Answer: b. H2O ->S NADPH -> Calvin cycle
Explanation:
Photosynthesis can be compartmentalized into two phases: one that depends directly on the light - photochemical phase and one that does not depend on the light, called chemical phase.
The first uses H2O to produce ATP and a reduced electron carrier (NADPH + H +), the second uses ATP, NADPH + H + and CO2 to produce sugar. In the photochemical phase, light energy is used to produce ATP from ADP + Pi, through a set of reactions mediated by groups of molecules - the photosystems - in a cycle called photophosphorylation.
There are two types of photophosphorylation: one non-cyclic that produces NADPH and ATP and one cyclic that produces only ATP. In the chemical phase, which is not directly dependent on light, non-cyclic photophosphorylation products - NADPH and ATP - and CO2 are used to produce glucose, in the so-called Calvin-Benson cycle. Although it is also called the dark phase, it is not independent of light, since for the enzyme responsible for fixing CO2, RuBisCo, requires light to be reduced and to be in its active state.
Factors that should be considered in evaluating a biofuel include (choose any/all that apply, points deducted for incorrect answers):
a. should not compete with food production
b. net energy balance
c. energy balance ratio
d. total energy output
e. economic viability
f. should be carbon negative or neutral
g. should be carbon positive
Answer:
The following are the factors, which should be taken into account while evaluating a biofuel include:
a. Net energy balance
b. Should not compete with the production of food
c. Economic viability
d. Energy balance ratio
e. Should be neutral or carbon negative
The first generation biofuel is generated from sugarcane, which produces ethanol, and this eventually results in the elevation of grain prices. There was a controversy regarding the generation of raw material for its application as food or fuel.
Thus, it should not be competition with the production of food. The bio-fuels are generated with an objective to provide environment of zero carbon emission, that is, should be neutral or carbon negative, and at the same time it should be of low cost in production.
If 30% of the bases in human DNA are A, (a) what percentage are C? (b) What percentage are T? (c) What percentage are
Answer:
DNA is present as genetic material in all the living organism except some virus. DNA structure follows the Chargaff's rule in which states that the ratio of pyrimidines to purines is equal to 1.
So, amount of adenine will be equal to thymine. If adenine is 30% then thymine is also 30%. Total amount of DNA is 100%. Cytosine and thymine are also equal in the DNA molecule. The total amount of cytosine and guanine is 40%. The amount of cytosine is 20% and the amount of guanine is also 20%.
Thus, thymine is 30%, cytosine is 20% and guanine is 20%.
The existence of the gene established by which of the following?
a. George Beadle
b. Edward Tatum
c. Gregor Mendl
d. Wilhelm Johannsen
e. James Watson
Answer:
Wilhelm Johannsen.
Explanation:
Gene may be defined as the functional segment of DNA that are heritable in nature. Genes are responsible for the formation of protein product and observable characteristics of the organisms.
The Danish botanist, Wilhelm Johannsen coined the term gene. He explained the existence of the gene by the pure line experiments of the genetics. The term gene was established in opposite to the panegenes.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
What are the genotypic differences between F-, F+ and Hfr cells?
Answer:
The fertility factor or the F factor signifies a plasmid in some bacteria, which allows the conduction of genetic substance from a donor cell to the recipient by the process of conjugation, leading to recombination.
The genotypic difference between the F- cells, F+ cells, and the Hfr cells are that the F- cells are devoid of the F factor, the F+ cells possess autonomous F factor, that is, a segment of DNA, which can replicate autonomously in the cell. In case of Hfr, the F factor is integrated into its chromosomal DNA, thus, they carry an integrated F factor.
Two pea plants heterozygous for the characters of pod color and pod shape are crossed. Draw a Punnett square to determine the phenotypic ratios of the offspring.
Answer:
I will attach a file with the punnett square
Explanation:
You have to write every possible combination of gametes for each individual. In this case, both individuals will have the same possible combination of gametes because they both are heterozygous for both traits. Then you have to make the crossing between each gamete and you get the punnett square.
A cross between pea plants heterozygous for pod color and shape produces a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio, as predicted by a dihybrid cross Punnett square. This indicates 9 offspring would be green and round, 3 would be green and wrinkled, 3 would be yellow and round, and 1 would be yellow and wrinkled.
Explanation:In this cross scenario, we're considering two characters i.e., pod color and pod shape and the pea plants are heterozygous for both traits. A heterozygous plant can be denoted as GgRr, where 'G' and 'R' are dominant alleles for green color and round shape, and 'g' and 'r' are recessive alleles for yellow color and wrinkled shape.
To examine all possible combinations of these traits in the offspring, we use a type of Punnett square called a dihybrid cross. This square is 4x4 and it helps predict the genotypes and phenotypes of the offspring. The phenotypic ratio for a dihybrid cross where both parents are heterozygous for both traits is typically 9:3:3:1. This means 9 offspring will be green and round, 3 will be green and wrinkled, 3 will be yellow and round, and 1 will be yellow and wrinkled.
However, actual results can vary from these predicted ratios because the distribution of traits among offspring is determined by chance.
Learn more about Dihybrid Cross here:https://brainly.com/question/30239727
#SPJ3
If the a and b loci are 20 m.u. apart in humans and an A B/ a b woman mates with an a b/ a b man, what is the probability that their first child will be A b/ a b?
Answer:
The probability of having a Ab/ab child is 10%
Explanation:
The genes A/a and B/b are linked and 20 m.u. apart.
The parental cross is:
♀ AB/ab X ♂ ab/abGametes:
The man only produces 1 type of gametes, so the probability of him producing an ab gamete is 1.
The woman produces 4: two parental (AB and ab) and two recombinant (Ab, aB).
Man: ab
Woman: AB, ab, Ab, aB
The formula to relate genetic distance with recombination frequency is:
Genetic Distance (m.u.)= Recombination Frequency X 100.
Replacing the data in the formula, we have:
20 m.u. / 100 = Recombination Frequency
0.2 = Recombination Frequency
Because the Recombination Frequency is 0.2, the woman will generate recombinant gametes 20% of times, and parental gametes the other 80%. Each recombinant gamete will appear in 10% of the cases, and each parental gamete will appear in 40% of the cases.
The probailities for each possible genotype of the progeny resulting from that cross will be:
Parental: AB/ab 40%
Parental: ab/ab 40%
Recombinant: Ab/ab 10%
Recombinant: aB/ab 10%
The probability that their first child will be A b/ a b is 20%.
Explanation:The probability that their first child will be A b/ a b can be determined using the principles of Mendelian genetics and the concept of random segregation and fertilization. Since the A and B loci are 20 m.u. apart, the chance of recombination occurring between the two loci is 20%. Therefore, the probability of their first child having the genotype A b/ a b is also 20%.
Learn more about Mendelian genetics here:https://brainly.com/question/37220922
#SPJ11
Which of these are true regarding eukaryotes? (choose all that apply)
a. Chromosomes each have one origin of replication
b. During replication there is both a leading strand and a lagging strand
c. Each replication bubble has two replication forks
d. Replication is stopped by the Ter proteins.
Answer:
b. During replication there is both a leading strand and a lagging strand .
c. Each replication bubble has two replication forks.
Explanation:
Eukaryotic chromosomes have multiple origins of replication to replicate the long chromosomes at a higher rate.
The two DNA strands have opposite polarity, that is, 5' end of the one DNA strand is present opposite to the 3' end of the other DNA strand. DNA replication occurs only in 5' to 3' direction and the direction of the movement of the replication fork is also 5' to 3' direction.
To allow the DNA replication in 5' to 3' direction on both strands, one strand is replicated discontinuously in the direction opposite to the movement of the replication fork.
The discontinuously replicated strand is lagging strand while the other one is the leading strand.
DNA replication in eukaryotes occurs bidirectionally as two replication forks are formed at each replication bubble, one at each end of the replication bubble.
The presence of multiple origins of replication and the bidirectional process allows the replication of large eukaryotic DNA at a considerable fast speed.
Final answer:
In eukaryotic cells, DNA replication involves multiple origins of replication which allow for the efficient copying of their typically linear chromosomes. b) Both leading and lagging strands are synthesized, with c) replication proceeding with two forks per bubble.
Explanation:
The question pertains to the characteristics of eukaryotic DNA replication. In eukaryotic chromosomes, which are typically linear, you would find multiple origins of replication. DNA replication in eukaryotes involves b) both a leading strand and lagging strand. Each new double helix at the replication fork moves bi-directionally, creating c) two replication forks per replication bubble. Contrary to an option given in the problem, replication in eukaryotes is not stopped by Ter proteins; this is a mechanism found in bacterial DNA replication.
Each chromosome in a eukaryotic cell has many thousands of origins of replication, initiating replication at multiple points to ensure the DNA can be copied efficiently within the necessary timeframe. The replication bubbles formed by the origins coalesce as replication forks meet, resulting in the duplication of DNA. The replication process includes enzymes like DNA polymerases, helicases, and ligases, and is efficient thanks to the orchestrated function of these proteins.
Do the Rickettsia bacteria harm or injure the tick or mite host, as we see in lice and Typhus? Explain.
Answer:
No. Rickettsia use an arthropod as a vector host to cause the disease in their final host, usually vertebrades. However, they do not harm vector host as ticks.
Explanation:
Rickettsia are strict parasites, they are bacteria that must live inside the cells of their hosts. Specifically, they are found in mammals and at some point in their life cycle, they are associated with arthropods (fleas, lice or ticks) that transport the parasite from one animal to another, without getting any harm. There are different diseases in humans associated with different species of Rickettsias and the arthropods that carry them:
Typhus is caused by Rickettsia prowazekii and transmitted by body or head lice.
Murine typhus is caused by Rickettsia typhi, transmitted by fleas.
Rickettsia rickettsii is normally transmitted by ticks causing Rocky Mountain spotted fever
Lysosomes are membranous orgahelles that contain digestive enzymes. Lysosones can function inside the cell, where their enzymes digest particles taken in by endocytosis or worn-out cell components Lysosomes can also release their enzymes outside the cell, where the enzymes break down extracellular material.
Answer the following questions about conditions related to lysosomal function.
l-cell disease is a lysosomal storage disease that results in the buildup of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins as inclusion bodies within the cell. Which is the probable cause?
(A) The cell does not take up food molecules by endocytosis.
(B) Lysosomes accumulate extra lipid-digesting enzymes
(C) The lysosome cannot fuse to the cell membrane to release enzymes extracellularly
(D) The Golgi apparatus cannot target the appropriate enzymes to the lysosome.
Answer:
(D) The Golgi apparatus cannot target the appropriate enzymes to the lysosome.
Explanation:
Enzymes are a type of protein build in ribosomes. The rough endoplasmic reticulum works with the golgi apparatus where proteins can be modified, sort and packed according to cell needs. Lysosomes are formed by budding of the Golgi apparatus.
The Golgi apparatus cannot target the appropriate enzymes to the lysosome is correct answer for this question.
Explanation:l-cell disease, also known as lysosomal storage disease, is typically caused by defects in the lysosomal enzymes that are necessary for the breakdown of certain molecules. Thus, the probable cause for the accumulation of carbohydrates, lipids, and proteins in the cell is option (D) The Golgi apparatus cannot target the appropriate enzymes to the lysosome. The Golgi apparatus has a crucial role in the sorting and modification of proteins, including lysosomal enzymes. If it is unable to correctly direct these enzymes to the lysosome, digestion of these molecules within the lysosome will not occur, resulting in their accumulation within the cell.
Learn more about lysosomal storage disease here:https://brainly.com/question/33908494
#SPJ6
Which of the following is likely NOT a common feature shared among all living organisms?
All living organisms share a common set of biological molecules.
All living organisms maintain some level of homeostasis.
All living organisms have evolved over the course of many generations.
All living organisms grow.
All living organisms are composed of similar structures.
Answer:
"All living organisms are composed of similar structures."
Explanation:
Living beings must comply with a series of characteristics to be considered as such.
A living being emerges as the result of a very precise organization. Although all living things are formed from the same biological molecules, their degree of organization can differ greatly between different organisms. Thus, there are different levels of organization where we will find multicellular organisms formed by a single cell. Likewise, among the multicellular organisms we find very different structures (as examples of this we can mention a plant, an insect, a starfish and a mammal, all with very different levels of complexity).
We can say that organisms maintain a certain level of homeostasis, they have been adapting to environmental changes over many generations, all organisms grow and reproduce and also have the ability to respond to stimuli.
Describe the relationship between linkage groups and chromosomes.
Answer:
The relationship between linkage groups and chromosomes is that the fist ones are all of the genes on a single chromosome.
Explanation:
Linkage groups are a group of genes present at different loci on the same chromosome. So a chromosome constitutes one linkage group that is inherited as a group during cell division. The haploid number of chromosomes shows the maximum number of linkage groups.
A linkage is the tendency that genes have to remain together during inheritance in the original combination.
Answer:
When genes are located on different chromosomes they segregate independently, but when they are located on the same chromosome, there is no segregation and they go together to the same gamete. This process is called gene binding.
Explanation:
When genes are located on different chromosomes they segregate independently, but when they are located on the same chromosome, there is no segregation and they go together to the same gamete. This process is called gene binding.
In the process of independent segregation, an AaBb individual produces 4 types of gametes, at a rate of 25% each. When a case of gene binding occurs, the individual AaBb produces only AB and ab gametes, at a rate of 50% each.
The link between the genes may be incomplete, because during meiosis prophase 1, when homologous chromosomes are paired, exchanges of parts occur between sister chromatids in a process called crossing-over or permutation. These exchanges result in the formation of recombinant gametes, which are chromosomes with new allele combinations.
If there was no recombination in these genes, the proportion of gametes formed by a double heterozygote would be 50% AB and 50% ab. When recombination occurs, a small proportion of recombinants are observed in the progeny.
The effect of the Y chromosome on gonadal sex determination is mediated by a gene called ___________
Answer:
SRY
Explanation:
Sex determination in mammals including humans is genetically and hormonally controlled.
Genetically gonadal sex determination is mediated by a gene called SRY. This gene is known as the mammalian Y-chromosomal testis-determining gene. It induces sex determination in males.
Recent studies revealed that SRY plays an important role in inducing Sertoli cells differentiation. The Sertoli cells, in turn, guide testis formation.
Therefore, in males, differentiation of testis is switched on by expression of the Y-linked SRY gene.
What are the three functions of the DNA molecule?
A. Reproduce, correct mistakes, produce new DNA
B. Replicate, correct mistakes, produce proteins
C. Replicate, mutate, produce proteins
D. Reproduce offspring, mutate, produce proteins
E. Replicate, mutate, build cells
Answer: Option C- Replicate, Mutate, Produce proteins.
Explanation:
DNA can be defined as Deoxyribonucleic Acid, which is known as the hereditary material in humans as well as in almost all other organisms. Synthesis of DNA proceeds from Deoxyribonucleotides with the help of enzymes called DNA polymerase.
The essential property of DNA is Replication, which means it can make copies of itself to pass on the genetic information and thus it is known as the hereditary material.
Sometimes during replication DNA can undergo certain errors or damage which leads to Mutation. Mutations may or may not lead to abnormal biological processes.
Another function of DNA is Transcription, the process through which synthesis of proteins is done. In this DNA makes mRNA in order to make protein.
Thus, the most suitable answer is "Option C".
The three functions of the DNA molecule are to reproduce offsprings, mutate, produce proteins
In order words, DNA carries genetic instructions and informations in all living organisms.
It contains instructions needed for an organism's reproduction, development and survival
What is DNA?DNA also known as deoxyribonucleic acid and is made up of chemical building blocks called nucleotides.
Structurally, every DNA is made up of three major components; which are as follows:
A phosphate groupA sugar group And one of four types of nitrogen basesLearn more about DNA:
https://brainly.com/question/16829508
In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around
a. histones.
b. ribosomes.
c. polymerase molecules.
d. a thymine dimer.
Answer:
a. histones. is the correct answer.
Explanation:
In a nucleosome, the DNA is wrapped around eight histones proteins to create strong loops termed nucleosome.
A nucleosome is the structural subunit of the chromatin.
Chromatin is a fiber polymer of double-stranded DNA which is composed up of a nucleosome core. The nucleosome core is made of histone proteins
Each nucleosome is composed of DNA enclosed around eight histone proteins which are called histone octamer.
Sketch a section of a phospholipid bilayer of a membrane, and label the hydrophilic head and hydrophobic tail of one of the phospholipids.
Answer:
The hydrophobic tails are sandwiched in between because they are ‘water-hating’ leaving the hydrophilic ends (which are ‘water-loving’) to interact with the watery environment inside and outside of the cell. The hydrophobic ends are mainly made of fatty acid chains ( and have no charges) while the hydrophilic ends are made of phosphate molecules that are negatively charged.
A phospholipid bilayer, a key component of a cell membrane, comprises two layers of phospholipids each with a hydrophilic (water-attracting) head and a hydrophobic (water-repelling) tail. The bilayer formation allows the cell to create a barrier and maintain different environments on each side.
Explanation:The phospholipid bilayer of a membrane is composed of two layers of phospholipids. Each phospholipid has a hydrophilic head and a hydrophobic tail. The hydrophilic head is attracted to water and is located on the outer sides of the bilayer, in contact with the aqueous (water-based) environment. The hydrophobic tails, however, are repelled by water and are oriented towards the middle of the bilayer away from the water. This unique arrangement allows the phospholipid bilayer to function as a barrier between the inside and outside of a cell, or between different compartments within a cell.
Learn more about phospholipid bilayer here:https://brainly.com/question/32295233
#SPJ6
The amount of net secondary productivity cannot exceed the amount of net primary productivity.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The net secondary productivity refers to the net amount of energy available to produce biomass at the consumer level. The energy available in the plant tissues after cellular respiration represents the net primary productivity. The net primary productivity represents the rate of incorporation of organic matter into the plant tissues. Hence, net primary productivity is the source of energy and organic matter for the net secondary productivity.
A part of the net primary productivity consumed by a herbivore is used in cellular respiration and other processes and the rest becomes available for biomass accumulation.
Due to the consumption of the part of the net primary productivity for vital processes at the consumer level, the amount of energy available for biomass accumulation, the net secondary productivity, is always less than the NPP.
Where does fertilization typically occur?
Answer:
The process of fertilization occurs in the fallopian tubes that associate the ovaries with the uterus. Fertilization takes place when a sperm cell effectively encounters with an egg cell in the fallopian tube. After the process of fertilization, the newly formed fertilized cell is known as a zygote. From here, the zygote will mediate down towards the fallopian tube and into the uterus.
The zygote than gets attached to the lining of uterus, this is known as implantation.
Fertilization occurs when a sperm and an egg combine in the uterine tubes. The sperm must encounter the egg within a few days for fertilization to happen. The egg can only survive independently for around 24 hours after ovulation.
Explanation:Fertilization occurs when a sperm and an oocyte (egg) combine and their nuclei fuse. This process takes place in the uterine tubes, which is the most typical site for sperm to encounter the egg. If the sperm does not encounter the egg immediately, it can survive in the uterine tubes for another 3-5 days. In comparison, an egg can survive independently for only approximately 24 hours following ovulation.
Learn more about Fertilization here:https://brainly.com/question/31649938
#SPJ11
Extensive irrigation in arid regions causes salts to accumulate in the soil. (When water evaporates, salts that were dissolved in the water are left behind in the soil.) Based on what you learned about water balance in plant cells, explain why increased soil salinity (saltiness) might be harmful to crops.
Answer:
Increased salinity will result in total crop failure in a field. This is because plants need to take up water from the soil for growth and development. However the salinity levels of this soil will, rather, draw water from the plants by osmosis. This is because the soil water will be hypertonic to the plant's cells cytoplasm and even seeds. In osmosis, water moves from the hypotonic solution to the hypertonic solution through a semi-permeable membrane until osmotic equilibrium is achieved. Planted seeds with therefore hardly germinate and plants will wilt and die, as a result.
Answer:
Increased salinity will result in total crop failure in a field. This is because plants need to take up water from the soil for growth and development. However the salinity levels of this soil will, rather, draw water from the plants by osmosis. This is because the soil water will be hypertonic to the plant's cells cytoplasm and even seeds. In osmosis, water moves from the hypotonic solution to the hypertonic solution through a semi-permeable membrane until osmotic equilibrium is achieved. Planted seeds with therefore hardly germinate and plants will wilt and die, as a result.
Explanation:
Bacteria perform the following ecological roles. Which role typically does not involve symbiosis?
a. skin commensalist
b. decomposer
c. gut mutualist
d. pathogen
Answer: Decomposer
Explanation:
Bacteria feed on the dead and decaying organism, in which they feed on them and obtain energy from them.
It is not a mutual relation because the host cell on which they feed is not alive. They eat the organic matter that is present in environment.
The bacteria and fungi clean the environment in this way. The dead plants and animals are decomposed in the environment and the nutrients get back into the soil.
hence, the correct answer is option B
The role that typically does not involve symbiosis is: b. decomposer.
Decomposer bacteria play a vital ecological role by breaking down organic matter and recycling nutrients, but this role typically does not involve symbiosis. Decomposers, like saprophytic bacteria, act independently as they break down dead plants, animals, and organic material, helping to release nutrients back into the ecosystem. In contrast, the other roles mentioned involve symbiotic relationships.
Skin commensalist bacteria coexist harmlessly on the skin, gut mutualist bacteria aid in digestion within the host's intestines, and pathogenic bacteria cause diseases in their host organisms. These interactions represent various forms of symbiosis, where two or more organisms live in close association, often with one benefiting while the other may be harmed or unaffected. So option b is correct.
For more questions on symbiosis :
https://brainly.com/question/26838647
#SPJ12
A portion of one DNA strand of the human gene responsible for cystic fibrosis is 5' ......ATAGCAGAGCACCATTCTG.....3' Write the sequence of the corresponding region of the other DNA strand of this gene, noting the polarity. What do the dots before and after the given sequence represent?
Answer:
DNA strands consists of four nitrogenous bases, pentose sugar and a phosphate group. The DNA strands are complimentary with each other as thymine binds with adenine with two hydrogen bonds and guanine binds with cytosine with three hydrogen bonds.
The given DNA strand for cystic fibrosis is 5'......ATAGCAGAGCACCATTCTG.....3'. Its complimentary DNA strand in 3'......TATCGTCTCGTGGTAAGAC......5'. The DNA strands of 5'.....CAGAATGGTGCTCTGCTAT........3′. The dots before and after the given sequence represent that the given strand is a shirt stretch of the DNA made of large number of nucleotides.
Final answer:
The sequence of the corresponding region on the other DNA strand for the given sequence is 3' ......TATCGTCTCGTGGTAAGAC.....5'. The dots indicate unspecified flanking regions.
Explanation:
For the given DNA sequence 5' ......ATAGCAGAGCACCATTCTG.....3', the sequence of the corresponding region on the other DNA strand, noting its polarity, is 3' ......TATCGTCTCGTGGTAAGAC.....5'. The dots before and after the given sequence represent the flanking regions of DNA that are not specified within this sequence. In DNA, base pairing occurs between adenine (A) and thymine (T), and between guanine (G) and cytosine (C), in antiparallel orientation, which means that the sequences on the two strands are reversed and complementary to each other.
What are the products of the light reactions that are subsequently used by the Calvin cycle?
A) oxygen and carbon dioxide
B) carbon dioxide and RuBP
C) water and carbon
D) electrons and photons
E) ATP and NADPH
Answer:
E) ATP and NADPH
Explanation:
The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis include splitting of water in presence of sunlight followed by transfer of released electrons from PSII to PSI via intermediate carriers. The electrons finally reduce the NADP+ into NADPH.
As the electrons move from carriers between PSII and PSI, the protons are pumped into thylakoid lumen and an electrochemical gradient is generated. movement of protons back to the stroma via proton channel drives ATP synthesis.
The NADPH and ATP formed during light reactions are channeled into the Calvin cycle. Here, NADPH serves in redox reactions while ATP serves as an energy source to fix the atmospheric CO2 into glucose.
The products of the light reactions that are used in the Calvin cycle are ATP and NADPH, which provide the energy and electrons needed for the synthesis of glucose.
Explanation:The products of the light reactions that are used by the Calvin cycle are ATP (adenosine triphosphate) and NADPH (nicotinamide adenine dinucleotide phosphate). During the light reactions, light energy is converted into chemical energy in the form of these two molecules. ATP provides the energy needed for the Calvin cycle to synthesize glucose, while NADPH provides the necessary electrons. Hence, the answer is: E) ATP and NADPH.
Learn more about Calvin Cycle here:https://brainly.com/question/34149547
#SPJ3
Which of the following is not considered evidence that supports the endosymbiotic theory? Mitochondria and chloroplast chromosomes are structurally similar to bacterial chromosomes. Chloroplast DNA and mitochondria DNA is an exact copy of bacteria DNA. Mitochondria and chloroplast replicate/reproduce in a manner similar to prokaryotic cells. The ribosomes of mitochondria and chloroplast resemble those of bacteria.
The incorrect evidence is that Chloroplast DNA and mitochondria DNA are exact copies of bacteria DNA, as they are merely highly related but not identical due to gene transfer to the host nucleus.
Explanation:The piece of evidence that does not support the endosymbiotic theory is the claim that 'Chloroplast DNA and mitochondria DNA is an exact copy of bacteria DNA.' While it is true that mitochondrial DNA (mtDNA) and chloroplast DNA (cpDNA) are highly related to bacterial DNA, they are not exact copies. Over time, many genes originally present in the mtDNA and cpDNA have been transferred to the host cell's nuclear DNA, meaning these organelles' genomes are now reduced in size compared to those of their bacterial ancestors.
Mitochondria and chloroplasts share several key characteristics with bacteria that support endosymbiosis: binary fission similar to bacterial replication, the structural similarity of their DNA to bacterial chromosomes, and ribosomes that resemble those found in bacteria. These characteristics, along with the additional evidence such as similar biochemistry and plasma membranes, corroborate the endosymbiotic origin of these organelles.
name Streptococcus agalactiae, what morphology would you expect these cells to have?
Answer:
round and in chains
Explanation:
Streptococcus agalactiae is a gram positive bacteria. It is facultative anaerobe and forms a part of microbiota in gastro intestinal and urinary tract of healthy humans. It can cause infections in immuno compromised beings.Its genus name describes its morphology. Coccus are round spherical shaped bacteria. Strepto means that the bacteria are present in chain form. Hence this bacteria is spherical and arranged in chains.
There are several other types of bacterial morphology. For example: Staphylococcus means that the bacteria is again spherical but this time arranged in groups. Diplococcus means that the spherical bacteria is arranged in a pair. Similarly, bacillus is used to describe a rod shaped bacteria.
You want to test pentapeptides (short peptides with only five amino acids) for their ability to bind to and inhibit a particular receptor. To do this, you set out to synthesize all possible pentapeptides and test each individually. Assuming you’ll use just the 20 common amino acids, how many different pentapeptides will you have to test for receptor binding
Answer:
The correct answer is 3200000.
Explanation:
If there is only one amino acid in the peptide, the probable number of combinations would be 20. If there is only two amino acid in the peptide, the probable number of combinations will be 20^2. Similarly, for three amino acids in the peptide it would be 20^3 and for four it would be 20^4.
Thus, in the case of pentapeptide, that is, five amino acids in a peptide, the probable number of combinations will be 20^5, which comes out to be 3200000. Thus, the total number of different pentapeptides will be 3200000 that needs to be tested for receptor binding.
The number of different pentapeptides that will need to be tested for receptor binding is 15,504.
Explanation:In order to calculate the number of different pentapeptides that will need to be tested, we can use the formula for combinations. Since there are 20 common amino acids to choose from and we are testing for pentapeptides (peptides with five amino acids), the formula for combinations is 20C5.
Using this formula, we can calculate the number of different pentapeptides:
20C5 = 20! / (5! * (20-5)!) = 20! / (5! * 15!) = (20 * 19 * 18 * 17 * 16) / (5 * 4 * 3 * 2 * 1) = 15,504.
Therefore, there will be 15,504 different pentapeptides that will need to be tested for receptor binding.
Learn more about peptide synthesis here:https://brainly.com/question/14351838
#SPJ12
Which of the following does not
describehemoglobin?
a.) It binds less tightly to oxygen
thanmyoglobin.
b.) It is a multi-subunit protein with four heme
groupsfor oxygen binding.
c.) 2,3-bisphosphoglycerate increases its affinity
foroxygen.
d.) Maternal hemoglobin has a lower affinity for
oxygenthan fetal hemoglobin.
e.)none of the above.
Answer:
C
Explanation:
All statements describe hemoglobin for the exception of option C.
2,3 biphosphoglycerate (2,3 BPG) its used by erythrocytes to DECREASE affinity for oxygen to unload it to the cells. When the erythrocyte goes to high-metabolic demand areas (the ones that in most need for oxygen) synthesis of 2,3 BPG increases, affinity for oxygen then decreases, and oxygen detach from hemglobin and goes into the tissues.
Some bases are attached to sugars whereas other bases are attached to phosphates.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-false.
Explanation:
DNA is made up of repeating monomer units called nucleotides which form both the strand of the DNA. Each nucleotide is composed of a five-carbon sugar called deoxyribose, a phosphate group and four different types of nitrogenous bases.
The nitrogenous bases are of two types: purines with four nitrogen like adenine and guanine and pyrimidines with two nitrogen like thymine and cytosine.
According to the Chargaff rule, purine binds pyrimidine always in the DNA where adenine binds thymine and cytosine binds guanine.
Thus, false is the correct answer.
These are the only viruses large enough to be seen under the light microscope:
A) Papillomavirus
B) Poxvirus
C) Herpes virus
D) Adenovirus
Answer:
B) Poxvirus
Explanation:
Poxviruses, a type of DNA-viruses, typically infect animal cells. They are particular big among viruses, with sizes ranging from 200 to 400nm. Their extremely large size (considering they are viruses) allow them to be visualized under light microscope.
One stage in the lysogeniclife cycle has been shown to cause
dramatic
changes in the phenotype and pathogenicity of bacteria (e.g
makingbacterium
cause botulism). What stage is this?
Answer:
In the stage of integration of the viral DNA into the host's cell, it is created the prophages. In this interaction, lysogenic conversion may occur, when a prophage induces a change in the phenotype of its host
Explanation:
The lysogenic cycle is a stage of reproduction of some viruses that infect bacteria, inserting their DNA into the bacterial cell. Together with the lytic cycle, they make up the two cycles of viral reproduction.
In the lytic cycle, the genetic material inserted synthesizes RNA that will form the capsids of the new phages and will eventually cause lysis and cell death. In the lysogenic cycle, viral DNA is integrated into the genome of the bacteria. The bacteria will live and reproduce, also replicating viral DNA in new bacteria without the virus manifesting itself. At the moment in which the DNA of the virus separates from the genome of the bacterium, the lytic cycle begins.
In the process of integrating the viral DNA into the bacterial genome, changes in the phenotype of the bacterium, generally associated with its pathogenicity, can occur, to increase the host's survival capabilities, this process is called lysogenic conversion. Even a non-pathogenic bacterium can permanently become pathogenic by lysogenic conversion.
The first strong evidence for colinearity between a gene and its polypeptide product resulted from studies by:
a. Wilhelm Johannsen
b. Gregor Mendel
c. Charles Yanofsky
d. James Watson
e. Francis Crick
Answer:
The correct answer is option c, that is, Charles Yanofsky.
Explanation:
An American geneticist, Charles Yanofsky, worked as a faculty at Stanford University took part in the development of one gene-one enzyme hypothesis, and found attenuation, that is, a riboswitch mechanism.
In the mechanism, the messenger RNA modifies its shape in response to a small molecule, and therefore, changes its binding capability for the regulatory region of an operon and a gene. His studies suggested that genes and proteins are co-linear. If the section of the intron in the gene gets mutated, then the protein generated by the protein also gets mutated.
The net primary productivity is usually more than 80% of gross primary productivity.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
As GPP stands for the gross primary productivity, it's the total amount of energy produced in the process and the NPP is the net primary productivity. NPP is the difference between the GPP and the energy used by the producer for the process of respiration. GPP is a continuous and ongoing process that consumes the energy as compared to the NPP that store energy and not being used. Thus, GPP can affect NPP but NPP does not affect GPP. For example, GPP is completely being dependent on the chlorophyll content of the plant, but NPP is independent of that content of chlorophyll.