Answer:
Option E
Explanation:
A dominant trait is the characteristics associated with an allele which is expressed even if only one dominant allele is present in any allele pair.
For example - Let us say that “R” represents the allele for red colour and “r” represents the allele for white allele.
Also, red colour allele is dominant over white colour allele.
Thus in an allele pair “Rr” the colour expressed would be red as it is a dominant trait.
The white colour alleles in an allele pair would be expressed only when both the alleles are recessive.
Hence, option E is correct
The correct statement about dominant traits is that they are the traits which get expressed. This is because a dominant trait overrides the expression potential of a recessive trait and is observed in the phenotype.
Explanation:The statement that is correct about dominant traits is: e) The dominant trait is the one which is expressed. To understand this, let's first define what a dominant trait is in biology. A dominant trait is an inherited characteristic that appears in an offspring if one parent contributes it. The term dominant refers to the fact that the dominant trait overrides the potential influence of a recessive trait. The dominant trait is always expressed in an individual's physical appearance, or phenotype, while a recessive trait is only expressed if the individual has two copies of the recessive gene (is homozygous recessive).
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Which of the following best describes glomerular filtration rate (GFR)?
a. the volume of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries per minute
b. the volume of filtrate created by the kidneys per minute
c. the volume of filtrate created at the glomerulus per liter of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries
d. the volume of urine leaving the kidneys per minute
Answer:
the volume of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries per minute
The Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is the volume of filtrate created by the kidneys per minute. It is a measure of kidney function and is crucial for the removal of waste materials from the body. Other options regarding blood flow through capillaries, filtrate per litre of blood, or urine output do not accurately define GFR.
Explanation:The Glomerular Filtration Rate (GFR) is best described as (b) the volume of filtrate created by the kidneys per minute. It represents the amount of blood cleaned by the kidneys every minute, measured in millilitres per minute (mL/min). GFR provides an estimate of kidney function and it’s crucial for the removal of excess fluids and waste materials from our body.
Just for the sake of clarity, options (a), (c), and (d) are incorrect. The GFR is not about the volume of blood flowing through the glomerular capillaries, nor the volume of filtrate created at the glomerulus per litre of blood. It also does not represent the volume of urine leaving the kidneys per minute.
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During DNA transposition by the cut-and-paste mechanism, the transposase cuts the two strands of the target site DNA several nucleotides apart. Cellular repair enzymes fill in these overhangs, resulting in the formation of________.
Answer:
Long terminal repeats.
Explanation:
Transposable element may be defined as the DNA sequence that can move from one place to the other place in the genome. These are also known as jumping genes.
These gene can move through the cut - paste mechanism and copy-paste mechanism. The gene consist of the transposase enzyme that cuts the DNA strand. The gaps are filed by the repair enzymes. This involves in the formation of the long terminal repeats at the DNA sequence.
Thus, the correct answer is long terminal repeats.
whats a longer way to say Photosynthesis
Answer:
Well there is a equation of photosynthesis:6CO2 + 6H20 + (energy) → C6H12O6 + 6O2
Explanation:
Many second messenger systems activate ________, enzymes that transfer a phosphate group from ATP to a protein. The phosphorylation of proteins sets off a series of intracellular events that lead to the ultimate cellular response
Answer:
Many second messenger systems activate kinases, enzymes that transfer a phosphate group from ATP to a protein. The phosphorylation of proteins sets off a series of intracellular events that lead to the ultimate cellular response.
Explanation:
For example, the second messenger cAMP activates the protein kinase A (PKA), which catalyzes the phosphorylation of other proteins.
The second messenger Ca²⁺ forms an active complex with a protein called calmodulin. This complex activates CaM kinases, that phosphorylate a group of target proteins, regulating its activities.
Amino acids with hydrophobic r groups are most often found buried in the interior of folded proteins. true or false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Hydrophobicity is the aversion to the water of a molecule (or part of it). Amino acids with a hydrophobic R group (glycine, alanine, valine, leucine, isoleucine, proline, phenylalanine, methionine, and tryptophan) will fold with the R groups in the interior to avoid water. This behavior is one of the most important forces in protein folding. You can see it exemplified in the image I added.
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Final answer:
Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups are most often found in the interior of folded proteins to minimize their interaction with water in aqueous environments, confirming the statement as true.
Explanation:
The statement is true. Amino acids with hydrophobic R groups are typically found buried within the interior of folded proteins. This is because in an aqueous environment, such as the cytoplasm, it is energetically favorable for proteins to fold in a way that the hydrophobic side chains are shielded from water, thus reducing the ordered structure of surrounding water molecules and increasing entropy. On the other hand, the exterior of proteins is generally hydrophilic, allowing interaction with the aqueous environment.
Hydrophobic R groups interact with each other through van der Waals forces and contribute to the stability of the protein's three-dimensional structure. This structural organization is a key aspect of protein folding, in the context of both globular proteins in aqueous environments and membrane proteins within the hydrophobic interior of lipid bilayers.
The polymerase chain reaction has revolutionized genetics because
a) it is capable of making copies of DNA with very little starting material.
b) it is capable of making virtually unlimited copies of DNA for study.
c) it is capable of making large numbers of DNA copies very quickly. All of these
Answer: All of these
Explanation:
The polymerase chain reaction (PCR) revolutionized the field of molecular biology because PCR uses a small amount of DNA as a template.Paired with two primers which side to the target sequence, nucleotides, and thermostable DNA polymerase amplifies a specific region of DNA. In this way a large amount of DNA is obtained from a very small sample.
Suppose that the human insulin protein that was produced by the bacteria was much shorter than it should be. Upon further investigation, it was found that the DNA of the human insulin gene had a mutation while in the bacterial cells.
What type of mutation could not result in these observations?
Group of answer choices
nucleotide insertion silent mutation
nonsense mutation nucleotide deletion
Answer:
Silent mutation.
Explanation:
A silent mutation usually does not affect the protein produced by the translation of a given gene, it means, it will not affect the aminoacid sequence of the protein, since the genetic code is degenerated.
A Nonsense mutation will derive in the formation of an early STOP codon, so, the protein will be truncated (shorter than it should be).
It is important to notice that nucleotide insertion and deletion COULD derive also in the formation of a stop codon, but not necessarily, since it can just move the reading frame, and of course it will derive in a different protein.
The ciliary body is a modified part of this layer (tunic) of the eyeball. The ciliary body is a modified part of this layer (tunic) of the eyeball. fibrous layer (sclera) vascular layer (uvea) sensory layer (retina)
Answer:
vascular layer
Explanation:
The wall of the eyeball is made up of three layers which are a fibrous tunic, vascular tunic, and retina, also known as an inner tunic. The middle layer of the eyeball is the vascular tunic or uvea which in turn is composed of three parts: choroid, ciliary body, and iris.
Choroid becomes the ciliary body in the anterior portion of the vascular tunic. The ciliary body is a dark brown structure and contains melanin-producing melanocytes. Other structural components of the ciliary body are ciliary processes and ciliary muscle. The ciliary processes arise as protrusions or folds on the internal surface of the ciliary body.
The fertilized egg is totipotent, which means: it forms the membranes that surround and support the developing embryo. it can give rise to a complete organism. it can be removed and donated to a surrogate womb. it only contains genetic material from the female. the Y chromosome does not create interference to the expression of X-linked genes.
Answer:
It can give rise to a complete organism.
Explanation:
The zygote is the product of the sexual reproduction formed by the union of the sperm and ova. The zygote is the diploid in nature whereas the gametes are haploid in nature.
The fertilized egg has the ability to differentiate into the different cell type. The single cell can give rise to all the different organ of the body is known as totipotency. The fertilized egg has the ability to give rise to the whole organisms and shows totipotency.
Thus, the correct answer is option (2).
Which best defines homeostasis? a.modifying the external environment b.maintaining a stable internal environment
c.controlling what enters and exits the cell
d.movement of materials into the cell
Answer:
B. maintaining a stable internal environment
Explanation: The purpose of homeostasis is to maintain a stable internal environment by careful regulation of bodily temperatures and other methods.
An elk herd is observed over many generations. Most of the full-grown bull elk have antlers of nearly the same size, although a few have antlers that are significantly larger or smaller than this average size. The average antler size remains constant over the generations. Which of the following effects probably accounts for this situation?
Answer:
Stabilizing selection
Explanation:
Stabilizing selection can be described as a kind of natural selection in which a specific trait remains constant over generations and it is shown more than the other traits. We can say that stabilizing selection favours those traits that are seen to be in majority in a population. It does not support the extreme phenotypes. The stabilizing trait can also be known as the average trait of that particular population.
When applying rigid-body mechanics to the study of human beings, which assumption is made?A. All of the above are assumed.B. The body does not deform by bending, stretching, or compressing.C. The body deforms by bending, stretching, or compressing.D. The segments are flexible links.E. The joints provide friction during movement.
When applying rigid-body mechanics to the study of human beings, the assumption made is Option B.The body does not deform by bending, stretching, or compressing.
Explanation:
Rigid body mechanics is a body in which the gap between any two points will be constant in time, despite of external forces. The body cannot be deformed at any circumstances be it under application of any force. The forces acting over the body gets divided into two groups one is external, which shows the action of different bodies on the rigid body under force and internal force that binds the body together making it rigid. Body changes its motion only in case of pull against some external object.
A particular recessive genetic disorder is fatal before birth, so there are no homozygous recessive individuals. In a particular population, one in 15 individuals is a carrier for this disorder. What are the allele frequencies of the dominant (p) and recessive (q) alleles in this population?
A) p = 1.0, q = 0.0B) p = 0.933, q = 0.067C) p = 0.955, q = 0.045D) p = 0.967, q = 0.033
Answer:
The answer is letter D.
Explanation:
The allele frequencies of the dominant population is: p = 0.967
And the recessive population is: q= 0.033.
Comb jellies may not be the most familiar animal to you, but they are critical in the food chain because they make up a significant portion of the planktonic biomass. Their feeding strategy is predatory and involves adhesives or mucus on their tentacles or other body parts. What feeding tactic do these animals use?A) suspension feeder B) fluid feederC) deposit feederD) food-mass feeder
Answer:
The correct option is A) suspension feeder
Explanation:
In biological terms, suspension feeder can be described as an organism which has the ability to feed on the organic matter present in water. The comb jellies have mucus or adhesives on their tentacles which makes them better adapted to engulf food. The mucus or adhesives stick the organic particles from the water to the tentacles and other body parts of the comb jellies. The comb jellies then engulf these particles.
A power lifter has been advised by his coaches that he needs to lose some weight while still maintaining his rigorous training schedule. When evaluating this athlete's diet, which macronutrient will likely need to be monitored closely and possibly limited?
A. Fat
B. Carbohydrate
C. Protein
D. Water
Answer:
The correct answer is A. Fat
Explanation:
Fat is one of the macronutrient that is present in our food and fat is accumulated in the body on the liver and in adipose tissue and provide storage form of energy to the body. So fat accumulation contributes to weight gain.
Fats contributes to more calory per gram than other macronutrient like carbohydrates and proteins, therefore, reducing the amount of fat by taking low calory diet which have less fat amount is important to reduce weight.
Therefore here to lose some weight by powerlifter fat will likely need to be monitored closely and possibly limited.
A phenotypically normal prospective couple seeks genetic counseling because the man knows that he has a translocation of a portion of his chromosome 4 that has been exchanged with a portion of his chromosome 12. Although he is normal because his translocation is balanced, he and his wife want to know the probability that his sperm will be abnormal. What is your prognosis regarding his sperm?
Answer:
50% of sperms will be abnormal with duplication and deletions. There are 25% chances of production of normal sperms without any translocation while the rest 25% sperms will have balanced translocation.
Explanation:
A person with balanced translocation forms four types of gametes. There is a 25% probability of the formation of normal sperm. Segregation of homologous chromosomes during meiosis I would give 25% of the sperms with balanced translocation of chromosomes 4 and 12. Rest 50% sperms will exhibit deletion and duplication for the segments of chromosomes 4 and 12.
Out of the 50% abnormal gametes, half of the gametes will have a deleted segment of chromosome 4 and the duplicated segment of chromosome 12. Likewise, the rest of these gametes will have a deleted segment of chromosome 12 and a duplicated segment of chromosome 4. Therefore, there are 50% chances of the production of abnormal sperms.
The man's balanced translocation may affect the chromosomal arrangements in his sperm, potentially leading to abnormal configurations. Consulting with a genetic counselor or specialist is recommended to understand the specific probability and effects on offspring.
Explanation:Based on the information provided, the prospective couple seeking genetic counseling has a man who has a balanced translocation of a portion of his chromosome 4 with a portion of his chromosome 12. A balanced translocation means that despite the rearrangement of genetic material, the man is phenotypically normal. However, there is a possibility that his sperm may be abnormal.
During meiosis, which is the process of cell division that produces gametes (sperm and eggs), the chromosomes are prone to assuming unnatural topologies. This can lead to the likelihood of nondisjunction, where chromosomes fail to separate properly. Nondisjunction can result in gametes with abnormal chromosomal configurations.
Therefore, there is a chance that the man's sperm may carry abnormal chromosomal arrangements due to the translocation. To determine the specific probability and the potential effects on offspring, it would be recommended for the prospective couple to consult with a genetic counselor or specialist.
The most likely explanation for the observation that round is dominant to wrinkled in Mendel's peas is
a. the wrinkled allele encodes a functional enzyme, the round allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the round trait could arise with only one functional gene for the enzyme.
b. the round allele has an uppercase letter.
c. the round allele poisons the wrinkled allele.
d. the wrinkled allele encodes a functional enzyme, the round allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the wrinkled trait could arise with only one functional gene for the enzyme.
e. the round allele encodes a functional enzyme, the wrinkled allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the round trait could arise with only one functional gene for the enzyme.
Answer:
The correct option is e) the round allele encodes a functional enzyme, the wrinkled allele encodes a defective enzyme, and the round trait could arise with only one functional allele for the enzyme.
Explanation:
The allele in a gene which suppresses the effect of the other allele is known as the dominant allele. The allele which gets masked by the dominant allele is called as a recessive allele.
As we can observe that only one allele was enough to show the round types, hence the round types should be considered dominant.
Both the alleles should be recessive for the wrinkled trait to occur. Hence, it is a recessive trait.
The conditions on earth around the time of the of the molecules present were likely produced by volcanic eruptions. Critical formation of small molecules containing which of the following? origin of life were very different from those of today. Most to the origin of life was the
a. nitrogen and methane
b. oxygen and hydrogen
c. sulfur and carbon
d. ammonia and methane
e. carbon and hydrogen
Answer:
The aswer is letter E
Explanation:
Most to the origin of life was the carbon and hydrogen
Volcanic eruptions on early Earth likely produced the conditions necessary for the origin of life. The molecules present during this time contained nitrogen and methane.
Explanation:The conditions on Earth around the time of the origin of life were likely produced by volcanic eruptions. The critical formation of small molecules needed for the origin of life were very different from those of today. The molecules present during this time contained nitrogen and methane, so the correct answer is a. nitrogen and methane.
The eggs released by sponges during reproduction have proteins on their surfaces that prevent sperm from different sponge species from binding to the eggs. What type of reproductive isolation would include this example?
Answer:
Gamete compatibility
Explanation:
Function with games is important for sexual reproduction. Wolbachia are endosymbiotic bacteria that are maternally transmitted and exploit gamete function in many types of arthropod.
In Drosophila, Wolbachia-infected males ' fertilization of uninfected eggs by sperm often results in an early developmental arrest.
Therefore the answer is -
Gamete compatibility
"The RNA polymerase II C-terminal domain (CTD) consists of multiple repeats of the heptapeptide sequence YSPTSPS, with the number of repeats varying among organisms. Hyperphosphorylation of the CTD is a key step in the transition of the enzyme complex from the initiation to the elongation stage. What does the term "hyperphosphorylation" mean in this context?
Answer:
Multiple copies of the heptapeptide repeat are phosphorylated on some combination of serine, threonine, and tyrosine residues.
Explanation:
What proportion of emerging diseases is caused by zoonotic pathogens?
61% of emerging diseases is caused by zoonotic pathogens
Explanation:
Out of total emerging diseases zoonotic contributes 61%, that are originated from wildlife. The rate is increasing due to growth of human population, its mobility, frivolous, cultural and their socioeconomic purposes. Air is the major source for spread of infectious diseases. Zoonoses are generally caused by bacteria, viruses and pathogens that are blowout between animals and human beings. Modern zoonoses are Ebola virus and salmonella. One of such direct zoonoses is rabies, that is transformed directly from animal to human.
Imagine you have a layer of limestone with high porosity but low permeability. What can you do to increase its permeability to allow water to be pumped from the layer and used as a source of drinking water?
Answer:
The answer is remove the overburden so that there will be less pressure trapping the water.
Explanation:
You can remove the overburden so that there will be less pressure trapping the water.
To increase the permeability of limestone with high porosity but low permeability, you can use hydraulic fracturing to create fractures in the limestone, or use reverse osmosis water purification as a workaround to the low permeability problem.
Explanation:To increase the permeability of a layer of limestone with high porosity but low permeability, one method could be hydraulic fracturing or fracking. This process involves the injection of water, sand, and chemicals into the layer under high pressure. This high-pressure injection creates fractures in the limestone layer, which will increase the permeability.
Alternatively, you can use reverse osmosis water purification if the low permeability of the limestone layer is a problem and you cannot alter the geological structure. Reverse osmosis is a process where water is forced through a semipermeable membrane from a more concentrated solution to a less concentrated solution, effectively purifying the water. Used in many applications, reverse osmosis can be adapted to a variety of scales, from large desalination plants to small, hand-operated pumps.
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Which layer of the alimentary canal contains not only glands and blood vessels but also a nerve plexus that helps regulate digestive activity? Group of answer choices serosa muscularis externa submucosa mucosa
Answer: The external submucosa I'd the layer of the alimentary canal that contain the blood vessels,glands and nerve plexus that help to regulate digestive activity.
Explanation:
The alimentary canal or gastrointestinal tracts is the organ in the body that helps to break down ingested food into pieces that can be absorbed by human body and expels unwanted food as wastes. The alimentary canal consists of structures from mouth to the anus. The alimentary canal have four distints layers which are the the mucosa, submucosa,muscular layer and serosa.
The mucosa is the inner layer of alimentary canal and it surrounds the lumen. This layer have direct contact with digested food.
The submucosa consists of dense connective tissues, blood vessers, glands and nerve plexus. It regulate digestive activity.
The muscular layer consists of inner circular layer and longitudinal circular layer. It prevents food from going backward.
The serosa is the external layer of the alimentary canal and iits have several connective tissues.
Final answer:
The submucosa is the layer of the alimentary canal containing glands, blood vessels, and the submucosal plexus that helps regulate digestive activity.
Explanation:
The layer of the alimentary canal that contains not only glands and blood vessels but also a nerve plexus responsible for regulating digestive activity is the submucosa. The submucosa layer consists of dense connective tissue that binds the overlying mucosa to the underlying muscularis. It includes blood and lymphatic vessels which facilitates the transport of absorbed nutrients. This layer also contains submucosal glands that release digestive secretions. Furthermore, the submucosa houses the submucosal plexus (plexus of Meissner), which is part of the enteric nervous system and plays a crucial role in regulating digestive secretions and responses to the presence of food.
Quiz which condition could lead to drawdown below the level of existing wells?
Answer:
Continuous pumping of water causes drawdown. The water table lowers rapidly.
Explanation:
Water table is the level below which the ground is saturated with water. During rainfall the runoff water percolates into the ground through the gap in the soil particles and the water table is recharged. But when gallons of water are pumped continuously it leads to a drastic reduction in the water table because, water from the surrounding aquifers move towards the place where the vacuum is created by pumping. To prevent this, the groundwater should be recharged and over drawing should be avoided.Each skeletal muscle fiber is controlled by a motor neuron at a single
Answer:
Neuromuscular joint
Explanation:
At the neuromuscular joint, an impulse is transmitted through the synaptic cleft. When an impulse reaches the synaptic knob, it stimulates the vesicles to move towards the presynaptic membrane releasing the acetylcholine. A resulting action potential is transmitted as a nerve impulse along the neuron.
Which receptors is not a membrane receptor?
Intracellular receptors, such as steroid hormone receptors and thyroid hormone receptors, are examples of receptors that are not membrane receptors. They are located within the cell, as opposed to being on the cell's surface.
Explanation:In biology, the types of receptors that are not categorized as membrane receptors are commonly called intracellular receptors. Unlike membrane receptors, which are located on the cell’s surface and interact with external signaling molecules, intracellular receptors are located inside the cell. Typical examples of intracellular receptors include steroid hormone receptors and thyroid hormone receptors. These receptors bind to hormones that have the ability to cross the cell membrane due to their lipid-soluble nature.
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Intracellular receptors are the type of receptors that are not membrane receptors. These receptors are housed inside the cell and bind to nonpolar molecules like steroids. In contrast, membrane receptors are located in the plasma membrane and interact with external ligand molecules.
Explanation:In the context of cell biology, the receptors that are not membrane receptors are called intracellular receptors. These types of receptors are located within the cell rather than on its membrane. One example is the steroid hormone receptor. Molecules that are nonpolar, such as steroids, can diffuse across the cell membrane and bind to these intracellular receptors. The receptor-ligand complex then moves to the nucleus and interacts with cellular DNA, influencing gene expression. On the other hand, cell-surface receptors or membrane receptors are embedded in the plasma membrane of the cell. They interact with external ligand molecules and are involved in signal transduction processes that convert external signals into intracellular ones.
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What are zinc fingers, and why are they frequently encountered in descriptions of genetic regulation in eukaryotes?
Answer:
A zinc finger is also known as zinc-binding repeats or ZnF that are molecular scaffold which is characterized by the coordination of Zn²⁺ ions so it can stabilize the fold.
The zinc fingers consist of several amino acid sequence 2 histidine and 2 cysteine residues at intervals. These residues bind to the zinc atom covalently and form finger-like motifs.
They are a major family of eukaryotic transcription factors. These are identified in a significant regulatory state such as developmental control genes and proto-oncogene by binding to the DNA, RNA, or protein.
The fact that plants can be cloned from somatic cells demonstrates that _____.
Answer:
Differentiated cells retain all the genes they had before development
Explanation:
Plant cells have the ability to keep their plasticity and development potentialities after fully develop, this means that they can dedifferentiate and assume different cellular phenotypes. This differentiation responds to endogenous stimuli modifying the gene program of the cell resulting in whichever cell the researches want, this makes possible the somatic cloning.
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At age 79, Mrs. X is diagnosed with a disorder that severely impairs her logical judgment. Medical imaging techniques show that this has been most likely caused by brain damage in a ___
Answer:
The correct answer is frontal lobe.
Explanation:
The frontal lobe is the largest lobe a human being has and is responsible for each person having certain abilities such as reasoning, criteria, and all that behavior that has an objective. It is in charge of giving us the ability to anticipate and prepare us to react quickly to stimulus.
If the frontal lobe is injured, these capacities will be affected.
A person's daily behavior would be totally affected if he had an injury to the frontal lobe. He would present symptoms such as those in the example, where he could not have a logical judgment, but also other symptoms such as a deficit to perform all his executive functions and his behavior would be difficult to regulate.
With such damage, the person may also be irritable or cranky, and even have symptoms of memory loss.
Final answer:
Medical imaging indicates that damage to Mrs. X's prefrontal cortex is most likely the cause of her impaired logical judgment, a region associated with judgment, reasoning, and impulse control.
Explanation:
At age 79, Mrs. X is diagnosed with a disorder that severely impairs her logical judgment. Medical imaging techniques show that this has been most likely caused by brain damage in the prefrontal cortex. This area of the brain is associated with functions like judgment, reasoning, and impulse control. Damage to the prefrontal cortex can lead to a range of behavioral changes and deficits in cognitive abilities. Moreover, conditions such as dementia and Alzheimer's disease are characterized by progressive neurological changes that often include significant loss of cognitive abilities, and these conditions are related to changes in the cerebral cortex. In the case of Alzheimer's, distinct neurodegeneration can be observed in affected regions of the brain, like the hippocampus and ventricles, through medical imaging.
Elderly individuals, such as Mrs. X, are more susceptible to neuropsychological disorders that can lead to severe cognitive impairments. Lesions from strokes or other vascular problems can result in specific losses of function, depending on the brain regions affected. The prefrontal cortex, when damaged, can lead to a decline in logical judgment, indicating the critical role this region plays in higher-order cognitive processes.
Microtubules contribute to each of the following except A) mitotic spindles. B) filopodial structure. C) the human red blood cell disklike shape. D) orientation of plant cellulose microfibrils. E) intracellular transport.
Explanation:
The microtubules are made up of tubulin proteins and are hollow tubes that gives shape to the cell and organelle place in the cell. The movement of organelles occurs due to the transport function provided by the microtubules.
Microtubules contribute to spindle apparatus involved at the time of cell division. The RBCs size is maintained by stiffness of microtubules. The microfibrils walls are arranged parellely with cortical microtubules. The microtubules also function in intracellular transport of organelles and vesicles (membrane-bound). Thus, option b is correct.
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