Answer:
E. Insulin
Explanation:
Insulin helps regulate blood sugar levels.
When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction:
a. Substrate(s) bind in the active site
b. Products bind in the active site
c. The shape of the enzyme remains unchanged
d. The enzyme is consumed by the reaction
In an enzyme-catalyzed reaction, substrates bind in the enzyme's active site and enzymes are not consumed by the reaction. The shape of the enzyme undergoes slight changes during the reaction, but products do not bind in the active site. Instead, they are released once the reaction is complete.
Explanation:When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, substrates indeed bind in the active site (a). This is because the active site is a unique part of the enzyme that has a specific shape and chemistry for binding substrates and catalyzing their conversion to products. However, products do not typically bind in the active site (b), they are usually released once the reaction is complete. In terms of the enzyme's shape (c), it is generally thought to be flexible and undergoes a slight change during the catalytic cycle, this is known as the "induced fit" model. Finally, the enzyme is not consumed in the reaction (d). Although it participates in the reaction, it does not permanently change or consumed, meaning that it can catalyze the same reaction many times over.
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In enzyme-catalyzed reactions, substrates bind in the active site, the enzyme's shape can change, and the enzyme is not consumed by the reaction.
Explanation:When an enzyme catalyzes a reaction, the substrate(s) indeed bind in the active site (option a). This is because the active site of an enzyme is the specific region where the substrate interacts and where the catalysis of the reaction occurs. Option b is incorrect since products typically do not bind in the active site – they are released once the reaction is complete. As for option c, this is also incorrect because the shape of the enzyme can slightly change in a process known as induced fit to aid in catalysis. Lastly, option d is incorrect because, in general, the enzyme is not consumed by the reaction. Instead, it can be used repeatedly to catalyze the same reaction with other substrate molecules.
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If the papillary muscles of the heart fail to contract
a. the ventricles will not pump blood.
b. the AV valves will not close properly.
c. the AV valves will not open.
d. the semilunar valves will not open.
e. the atria will not pump blood
Answer:
The AV valves will not close properly.
Explanation:
Papillary muscles are located on the heart ventricles. These muscles are attached with the cusps of the tricuspid valve. They cover almost 10% mass of the heart.
Papillary muscles helps in the contraction of heart. If these muscles fail to contract, the atrioventricular valves will remain open and does not close properly. This will disturb the functioning of heart.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b)
The liver plays a role in the metabolism of lipds. It packages lipids for storage or transport that are bound to small proteins called ____________.
Answer:
Lipoproteins (LDL, HDL, VLDL, IDL, Chylomicrons
Explanation:
The lipids transport is difficult because of their hydrophobic attribute, so they cant move easily through the plasma. After being transported those lippoproteins get in the cells thanks to the receptors in cell membrane (B:E, E and scavangers receptors). Only if they are bounded to the proteins they can go out and in through the plasma and different cells in the organism.
The release of _______ from the pineal gland is important for establishing _______.
a. melatonin : thirst
b. prolactin : circadian rhythm
c. melatonin : circadian rhythm
d. prolactin : breast milk production
e. melanin : thirst
What is the hypodermis?
Answer:
The hypodermis is the last layer of the skin, it belongs to the integumentary system, it is also known as subcutaneous tissue. It consists mainly of loose connective tissue and stored fat. The following structures are found in the hypodermis:
-sweat glands
-Lymphatic vessels
-Surface blood vessels
-Cutaneous nerves
The hypodermis constitutes the bulk of the body fat deposit and its thickness varies depending on the nutritional status of each person
Explanation:
The ligament which covers most of the female reproductive organs and is often referred to as a "drape" is what structure?
A) Ovarian ligament
B) Round ligament
C) Broad ligament
D) Suspensory ligament
Answer: C) Broad ligament
Explanation:
A ligament can be define as a fibrous connective tissue which links bone to bone.
The ligaments present in the female reproductive tract are the structures which supports the internal female genitalia covered by the bony pelvis.
A broad ligament is a ligament which is associated with the female reproductive organs.
It exhibit a layer of peritoneum membrane, that is associated with ovaries, fallopian tubes and uterus.
The broad ligament is divides into three regions:
1. Mesometrium: It covers the uterus. In the broad ligament it is the largest subsection.
2. Mesovarium: It originate from the posterior surface of the broad ligament and connects to the hilum of the ovary. It does not cover the entire surface of the ovary.
3. Mesosalpinx: It originates from the mesovarium superiorly and encloses the fallopian tubes.
Prominent feature on the anterior portion of the scapula.
Answer:
Coracoid process.
Explanation:
The coracoid process serves to stabilize the shoulder joint. It also serves as the origin and insertion of muscles and ligaments, including the following:
-coracoacromial ligament
-coracohumeral ligament
-coracobrachialis ligament
-Short head of biceps brachii muscle
Describe how the body maintains posture.
Answer:
Body maintains posture as muscular system helps our body to maintain the posture and circulate the blood properly in our body. We hold our body against the gravity in a posture position.
With the help of muscles the 's' shaped spine in our bodies has curves that helps in maintains our posture. For maintaining posture, skeletal muscles are also responsible for maintaining posture.
Flexor muscles and extensor muscles helps us to bend, stand and lift objects.
Put these events in the correct chronological sequence.
1. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the motor end plate
2. Binding sites on actin are uncovered, allowing myosin to bind and carry out power strokes
3. Ca++ binds to troponin, pulling on tropomyosin
4. Ca++ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
5. Ca++ is pumped (resequestered) into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
6. Chemically-regulated ion channels open, causing depolarization
7. End plate potentials trigger action potential(s)
8. Force decreases
9. Force increases
10. Transverse tubules convey potentials into the interior of the cell
Answer:
The correct answer will be:
1. Acetylcholine binds to receptors on the motor end plate
2. Chemically-regulated ion channels open, causing depolarization
3 End plate potentials trigger action potential(s).
4. Transverse tubules convey potentials into the interior of the cell
5. Ca++ is released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
6. Ca++ binds to troponin, pulling on tropomyosin
7. Binding sites on actin are uncovered, allowing myosin to bind and carry out power strokes
8. Force increases.
9. Ca++ is pumped (re-sequestered) into the sarcoplasmic reticulum
10. Force decreases.
Explanation:
The muscle contraction is a highly controlled mechanism which begins at the neuromuscular junction with the release of the acetylcholine neurotransmitter. This neurotransmitter causes the depolarization of the membrane by binding to the receptors of the motor end plate which generates an action potential. This action potential is transmitted via T-tubules from sarcolemma to the sarcoplasmic reticulum.
The sarcoplasmic reticulum releases calcium ions which binds to the troponin protein. This troponin removes the protein tropomyosin from the actin causing the rotation of the tropomyosin exposing the binding sites for myosin. The myosin binds to the actin using energy from the ATP which pulls the actin causing contraction. Another ATP binds the myosin head which weakens the bond between myosin and actin which releases the myosin which decreases the force between them decreases and the muscles relax.
Skeletal traction is applied directly to the bone and uses opposing forces to create the traction. Nursing care of the patient with skeletal traction include:
a. All lines be free of tangles.
b. Weight ordered is in continuous use.
c. patient is given a trapeze bar to help mobility in the bed.
d. Linens are changed only as need.
e. Unaffected foot is kept against the footboard.
Answer:
The answer are A, B and C
Explanation:
Skeletal traction is a temporary way of handling some types of fractures. It consists in the application of a force to a body part. Its use is to minimize muscle spasms, reduce, align and immobilize fractures, reduce deformities. Pulley lines and weights are used, which must be free of any obstacles, the weight should not rest on the bed. sheets must be changed daily for hygiene; and the patient's uncommitted foot should rest freely in the bed.
Friction between membranes of the heart is reduced by:
a. serous fluid in the pericardial cavity
b. the epicardium.
c. a blood-filled sinus called the pericardium.
d. a cushion of air that surrounds the heart.
e. fluid between the epicardium and the myocardium
Answer:
The correct option is : a. serous fluid in the pericardial cavity
Explanation:
The heart is enclosed in a sac containing the heart, known as the pericardium. The pericardium has two layers- fibrous and serous layer.
The serous layer of the pericardium produces and secretes the pericardial fluid into the pericardial cavity.
The pericardial fluid is a lubricating serous fluid present in the pericardial cavity. It reduces the friction caused between the pericardial membranes by lubricating the epicardial surface.
All forms of Salmonella commonly perform dissemination through the body.
a) True
b) False
Answer:
false
Explanation:
A muscle inserted at the Hyoid bone that originates in styloid process of temporal bone.
Answer:
Stylohyoid muscle.
Explanation:
Stylohyoid muscle is in the shape of a slender muscle that lies superiorly and posteriorly to the diagastric muscle. This muscle is innervated by the facial nerve.
Stylohyoid muscle is originated by the styloid process and inserted in the temporal bone of the organism. This muscle is inserted just superior to the hyoid muscle.
Thus, the answer is stylohyoid muscle.
Which of the following is not a characteristic of pulmonary edema:
a. wheezing
b. rapid respirations
c, painful respirations
d. decreased fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lungs
e. pallor
Answer:
The answer is D: Decreased fluid in the alveoli and interstitial spaces of the lungs.
Explanation:
Pulmonary edema is the accumulation of fluid in the lungs, which produces an alteration of respiratory function that can be manifested among others by:
- Tachypnea
- Panting
- Chest pain
- Coldness and paleness.
- Bluish lips .
- Tachycardia.
- Anxiety and restlessness.
Discuss the relationship between smoking and various lung diseases. Choose 2 diseases only.
Answer:
The components of tobacco are chemical substances that are related to many diseases in the body, one of the most affected organs are the lungs, where they are the main cause of lung cancer, very common cancer and high malignancy. Another very common disease associated with tobacco is chronic bronchitis; In this disease there is abundant secretion in the lungs because the airways are already injured and have difficulty expelling them.
The pulse pressure is _____
a. systoic pressure plus diastolic pressure
b. systoic pressure minus diastolic pressure
c. systolic pressure divided by diastolic pressure
d. diastolic pressure plus 1/3 (systolic pressure plus dastolic pressure)
Answer:
The answer is B: systoic pressure minus diastolic pressure
Explanation:
Pulse pressure is the difference between systolic blood pressure minus diastolic blood pressure and is a characteristic sign of arterial elasticity. Pulse pressure and wave morphology indicate the elasticity of the arteries.
Pulse pressure is calculated as the difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure, which provides insight into the health of an individual's arteries.
Explanation:The correct answer is option B which is the pulse pressure is the systolic pressure minus the diastolic pressure. When you measure your blood pressure, it involves two measurements: systolic blood pressure (the higher number and the first one that is mentioned) and diastolic blood pressure (the lower number and second one). The pulse pressure is the difference between these two numbers which provides information about the health of your arteries.
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The protective transport of cholesterol from the artery wall back into the bloodstream via high-density lipoproteins is known as what?
Answer: Reverse cholesterol transport
Explanation:
Reverse cholesterol transport can be defined as the multi step process which results in the movement of the cholesterol from the peripheral tissues back into the liver via lymphatic system and then into the bloodstream.
This transport is important because the deposition of cholesterol in the blood vessels is very harmful and can cause various types of cardiovascular diseases.
So, the cholesterol is transported by Reverse cholesterol transport.
EBV is most commonly passed through
a) Urine
b) Blood
c) Saliva
d) Feces
e) All of the above
Answer:
C, saliva
Explanation:
Epstein-Barr Virus (EBV) causes a disease called mononucleosis. It is also called a 'kissing disease' because the virus is most commonly passed through saliva.
It is the most known human herpes virus. Once infected, a person develops symptoms like of a mild cold, with a slight fever, fatigue, rash and the swelling of glands in the neck.
The virus is found in saliva, blood and semen. It can stay active in the body for months or even years without presenting any visible symptoms.
Which of the following pieces of equipment is necessary for the prone position?
A. stirrups
B. footboard
C. chest rolls
D. bean bag
Answer:
A, stirrups
Explanation:
Patient positioning is not an easy task but very important while preparing for surgery. A prone position is one when the patient lies facing the ground. The patient is usually turned into the prone position from the supine position ( the patient lies facing the ceiling).
The thighs and knees of the patient are cradled in a boot-type stirrups. This is used to make the patient completely unmovable during the surgery. The knees should also be padded to avoid any discomfort for the patient.
An EPSP (excitatory post synaptic potential) greater than threshold, will generate which of the following?
A) hyperpolarization of the post synaptic neuron
B) a graded potential in the post synaptic neuron
C) a muscle contraction at the MEP
D) repolarization of the post synaptic neuron
E) an action potential in the post synaptic neuron
Answer:
The correct answer will be option E- an action potential in the post synaptic neuron.
Explanation:
The excitatory postsynaptic potential or EPSP is the change in the membrane potential or voltage due to the opening of the sodium voltage-gated channels.
The opening of the Na⁺ voltage-gated channels leads to the influx of the Na⁺ ions inside the cells which causes the depolarization of the postsynaptic cells. This depolarization leads to the generation of the action potential in the cell which can be transmitted further.
Thus, option E is the correct option.
Which of the events below does not occur when the semilunar valves are open?
a. ventricles are in systole
b. AV valves are closed
c. blood enters pulmonary arteries and the aorta
d. ventricles are in diastole
Answer:
The answer is A: ventricles are in systole
Explanation:
When the ventricular contraction begins for the outflow of blood to the great vessels, an increase in intraventricular pressure occurs, when it exceeds the pressure of the aorta on the left side and the pulmonary on the right, it results in the opening of the semilunar valves giving rise to the ejection of blood from the heart until the ventricles begin to relax. subsequently the valves are closed and another period of relaxation begins.
The event that does not occur when the semilunar valves are open is that the ventricles are in diastole; they are actually in systole at this time. And in the exercise question, the false statement is that blood travels through the bicuspid valve to the left atrium; instead, it flows from the left atrium to the left ventricle.
Explanation:Among the options given, when the semilunar valves are open:
(a) The ventricles are indeed in systole, contracting to pump blood out.(b) The AV (atrioventricular) valves are closed to prevent backflow into the atria.(c) Blood is indeed entering the pulmonary arteries and the aorta because the semilunar valves include the pulmonary and aortic valves.(d) The ventricles cannot be in diastole, as diastole is when the heart muscle is relaxed, not contracting.Therefore, the event that does not occur when the semilunar valves are open is option (d), ventricles are in diastole.
Concerning the exercise question, the false statement is option (b). Blood actually travels through the bicuspid valve (also known as the mitral valve) from the left atrium to the left ventricle, not the other way around.
Icd 10 code for traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage
Answer:
I60
Explanation:
Chapter IX or I, those are the circulatory system diseases. I60-69 are the cerobrovascular diseases and the I60 is the subarachnoid hemorrhage.
The ICD-10 code for the initial encounter of a traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage is S06.6X0A. This code is used for the classification and coding of medical procedures and diagnoses.
Explanation:The ICD-10 code for a traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage is S06.6X0A. This code is used by physicians and healthcare providers to classify and code all diagnoses, symptoms and medical procedures. Specifically, S06.6X0A refers to an initial encounter for a traumatic subarachnoid hemorrhage. Subarachnoid hemorrhage refers to bleeding in the space between the brain and the surrounding membrane that can occur due to head injury or trauma.
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Name the target organ or gland of the following hormones:
a. TSH -
b. Oxytocin -
c. Oxytocin -
d. ACTH -
e. FSH -
f. Thyrotropin-releasing hormone -
Answer:
TSH - Thyroid gland
Oxytocin - breast and uterus
ACTH - adrenal gland
FSH - testes
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone - anterior part of the pituitary gland.
Explanation:
Thyroid-stimulating hormone or TSH stimulates the thyroid gland to release two hormones is T3 and T4 hormone. TSH is another hormone also known as thyrotropin.
Thus, TSH - Thyroid gland
The hormone oxytocin stimulates contractions in uterus muscles during childbirth and also release milk from the breasts.
Thus, TSH - Thyroid gland
Adrenocorticotropic or ACTH hormone triggers the adrenal gland to release a hormone called cortisol.
Thus, ACTH - adrenal gland
Follicle-stimulating hormone or FSH triggers the ovaries to produce progesterone and estrogen. It has sexual and reproductive characteristics.
Thus, FSH - ovary and testes
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone or TRH, that triggers the release of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) from the anterior part of the pituitary gland.
Thyrotropin-releasing hormone - anterior part of the pituitary gland.
What is a basement membrane? Layers?
Answer:
At the base of the epithelial tissues is a layer of extracellular tissue that is known as the basement membrane. Whose main function is sustain and variable thickness.
Its layers are:
Basal lamina = composed in turn, by the lucida lamina and the dense lamina. Adipocytes, muscle cells and nerves are often found at the level of this lamina.
Reticular lamina = composed of denser and reticular fibers as well as a large number of proteins. It is also known as external lamina.
The chemical hemostatic agent that should be available for a femoral-popliteal bypass is:
A. heparinized saline
B. warfarin.
C. gelatin sponge.
D. propylene oxide.
Answer:
(A). heparinized saline.
Explanation:
Femoral popliteal surgery can be defined as medical procedure, which is used for the treatment of femoral artery disease. The chemical hemostatic agent that is used during femoral popliteal surgery is heparinized saline.
Heparin is an anticoagulant, which blocks blood clotting. Like other surgeries, popliteal bypass surgery also increases chances of formation of blood clots. Hence, heparinized saline is used for prevention of occlusion or clotting during femoral bypass.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
What are the steps of tissue repair? What cell types participate and in what way?
Answer:
The most frequently damaged tissues are the skin and mucosa, which causes the body to activate a repair process consisting of the following steps:
1- Inflammation: This process involves the cells of the immune system, white blood cells, antibodies, lymphatics. All these cells work together, once the vessels expand, they act producing an inflammation process where coinside these cells eliminating necrotic tissue, bleeding and coagulation is formed.
2- Organization: In this step, the clot begins to form in granulation tissue that is a tissue composed of several elements and that goes from the central part of the lesion to the periphery. In this stage new capillaries grow, fibrolastic tissues are formed that produce growth factors and collagen fibers.
3- Regeneration: A superficial epithelial tissue begins to grow under the granulation tissue. As the underlying fibrous tissue matures and becomes fibrous until it finally resembles the adjacent skin. Finally forming a fully regenerated epithelium.
Which of the following relationships between a tissue and its general function is not correct?
a) Epithelial : digestion
b) Connective ; support
c) Muscle ; movement
d) Nervous : control
Answer:
A) Epithelial
Explanation:
There are different kind of epithelial tissues, and depending on its clasification it could have different functions. For example the connective tissue has simple squamous epithelium. The digestive tract has a columnar epithelium. So the epithelial tissue has different functions: protection, regulation a secretion and those functions could help or improve the function of the different systems.
The incorrect relationship between a tissue and its general function is a) Epithelial : digestion. Epithelial tissue's primary functions include protection, absorption, secretion, and sensation detection, not digestion.
The relationship between a tissue and its general function that is not correct is: a) Epithelial : digestion. Epithelial tissue primarily covers and lines the body's surfaces, internal cavities, and passageways, and it forms certain glands. It has key roles in protection, absorption, secretion, and sensation detection but not directly in digestion. Connective tissue is known for providing support to the body and holding tissues together. Muscle tissue is involved in body movement through its ability to contract. Finally, nervous tissue controls the body by transmitting electrical signals through nerve impulses, allowing communication between different body regions. Looking back at the question's options, the function of digestion is not a primary function of epithelial tissue; therefore, option a) is the incorrect relationship between a tissue and its function.
If a specimen is sent for permanent section, how should it be prepared?
A. dry
B. normal saline
C. formalin
D. sterile water
Answer:
Formalin.
Explanation:
Formalin is a mixture if formaldehyde and water. 37% formalin is commonly used in the market. The formula of formaldehyde is HCHO.
Formalin acts as a strong disinfectant and can cause tissue hardening. Hence, Formalin is used to preserve the biological specimen and a specimen can be sent for permanent section.
Thus, the correct answer is option (C).
A patient presents with duodenal ulcers. Which of the following procedures is appropriate to perform?
A. Billroth II
B. Whipple procedure
C. vagotomy
D. vasovasostomy
Answer:
Billroth II
Explanation:
Duodenal ulcer is a peptic ulcer that occurs at the upper portion of the small intestine of an individual. Symptoms associated with peptic ulcer are nausea, stomach pain and heartburn.
Billroth II is an medical surgery in which the jejunum is connected to the upper curvature of stomach. This surgery is used to treat the duodenal ulcers of the patient.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
Referring to the EKC: The entire ventricular myocardium is depolarized during the ________
a. P-R interval
b. S-T segment
c. Q-T interval
Answer:
The answer is C: Q-T interval
Explanation:
The measurement of the Q-T interval shows the time in which the ventricular myocardium takes to depolarize during a cardiac cycle, of ventricular filling and emptying, if this time is prolonged the heart enters cardiac arrhythmia.