Answer:
2 invasive species
Explanation:
If one species over grows the other there would be little to no genetic diversity. :)
Answer: Its D: Interbreeding of animals
What is one half or one rod of the
condensed chromatin called?
A DNA
B chromatin
C chromatid
D chromosome
Final answer:
One half or one rod of condensed chromatin is known as a c) chromatid. The two identical halves of a chromosome are sister chromatids, and they are connected at a structure called the centromere. The first level of DNA organization is aided by histones.
Explanation:
One half of condensed chromatin is called a chromatid. During the cell cycle, specifically after the DNA has replicated during the S phase, eukaryotic DNA condenses and coils into an X-shaped structure known as a chromosome. This chromosome is composed of two identical parts referred to as sister chromatids. These sister chromatids are held together at a region termed the centromere. Before the cell proceeds to division through mitosis, these chromatids are attached at their centromeres, and they will eventually separate to be allocated to each daughter cell.
The correct answer is C. chromatid. Furthermore, in a eukaryotic cell, the first level of DNA organization is maintained by histones which help package the DNA into structural units called nucleosomes. The histones and chaperone proteins aid in condensing the DNA and preventing it from becoming tangled.
What do huge and giant stars become as they become older and larger
Suppose there are 50 couples with the same blood type and hemoglobin genotypes. They live on a small, isolated Pacific island on which very few mosquitoes have been identified. All the individuals are heterozygous for type A blood and have sickle cell trait. The 50 couples had 224 children over the years. The children were all tested for blood type and for the presence of the sickle cell allele.
Here are the results. Testing Results Blood Test Results Number of Children Type A, normal RBCs 48 Type O, normal RBCs 18 Type A, sickle cell trait 92 Type O, sickle cell trait 33 Type A, sickle cell disease 27 Type O, sickle cell disease 6 Are these data significant? Explain using a chi-square statistical analysis test.
a. What is χ2 ?
b. Calculate df.
c. Using the critical values table, determine the P value.
d. Interpret the P value as it relates to these data. Explain the significance.
From what you know about hemoglobin, sickle cell disease, and blood type, what selection pressure is acting on this population of children and causing the null hypothesis to be rejected? Explain your answer. (Hint: Look at the actual differences between the observed and expected numbers.)
Answer:
Explanation:
Observed phenotype(o)Expected(e) (o-e) (o-e)²/ e
Type A, normal RBCs 48 42 6 0.86
Type O, normal RBCs 18 14 4 1.14
Type A,sickle cell trait 92 84 8 0.76
Type O,sickle cell trait 33 28 5 0.89
Type A,sickle cell Dx 27 42 -15 5.36
Type O, sickle cell Dx 6 14 -8 4.57
a. chi-square value x² = 13.58
b. the degrees of freedom (df).
df = 6 – 1 = 5
c. Using the Critical Values Table, we determine the p value. p < 0.05 (0.025 < p <0.01)
d. To Interpret the p value as it relates to these data and explain the significance.
Since p < 0.05, the null hypothesis is rejected, this suggests that there is a statistically significant
difference between the observed and expected data. Therefore, the difference between the observed and expected data is not solely due to chance.
e. From what you know about hemoglobin, sickle cell disease, and blood type, what selection pressure is acting on this population of children causing the null hypothesis to be rejected? Explain your answer. (Hint: Look at the actual
differences between the observed and expected numbers).
This population of individuals is isolated on a small Pacific island on which very little or no quality healthcare is available. Thus, there is selection against the children with sickle cell disease. The presence of this selection pressure distort the observed numbers from the expected values, causing the null hypothesis to be rejected, which suggests that something other than chance is acting on the population which would be the selection against the SS genotype in this case.
Answer:
x2= 13.58
Explanation:
χ2 =sum ( o− e) ^2 /e
χ2 = 13.58
degree of freedom = 6 – 1 = 5
using the critical values table,
P value.
P < 0.05 (0.025 < P < 0.01)
As P < 0.05, the null hypothesis is rejected,
This indicates that there is a statistically significant difference between the observed and expected data.
Accept------ Alternative hypothesis :
================
null hypothesis :
there was NO significant difference between the observed and expected data.
Alternative hypothesis :
there was significant difference between the observed and expected data.
Can someone help I’m really going crazy because of quarantine pleaseHELP!
same i miss my friends :((
Answer:same I miss everyone but I think we are going back to school soon
Explanation:
Which of the following choices supports a circular economy?
A. Products that come with lots of packaging
B. Public libraries with lots of books
C. Free shipping with purchase of $50 or more
D. Memberships at warehouse superstores
LES
Answer:
B. Public libraries with lots of books.
Public libraries with lots of books support a circular economy.
The correct option is B. Public libraries with lots of books.
What is the concept of the circular economy?A circular economy involves markets that supply incentives to reusing merchandise, rather than scrapping them and then extracting new sources. In such a financial system, all kinds of waste, including clothes, scrap metal, and obsolete electronics, are back into the economy or used more efficaciously.
A circular economy is a version of manufacturing and intake, which includes sharing, leasing, reusing, repairing, refurbishing and recycling present substances and products as long as viable.
it is a trade to the model wherein resources are mined, made into products, after which turn out to be waste. A circular economy system reduces material use, redesigns materials to be much less useful resources in-depth, and recaptures “waste” as a resource to fabricate new materials and products.
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Tubular reabsorption: a) involves the movement of a substance from the peritubular capillary blood into the tubular fluid. b) involves the movement of a substance from the tubular fluid into the peritubular capillary blood. c) is considered to be active if any one of the steps of transepithelial transport is active. d) both [a] and [c] e) both [b] and [c]
Final answer:
Tubular reabsorption is the process where substances are transported from tubular fluid back into the peritubular capillary blood, primarily via active transport, which involves energy expenditure, such as the use of ATP.
Explanation:
Tubular reabsorption involves the movement of substances from tubular fluid into the peritubular capillary blood. During this process, substances such as water, electrolytes, and nutrients, which were previously filtered out of the blood and into the renal tubule, are moved back into the blood. Various transport mechanisms are involved in tubular reabsorption, including active transport, passive diffusion, facilitated diffusion, co-transport, and endocytosis. Active transport is essential for substances like sodium (Na+), which is actively reabsorbed in the proximal convoluted tubule (PCT), and then water follows due to osmotic pressure differences, facilitated by the presence of aquaporins. This results in reabsorption steps that can be classified as active if one of the transport mechanisms requires energy, such as ATP.
g You are performing DNA sequencing reactions as part of your job as a employee at GeneTech, Inc. In your current project, you are attempting to sequence a 700 bp DNA fragment sent by a customer. After the reaction has begun, you realize that due to a decimal error, you accidentally added the fluorescently labeled di-deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (ddATP, ddGTP, ddCTP, ddTTP) at ten times higher than the desired concentration. What do you expect will be the consequence of this mistake?
Answer:
The consequence of this error will be the waste of material, since several nucleotides were placed in the reaction and will not be used.
Explanation:
There are several DNA sequencing protocols and although we don't know which one the GeneTech, Inc. employee is using, we can say that the fluorescence-labeled di-deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates will be used to make countless copies of the DNA particle that he wants to sequence.
As we know, DNA replication separates the DNA strands and uses each strand to make copies of new DNA molecules. These copies are made with the DNA polymerase enzyme by adding deoxyribonucleosides to the new tapes. As the enzyme is highly regulated and has a DNA strand as a template for the new strands, it will not add nucleotides beyond what is necessary.
Therefore, by placing excess di-deoxyribonucleoside triphosphates in the reaction, the consequence will be just the waste of product.
Roots also play an important role in water transport. Which plays the most important role in the movement of water through a plant--the absorption of water by the roots or the evaporation of water from the leaves
Answer: plant--the absorption of water by the roots
Explanation: plants root aids the absorption of water and nutrients from the soil. Water is an important constittuents in plants when's its not adequate it could lead to wilting of the plant. Attach to the root is root hair this is what help in absorption of water and nutrients from the soil before it is been transported round the cell by xylem tissue. Water is moved through osmotic pressure from the region of higher concentration to low. The process of photosynthesis in plant requires water without the function of the root for absorption plants cannot actively photosynthesis. Hence root play an important role in water transport in plant .
Transpiration is loss of water from leave surface. The water been loss is
Which do you think is most important about sleep? Write 2-3 sentences to explain
Answer:Sleep helps keep your heart healthy
A regular sleep pattern can help to lower the levels of stress and inflammation to your cardiovascular system, which in turn can reduce your chances of a heart condition.
Explanation:
Hope this helps
Stay Safe
plz give me brainiest
Answer:
sleep helps your body get energy for the next day.
It is true beacuse you learn it in school and the next day when you wake up you dont feel exhausted or weak. That only happens when you run outside too much. you shouldnt do that during this time, even during quarinten
Explanation:
Use the diagram below to explain the difference between primary and secondary succession and give an example for each one
Answer:
Primary succession occurs following an opening of a pristine habitat. Secondary succession is a response to a disturbance.
Primary and secondary succession are two types of ecological succession, which describe the processes of ecosystem development and change over time. Here's an explanation of the differences between primary and secondary succession, along with examples for each:
Primary succession occurs in areas that are devoid of soil or lack any significant life forms. It starts from bare rock, lava flows, sand dunes, or newly formed land surfaces. The process begins with pioneer species, such as lichens and mosses, that can colonize the barren environment.
Secondary succession occurs in areas that have previously supported life but have been disturbed or disrupted by events such as fires, hurricanes, or human activities (e.g., deforestation, abandoned agricultural land).
Therefore, primary succession occurs in areas without soil or previous life, starting from bare rock or other non-living substrates. Secondary succession occurs in areas with existing soil and previous life, following disturbances that disrupt the established ecosystem.
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Certain substances pass from the blood in the glomerular capillaries into the ultrafiltrate under normal circumstances. Other substances will only appear in the ultrafiltrate under abnormal circumstances. Categorize the following substances' appearance in the ultrafiltrate into normal and abnormal.
1. Albumin (a protein)
2. Amino acid
3. Glucose
4. NaCl
5. Plasma
6. Red blood cell
7. White blood cell
Final answer:
Under normal circumstances, amino acids, glucose, NaCl, and plasma appear in the ultrafiltrate. Albumin, red blood cells, and white blood cells are considered abnormal.
Explanation:
Under normal circumstances, the appearance of substances in the ultrafiltrate is as follows:
Normal: Amino acids, glucose, NaCl, and plasma
Abnormal: Albumin (a protein), red blood cells, white blood cells
In normal conditions, substances like albumin and blood cells should not be found in the ultrafiltrate. If they are present, it indicates abnormal circumstances such as kidney damage or disease.
Individuals with peanut allergies can exhibit a variety of symptoms following exposure to the peanut allergies. These symptoms can include a runny nose, skin reactions such as hives, itching in the mouth and throat, digestive problems such as cramps, diarrhea or vomiting, and shortness of breath or wheezing. This variety of symptoms is a result of:
Answer:
food-induced anaphylaxis
Explanation:
Peanut allergy involves life-threathening symptoms such as skin reactions such as hives, itching in the mouth and throat, a runny nose, diarrhea or vomiting, shortness of breath or wheezing and digestive problems.
Sympotoms of peanut allergy is the result of food-induced anaphylaxis, a serious allergic reaction which require treatment with an epinephrine injector.
Peanut allergy are caused when immune systme mistakenly identifies peanut proteins as harmful. With the Direct or indirect contact of peanuts allows immune system to release such symptom that causes chemicals into the bloodstream.
Hence, the correct answer is food-induced anaphylaxis.
Answer:
The food Induces Anaphylaxis
Explanation:
Peanut allergy is more frequent in children and it occurs due to a medical condition called Anaphylaxis.
Peanut contains protein, symptoms occur when protein in peanut are been seen or read by the immune system as something harmful leading to the release of chemicals in the body the shows the various allergy symptoms.
People could take in peanut through direct consumption of peanut and its product, through body contact with it or Indirectly
this occurs when peanut is accidentally processed with food product leading to it consumption. All this can lead to allergy reaction from Anaphylaxis.
Children with allergy to peanut often outgrow it but there is possibility of it to occur again.
In a control experiment, a plasmid containing a HindIII recognition sequence within a kanamycin resistance gene is cut with HindIII, religated, and used to transform E.coli K12 cells. Kanamycin-resistant colonies are selected, and plasmid DNA from these colonies is subjected to electrophoresis. Most of the colonies contain plasmids that produce single bands that migrate at the same rate as the original intact plasmid. A few colonies, however, produce two bands, one of original size and one that migrates much higher in the gel. Propose the origin of this slow band as a product of ligation.
Answer:
The origin could be a different DNA plasmid.
Explanation:
The band that migrates at a slow rate is probably a full plasmid that is selected in a few kanamycin-resistant colonies. However there is a possibility that some plasmids that were religated after the cut with Hind III produced some ligations of more than one plasmid creating a double resistance plasmid, for instance.
Final answer:
The slow band observed in a few colonies during electrophoresis in this control experiment can be attributed to the ligation process. When the plasmid is religated, it is possible for an extra piece of DNA to be incorporated, resulting in the higher migrating band in the gel.
Explanation:
In this control experiment, a plasmid containing a HindIII recognition sequence within a kanamycin resistance gene is cut with HindIII, religated, and used to transform E.coli K12 cells. The kanamycin-resistant colonies are then selected and the plasmid DNA from these colonies is subjected to electrophoresis. Most of the colonies produce single bands that migrate at the same rate as the original intact plasmid. However, a few colonies produce two bands, one of original size and one that migrates much higher in the gel.
The origin of this slow band can be attributed to the ligation process. When the plasmid is religated after being cut with HindIII, it is possible for the religation to result in the formation of a circular plasmid with an extra piece of DNA. This extra piece of DNA could be from a different region of the plasmid, resulting in the higher migrating band in the gel.
Which statement describes an operon? heritable changes in gene expression that occur without altering the DNA sequence the processing of exons in mRNA that results in a single gene coding for multiple proteins a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand mRNA modifications, such as the addition of a 5′ ‑cap and 3′ poly‑A tail and the removal of introns protein modifications such as the addition of a functional group, or alternate folding of the protein
Answer:
A gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand
Explanation:
Operon are set of genes transcribed under the control of an operator gene.It consists of an operator, promoter, regulator and structural genes.
An operon is very important and is regarded as the functional unit of transcription and genetic regulation.
It is also known as a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand
An operon is a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand.
Explanation:An operon is a gene cluster controlled by a single promoter that transcribes to a single mRNA strand. It consists of multiple genes that are transcribed together as a single unit in prokaryotic cells. The expression of the operon can be activated or repressed depending on cellular needs and the surrounding environment.
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A technique known as polymerase chain reaction (PCR) is able to produce millions of copies of a DNA molecule in only a few hours. Which of the following cellular processes is PCR most similar to? Choose 1 answer: Choose 1 answer: (Choice A) A Translation (Choice B) B Replication (Choice C) C Transcription (Choice D) D Mitosis
Answer:
B. Replication
Explanation:
The process of replication is similar to the process of PCR which involves the production of many copies of DNA molecules. the process of replication is also a fundamental process in the cell. This process facilitates the production of a new copy of the DNA molecule which is to be transferred to each daughter cells after division.
Lamont made a study chart about seed plants.
Functions of Seed Plants
х
• absorb water and minerals
• carry substances through plant
• store food
• provide structure and support
• grow downward due to gravitropism . can be woody or herbaceous
Which headings best complete the chart?
O X: Stems
Y: Roots
X: Roots
Y: Stems
X: Xylem
Y: Phloem
X: Phloem
VV
Answer:
it’s b
Explanation:
Answer:
b
Explanation:
The back of a water droplet acts as a mirror. When light hits the back of the water droplet it bounces back to our
eyes. This is called
refraction
evaporation
conduction
reflection
Answer:
reflection
Explanation:
What are the Animal cells label?
Answer:Here they are.
Explanation:
Cell Membrane
The thin layer of protein and fat that surrounds the cell. The cell membrane is semipermeable, allowing some substances to pass into the cell and blocking others.
Centrosome (Microtubule Organizing Center)
A small body located near the nucleus - it has a dense center and radiating tubules. The centrosomes is where microtubules are made. During cell division (mitosis), the centrosome divides and the two parts move to opposite sides of the dividing cell. The centriole is the dense center of the centrosome.
Cytoplasm
The jellylike material outside the cell nucleus in which the organelles are located.
Golgi body (Golgi Apparatus/Golgi Complex)
A flattened, layered, sac-like organelle that looks like a stack of pancakes and is located near the nucleus. It produces the membranes that surround the lysosomes. The Golgi body packages proteins and carbohydrates into membrane-bound vesicles for “export” from the cell.
Lysosome (Cell Vesicles)
Round organelles surrounded by a membrane and containing digestive enzymes. This is where the digestion of cell nutrients takes place.
Mitochondrion
Spherical to rod-shaped organelles with a double membrane. The inner membrane is infolded many times, forming a series of projections (called cristae). The mitochondrion converts the energy stored in glucose into ATP (adenosine triphosphate) for the cell.
Nuclear Membrane
The membrane that surrounds the nucleus.
Nucleolus
An organelle within the nucleus - it is where ribosomal RNA is produced. Some cells have more than one nucleolus.
Nucleus
Spherical body containing many organelles, including the nucleolus. The nucleus controls many of the functions of the cell (by controlling protein synthesis) and contains DNA (in chromosomes). The nucleus is surrounded by the nuclear membrane.
Ribosome
Small organelles composed of RNA-rich cytoplasmic granules that are sites of protein synthesis.
Rough Endoplasmic Reticulum (Rough ER)
A vast system of interconnected, membranous, infolded and convoluted sacks that are located in the cell’s cytoplasm (the ER is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane). Rough ER is covered with ribosomes that give it a rough appearance. Rough ER transports materials through the cell and produces proteins in sacks called cisternae (which are sent to the Golgi body, or inserted into the cell membrane).
Smooth Endoplasmic Reticulum (Smooth ER)
A vast system of interconnected, membranous, infolded and convoluted tubes that are located in the cell’s cytoplasm (the ER is continuous with the outer nuclear membrane). The space within the ER is called the ER lumen. Smooth ER transports materials through the cell. It contains enzymes and produces and digests lipids (fats) and membrane proteins; smooth ER buds off from rough ER, moving the newly-made proteins and lipids to the Golgi body, lysosomes, and membranes.
Vacuole
Fluid-filled, membrane-surrounded cavities inside a cell. The vacuole fills with food being digested and waste material that is on its way out of the cell.
Answer:
cytoplasm
cell membrane
mitochondrion
chloroplast
ER
Nucleus
Golgi Apparatus
Nuclear Envelope
Ribosom
Lysosomes
Explanation:
Hope this helps!
Which is Not a feature found on the ocean floor?
a- Rift valley
b- Trench
c- Continental shelf
d- Estuary
Answer:
D- Estuary
Explanation:
estuaries are where the tide meets a stream, they happen above the water/not very deep in the water
Answer:
I think it is D
I have studied this before. :)
A(n) ______ is a stretch of DNA consisting of an operator, a promoter, and genes for a related set of proteins, usually making up an entire metabolic pathway.
The _________ is/are arranged sequentially after the promoter
A(n) ______ is a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that binds RNA polymerase, positioning it to start transcribing RNA at the appropriate place.
A(n) _______ codes for a protein, such as a repressor, that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.
Regulatory proteins bind to the ________ to control expression of the operon.
A(n) ______ is a protein that inhibits gene transcription. In prokaryotes, this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.
A(n) ______ is a specific small molecule that binds to a bacterial regulatory protein and changes its shape so that it cannot bind to an operator, thus switching an operon on.
Answers:
A(n) operon is a stretch of DNA consisting of an operator, a promoter, and genes for a related set of proteins, usually making up an entire metabolic pathway.
The Gene of an operon is arranged sequentially after the promoter
A(n) promoter is a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that binds RNA polymerase, positioning it to start transcribing RNA at the appropriate place.
A(n) regulatory gene codes for a protein, such as a repressor, that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.
Regulatory proteins bind to the operator to control expression of the operon.
A(n) repressor is a protein that inhibits gene transcription. In prokaryotes, this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.
A(n) inducer is a specific small molecule that binds to a bacterial regulatory protein and changes its shape so that it cannot bind to an operator, thus switching an operon on.
Answer:
A(n) operon is a stretch of DNA consisting of an operator, a promoter, and genes for a related set of proteins, usually making up an entire metabolic pathway.
The genes of an operon is/are arranged sequentially after the promoter.
A(n) promoter is a specific nucleotide sequence in DNA that binds RNA polymerase, positioning it to start transcribing RNA at the appropriate place.
A(n) regulatory gene codes for a protein, such as a repressor, that controls the transcription of another gene or group of genes.
Regulatory proteins often bind to the operator to control expression of the operon.
A(n) repressor is a protein that inhibits gene transcription. In bacteria, this protein binds to the DNA in or near the promoter.
A(n) inducer is a specific small molecule that binds to a bacterial repressor protein and changes its shape so that it cannot bind to an operator, thus switching an operon on.
Tryptophan synthase is one of the enzymes synthesized from the trp mRNA. In wildâtype E. coli, the trp mRNA has a short halfâlife, but the tryptophan synthase halfâlife is much longer. To investigate how changes to the stability of the enzyme or its mRNA affect enzyme activity, two strains of E. coli were engineered. Strain A stabilizes the trp mRNA and strain B rapidly degrades tryptophan synthase. The wildâtype, A, and B strains were grown in a medium with glucose as the sole carbon source. After several generations, tryptophan was added to all three cultures and tryptophan synthase activity was measured periodically.
Select the statements that describe the expected change in tryptophan synthase activity after the addition of tryptophan
Note: Evaluate each condition as a simple model, where changes in the stability of trp mRNA or tryptophan synthase do not elicit secondary effects in the cells
A. In the wild-type strain, trp mRNA is unstable and will be degraded rapidly. As the cells continue to divide, trýptophan synthase will be diluted out and enzyme activity per cell will decrease
B. In strain A, the trp mRNA is stable and tryptophan synthase will continue to be synthesized However, as the cultures grow the tryptophan synthase will be diluted and the amount of enzyme activity will slowly decrease
C. In the wild-type strain, the trp mRNA is degraded rapidly. However, since the tryptophan synthase is stable, the enzyme activity per cell will remain unchanged as the cells divide
D. In strain A, the trp mRNA is stable but the presence of tryptophan in the medium will cause the degradation of tryptophan synthase and abruptly decrease enzyme activity
E. In strain B, since both the trp mRNA and tryptophan synthase are rapidly degraded, the enzymee activity will drastically decrease.
Answer:
Explanation:
we have three strains.
the first is the wild type which has tryptophan mRNA which gets degraded rapidly and tryptophan synthase which is stable. therefore, in the presence of tryptophan, no new mRNA is formed and whatever tryptophan synthase was present would be diluted out as cells continue to divide.
Strain A has stable mRNA and stable tryptophan synthase. so since the mRNA is present, new enzyme will continue to form from it. However, since no new mRNA is formed, the enzyme activity will get diluted as cells divide, but at a much slower rate than the wild type.
in Strain B , synthase is rapidly degraded and no new mRNA is formed. so the tryptophan synthase activity would decrease drastically.
Based on the conditions presented, we can expect a decrease in tryptophan synthase activity in all strains upon the addition of tryptophan, due to factors like mRNA instability, enzymatic dilution, and rapid enzymatic degradation.
Explanation:To evaluate the potential changes in tryptophan synthase activity upon the addition of tryptophan, the following can be considered:
A. In the wild-type strain, the trp mRNA is degraded fast, leading to the dilution of tryptophan synthase as cells divide and a subsequent decrease in enzyme activity per cell. B. In Strain A, trp mRNA is stable, hence, continuous synthesis of tryptophan synthase is expected. However, the increase in cell count due to the growth of the cultures can lead to dilution, thus enzyme activity can decrease over time.E. For Strain B, both trp mRNA and tryptophan synthase are rapidly degraded. This leads to an almost immediate and drastic reduction in enzyme activity.Learn more about Tryptophan Synthase Activity here:https://brainly.com/question/28136635
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please in your own words. how do energy packets (solar radiation and infrared radiation) interact with the clouds to cool the planet.
Energy packets interact with the clouds to cool the planet is given below.
Explanation:
1. Solar radiation is reflected by the clouds' surfaces. ... The reflection helps to keep the heat in the atmosphere, while the passing through allows the heat to escape the Earth system.
2.Low, thick clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth. High, thin clouds primarily transmit incoming solar radiation; at the same time, they trap some of the outgoing infrared radiation emitted by the Earth and radiate it back downward, thereby warming the surface of the Earth.
3.Air in the atmosphere acts as a fluid. The sun's radiation strikes the ground, thus warming the rocks. As the rock's temperature rises due to conduction, heat energy is released into the atmosphere, forming a bubble of air which is warmer than the surrounding air. This bubble of air rises into the atmosphere.
4.Once in the Earth's atmosphere, clouds and the surface absorb the solar energy. The ground heats up and re-emits energy as longwave radiation in the form of infrared rays. Earth emits longwave radiation because Earth is cooler than the sun and has less energy available to give off
5.Clouds both cool and warm the earth's surface. They cool the earth by bouncing sunlight back into the atmosphere; they warm it by bouncing light down to Earth's surface. The net cloud effect is what scientists need to obtain. To do that, they measured the total amount of sunlight in a cloudy day.
how is the geologic time scale divided?
Answer: Geologic time is divided into units. Major changes in the earth's surface or climate and the extinction of species help to divide the time scale into smaller units.
Explanation: Rocks grouped within each unit contain a similar fossil record.
The saying "Don’t judge a book by its cover." could be applied to the topic of evolution. For example, humans share 75% of their DNA with chickens. Biologists point to this as evidence that humans and chickens once shared a common ancestor. The advent of DNA technology has given scientists the tools with which to examine how closely related certain species are. DNA analysis allows scientists to construct phylogenetic trees whose branches link together the relatedness of different organisms.
Answer:
The DNA analysis is very important in evolutionary biology because the level of homology among sequences can be used for tracing the evolutionary relationships among populations, species, genera, families, orders, etc.
Explanation:
The DNA is key for phylogenetic inference because the order of the nucleotide bases in a DNA sequence enables to classify the biodiversity in the tree of life
Final answer:
The saying "Don't judge a book by its cover" underscores the importance of DNA analysis in understanding evolutionary relationships. It illustrates that species with similar appearances may be genetically distant, while those looking different can share significant genetic overlap, such as humans and chimpanzees sharing around 98% of their DNA, indicating a common ancestry.
Explanation:
The saying "Don't judge a book by its cover" applies to evolution by highlighting that the external appearance of species can be deceptive when it comes to their genetic relatedness. With the aid of DNA technology, scientists can directly compare the genes of different species. For instance, humans and chimpanzees share approximately 98% of their DNA, which suggests a recent common ancestor, supporting the theory of evolution.
Phylogenetic trees are constructed using DNA analysis to illustrate the connections between species. The more similar the DNA sequences are, the more recently two species likely shared a common ancestor. Mutations serve as a molecular clock to trace back the lineages and construct these trees. These genetic similarities and differences are powerful tools for understanding the vast evolutionary journey of life on Earth.
Select the correct match. Two plants in the same family are in the same _______. If two plants are in the same order, are they in the same family? If two plants are in the same family, are they in the same order? Do two plants more likely have a recent shared common ancestor if they are in the same order or in the same class? If plant species A and plant species B are in the same family, and plant species C is in a different family, which pair of species listed likely has the more recent common ancestor?
Answer:
The correct answers are "order; no; order; plant species A and plant species B".
Explanation:
Species are categorized in different taxonomic ranks according to physical and genetic features that establish the degree of similarity between species. For instance, two species that are in the same order have a more recent common ancestor than two species that have the same class. Also, two species that have the same genus share the other taxonomic ranks that are in an upper section. In this case, two plants in the same family are in the same order (the next taxonomic rank) however, two plants that are in the same order not necessary are in the same family.
Final answer:
Plants are classified into hierarchical taxonomic groups. Two plants in the same family are in the same order, but two plants in the same order are not necessarily in the same family. The more recent common ancestor can be determined based on whether the plants are in the same order or the same class.
Explanation:
In biology, organisms are classified into hierarchical taxonomic groups. Two plants in the same family are in the same order. However, two plants in the same order are not necessarily in the same family. The closeness of a common ancestor can be determined by looking at whether the plants are in the same order or in the same class. If plant species A and plant species B are in the same family, while plant species C is in a different family, the pair of species A and B likely has the more recent common ancestor.
Paulo makes the argument that the asteroid strike that likely contributed to the extinction of the dinosaurs was a short-tem environmental change because it happened so quickly.
Which is the best analysis of Paulo’s position?
He is correct; it happened in just a few seconds.
He is correct; it did not cause any long-term changes.
He is incorrect; it caused long-term changes.
He is incorrect; impacts are not environmental changes.
Answer:
3rd one.
Explanation:
I would say that because after the immediate results of the impact, the dust and debris settled into the atmosphere, blocking out the sun and creating a nuclear winter of sorts. I'd say the winter killed more dinosaurs than the asteroid impact.
The best analysis of Paulo's position is: He is incorrect; impacts are not environmental changes and the correct option is option 4.
While the asteroid strike that likely contributed to the extinction of the dinosaurs did happen relatively quickly in geological terms, it resulted in significant long-term changes to the environment. The impact caused a massive release of energy, triggering wildfires, tsunamis, and a global-scale dust cloud that blocked sunlight. These immediate effects had immediate and devastating consequences for many organisms.
Furthermore, the aftermath of the impact led to long-term changes in the environment. The dust cloud caused a decrease in sunlight, leading to a significant drop in temperature and disrupted photosynthesis. This, in turn, had cascading effects on the food chain and ecosystems. The loss of plant life and subsequent collapse of food webs had long-lasting impacts on both terrestrial and marine ecosystems.
Thus, the ideal selection is option 4.
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7. How are a white dwarf and a planetary nebula related?
Final answer:
A white dwarf is the core remnant of a star that has shed its outer layers to form a planetary nebula, and eventually cools into a white dwarf. There are more white dwarfs than planetary nebulae because nebulae are short-lived. In stellar evolution, white dwarfs can be involved in events like novas and Type Ia supernovae when in binary systems.
Explanation:
A white dwarf and a planetary nebula are related in the final stages of a star's life cycle. When a star of a certain size exhausts its nuclear fuel, it expands and sheds its outer layers, creating a planetary nebula. The core that remains eventually becomes a white dwarf, which is the dense remnant of the star's core. Over time, the planetary nebula disperses into space, leaving the white dwarf. This explains why there are more white dwarfs than planetary nebulas in the Galaxy since the planetary nebulas are ephemeral, while white dwarfs can exist for billions of years before cooling to become black dwarfs.
In the Orion Nebula, an active star-forming region, it would be unlikely to find white dwarfs because this nebula is relatively young, and stars within it have not yet evolved to that stage of their life cycle. Additionally, in binary star systems, a white dwarf can receive material from its companion star, potentially leading to novas or even Type Ia supernovae if certain conditions are met, such as exceeding the Chandrasekhar limit or the merger of two white dwarfs.
White dwarfs differ from neutron stars in that a white dwarf is supported against gravity by electron degeneracy pressure, whereas a neutron star is supported by neutron degeneracy pressure. Both are dense, collapsed stars, but neutron stars are the denser and smaller remnants of supernova explosions of more massive stars, while white dwarfs are the remnants of less massive stars.
A micrograph of dividing cells from a rat, a diploid animal, shows a cell where 21 pairs of sister chromatids are being pulled apart.
Which stage of cell division could such a photo have been taken?
a) Anaphase 1 of meiosis
b) Anaphase II of meiosis
c) Anaphase of mitosis O
d) Telophase 1 of meiosis
e) Telophase of mitosis
Answer:
b) Anaphase II of meiosisExplanation:
1. Meiosis is the process of cell division in which one cell is divided into four daughter cell, each contains equal number of chromosome, half the number of chromosomes as compared to parental cell.
2. In meiosis I, DNA duplication occurs but the sister chromatids are not separated, only homologous pair of chromosomes are separated, so this is called reductional division.
3. In meiosis II, chromatids are pulled apart and and are separated into different chromosomes, so it is called equational division. There is no DNA duplication in meiosis II.
The correct stage of cell division for the photo showing 21 pairs of sister chromatids being pulled apart in a rat cell is Anaphase of mitosis.
Explanation:The correct answer to this question would be c) Anaphase of mitosis. During the anaphase stage of mitosis, the sister chromatids of each chromosome are being pulled apart to opposite ends of the cell. We know it must be mitosis because the cell in the micrograph is a somatic (body) cell with a diploid number of chromosomes. In a rat, the diploid number is 42 (21 pairs), matching the number of pairs of sister chromatids being pulled apart.
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what are the six kingdoms of life?
Answer:
Archaebacteria, Eubacteria, Fungi, Protista, Plants, Animals
Explanation:
When disinfecting a whirlpool foot spa after use by a client, you must circulate the disinfectant for ______________ or the length of time indicated on the product label.
Answer:
10 minutes
Explanation: