, creating an electrical gradient called resting potential. The pump moves both ions from areas of lower to higher concentration, using energy from ATP and carrier proteins in the cell membrane.
Billy is an 11-year-old boy who was admitted to hospital with dehydration. His parents said that over the last few months, he had seemed tired and lacking in energy, and that despite eating well and drinking large quantities of fluids he had lost about 7 kg (15 lbs) in weight. He also seemed to be going to the toilet frequently, not only during the day but also during the night. On examination, there was evidence of dehydration (sunken eyes, loss of tissue turgor); his pulse rate was 115 BPM, blood pressure was 95/55 mmHg, respiratory rate was 20 breaths per minute, and his breath smelled of acetone.
1. Comment on the history and findings following the physical examination of Billy.
2. Comment on and interpret the test strip results. Are they consistent with your provisional diagnosis based on the history and physical examination findings?
Answer:
Billy showed signs of type 1 diabetes.This is because,
1.His dehydration was from polyuria- excessive urination.
2. because of failure of his pancreas to secrete insulin, for cellular utilization of glucose by beta cells- he retains glucose in his blood, and lost a lot of glucose in his urine, thus water follow by osmosis, leading to polyuria causing dehydration.
His urge to replace lost glucose and fluids leads to great thirst polydipsia, another symptoms of type1. However, his drop in weight is because, the solute concentration of blood glucose is high due to lack of insulin.Therefore large amount is lost in the urine, with large volume of fluids leading to drop in weight, and energy because cells lack glucose for biochemical reaction of energy production.
The dehydration leads to sunken eyes, loss of tissue turgor, and low fluid levels results in drop in blood pressure,-Hyportension.
Due to lack of glucose in the blood gluconeogensis sets in. Fats is converted to glucose by the liver to supplement the lost glucose. The major by product of this reaction is a ketone-acetone. This explains the reason for the smell of acetone in his breath.
2, The Test strip indicated large quantity of ketones. above ,3.0mmol/L .This is a confirmation of the Type 1 diabetes mellitus in Billy.As more fats molecules are broken down to glucose.
Explanation:
Billy's history and physical examination findings suggest he may have type 1 diabetes and be in a state of ketoacidosis. The test strip results are consistent with this diagnosis.
Explanation:The history and physical examination findings of Billy suggest that he may have type 1 diabetes. The symptoms of tiredness, weight loss, increased urination, and dehydration are common signs of diabetes. His elevated pulse rate and blood pressure along with the smell of acetone on his breath indicate that his body may be in a state of ketoacidosis, which can occur in uncontrolled diabetes.
The test strip results are consistent with the diagnosis of diabetes. The presence of glucose in the urine indicates that Billy has high blood sugar levels, which is a characteristic of diabetes. The presence of ketones in the urine confirms that he is indeed experiencing ketoacidosis.
Based on the history, physical examination findings, and test strip results, it is likely that Billy has type 1 diabetes and is currently in a state of ketoacidosis. He should be treated immediately to restore his fluid balance, stabilize his blood sugar levels, and prevent further complications.
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Explain why global climate models typically work by treating the planet as a set of connected boxes
Answer:
Global climate models usually work by managing the planet as a set of connected boxes because this facilitates the management of the calculations applied in a climate system that is dynamic, variable and complex, which is due to the fact that there is not an equal pattern of climate in each area of the planet.
Explanation:
Climate models have been designed to show the dynamics of the planet's climate and what can be expected from the changes that occur in the future.
The scientific basis of a climate model is physical phenomena and chemical reactions to which a series of differential calculations are applied to determine the behaviour of:
Winds.Temperature.Relative humidity.Rainfall.Pressure changes.Heat transfer.Hydrological dynamics.Global climate models usually divide the planet into sections -such as boxes- making the calculations in each sector, as well as the interaction of each section with the adjacent sections, which greatly facilitates making the differential calculations, showing the climate at a given time and making predictions of future climate behavior.
It is important to mention that a climate model also explains the changes that occur in the climate due to human activity, which is different in each region of the world.
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Which of the following statements about enzyme function is true? A. Enzyme function is independent of physical and chemical environmental factors such as pH and temperature. B. Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions by providing activation energy to the substrate. C. Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions by lowering activation energy barriers. D. Enzyme function is generally increased if the three-dimensional structure or conformation of an enzyme is altered.
Answer:
C. Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions by lowering activation energy barriers.
Explanation:
Enzymes are biological catalysts which increases the rate of a chemical reaction. They do so by lowering the activation energy barrier between reactants and products.
Enzyme function are dependent of physical and chemical environmental factors such as pH and temperature. High temperature will denature the enzyme and reduce or stop its activity while pH outside the range of that of the enzyme will slow down its activity.
They don’t provide activation energy to the substrate.
The option that give description of function of enzymes among the given options is Enzymes increase the rate of chemical reactions by lowering activation energy barriers.
An enzyme can be regarded as substance which acts as a catalyst in living organisms, they helps in regulation of the rate at which chemical reactions proceed and at the end of the reaction, the catalyst themselves remains unaltered.When Enzymes are introduced to a reaction, then the rate of reaction will increase since the Enzymes will lower the activation energy barriersFunctions of Enzyme are considered dependent on physical as well as chemical environmental factors.These factors includes pH and temperature.Enzymes does not involve in provision of activation energy to the substrateAt a High temperature enzymes can be denatured.Example is Amylase, this particular enzyme can be found in saliva.
Therefore, enzymes acts as catalyst.
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A, B, C and D are genes that are linked on the same chromosome. Given the following recombination frequencies, what is the gene order? A-B 15%, B-C 26%, C-D 30%, A-C 11%, A-D 19%, and B-D 4%. (Hint: what are recombination frequencies equivalent to?)
Answer and Explanation:
We need to know that 1% of recombination frequency = 1 map unit = 1cm. And that the maximum recombination frequency is always 50%.
The map unit is the distance between the pair of genes for which one of the 100 meiotic products results in a recombinant one.
The recombination frequencies between two genes determine their distance in the chromosome, measured in map units. So, if we know the recombination frequencies, we can calculate distances between the four genes in the problem and we can figure the genes order out. This is:
Recombination frequencies:
1% of recombination frequency = 1 map unit (MU)A-B 15% = 15 MUB-C 26% = 26 MUC-D 30% = 30MUA-C 11% = 11 MUA-D 19% = 19 MUB-D 4% = 4MUWe know that 15 plus 4 equals 19. So we can infer that we have the gen sequence A--B--D, because the distance between A-B= 15, and the distance between B-D=4, and finally the distance between A-D=19.
A----B----D
15↔4
19
We also know that 11 + 19 = 30. So we can assume that C is next to A at a distance of 11 MU.
C----A-----B---D
11 15 ↔ 4
11 ↔19
30
The gene order is C, A, B, D
The gene order on the chromosome, based on given recombination frequencies, is most likely B, D, A, C. The recombination frequency corresponds to the relative distances between the genes on the chromosome, and is measured in centimorgans (cM).
Explanation:In order to determine the gene order based on given recombination frequencies, we'll use the principle that the recombination frequency between two genes corresponds to their relative distances on the chromosome. Recombination frequencies are measured in centimorgans (cM), where 1 cM equals a 1% chance of recombination occurring between two genes.
First, sum the given frequencies: A-B (15%) + B-C (26%) + C-D (30%) = 71%. However, B-D is only 4%, implying that B and D are very close. The discrepancy can be explained by double crossovers, which are not counted. Thus, the order is most likely B, D, A, C, based on their respective distances from each other.
Next, to find the distance between genes, subtract the lesser frequency from the greater: B-A (15%) - B-D (4%) = 11 cM, and C-D (30%) - C-A (11%) = 19 cM. We can now confirm that the gene order (from least to greatest) appears to be B, D, A, C.
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which of this is a cause if loss of genetic diversity?
1. climate change
2. invasive species
3. pollution
4. interbreeding of animals
Answer:
2 invasive species
Explanation:
If one species over grows the other there would be little to no genetic diversity. :)
Answer: Its D: Interbreeding of animals
Which do you think is most important about sleep? Write 2-3 sentences to explain
Answer:Sleep helps keep your heart healthy
A regular sleep pattern can help to lower the levels of stress and inflammation to your cardiovascular system, which in turn can reduce your chances of a heart condition.
Explanation:
Hope this helps
Stay Safe
plz give me brainiest
Answer:
sleep helps your body get energy for the next day.
It is true beacuse you learn it in school and the next day when you wake up you dont feel exhausted or weak. That only happens when you run outside too much. you shouldnt do that during this time, even during quarinten
Explanation:
A living thing that eats other living things?
Answer:
It is a consumer
Explanation:
It cannot make its own food like plants, so it eats, or consumes other animals. Hope this helps.
Select the correct match. Two plants in the same family are in the same _______. If two plants are in the same order, are they in the same family? If two plants are in the same family, are they in the same order? Do two plants more likely have a recent shared common ancestor if they are in the same order or in the same class? If plant species A and plant species B are in the same family, and plant species C is in a different family, which pair of species listed likely has the more recent common ancestor?
Answer:
The correct answers are "order; no; order; plant species A and plant species B".
Explanation:
Species are categorized in different taxonomic ranks according to physical and genetic features that establish the degree of similarity between species. For instance, two species that are in the same order have a more recent common ancestor than two species that have the same class. Also, two species that have the same genus share the other taxonomic ranks that are in an upper section. In this case, two plants in the same family are in the same order (the next taxonomic rank) however, two plants that are in the same order not necessary are in the same family.
Final answer:
Plants are classified into hierarchical taxonomic groups. Two plants in the same family are in the same order, but two plants in the same order are not necessarily in the same family. The more recent common ancestor can be determined based on whether the plants are in the same order or the same class.
Explanation:
In biology, organisms are classified into hierarchical taxonomic groups. Two plants in the same family are in the same order. However, two plants in the same order are not necessarily in the same family. The closeness of a common ancestor can be determined by looking at whether the plants are in the same order or in the same class. If plant species A and plant species B are in the same family, while plant species C is in a different family, the pair of species A and B likely has the more recent common ancestor.
Roots also play an important role in water transport. Which plays the most important role in the movement of water through a plant--the absorption of water by the roots or the evaporation of water from the leaves
Answer: plant--the absorption of water by the roots
Explanation: plants root aids the absorption of water and nutrients from the soil. Water is an important constittuents in plants when's its not adequate it could lead to wilting of the plant. Attach to the root is root hair this is what help in absorption of water and nutrients from the soil before it is been transported round the cell by xylem tissue. Water is moved through osmotic pressure from the region of higher concentration to low. The process of photosynthesis in plant requires water without the function of the root for absorption plants cannot actively photosynthesis. Hence root play an important role in water transport in plant .
Transpiration is loss of water from leave surface. The water been loss is
How does the use of fertilizer affect the nitrogen cycle?
The nitrogen cycle is a natural process that adds nitrogen to the soil. However, the use of fertilizers has increased the amount of usable nitrogen in the soil. The extra nitrogen seems appealing from the agricultural viewpoint that more nutrients in the soil means higher yield crops...
Answer:
When farmers harvest crops, a lot of the plant material is also removed. Little is left to decay and return nitrogen to the soil. If the soil stays this way, it will start producing fewer crops. Fertilizer contains the nitrogen compounds that are essential for plant growth. It can be used to replace the nitrogen in the soil to ensure the growth of healthy crops.
Explanation: