The correct answer is C. Obsessive-compulsive disorder
Explanation
Obsessive-compulsive disorder or OCD is a psychiatric or mental disorder in which people mainly shows compulsion or repetitive behaviors and obsession which become repetitive and automatic as the individual is unable to control these behaviors which leads to issues in the individual's daily life. Because of this, in OCDs behaviors such as counting certain elements compulsively, storing objects in a certain way, repetitive hand washing, doing certain actions a specific number of times and checking if the doors are locked over and over are common. Additionally, this type of disorder is linked to anxiety disorder as irrational anxiety and fears can lead to compulsions and disorders. Considering this, it can be concluded it is Obsessive-compulsive disorder the disorder that consists of behaviors such as repetitive hand washing, checking if doors are locked, etc.
On the 1 AM rounds, the nurse finds a patient awake and frustrated that she cannot go to sleep. The nurse administers an ordered hypnotic to help the patient sleep. Two hours later, the nurse finds the patient out of bed, full of energy, cleaning her room, and singing. Which of the following describes what is happening?
a. An allergic reaction
b. An idiosyncratic response
c. A teratogenic effect
d. A synergistic effect
Answer:
B. An idiosyncratic response.
Explanation:
It is also known as Type B response and is unusual or abnormal responses to a drug by an individual. This response cannot be reproduced in a substantial number of subjects in the population.
Normally they occur when the patient is first exposed to a new drug that had not been fully tested about its possible side-effects.
I hope this answer helps you.
Which statement is best to document a patient's behavior in an unbiased way?
a. "The patient's hostility created difficulties for the nursing staff."
b. "The patient threw the water pitcher across the room during shift change."
c. "The patient's rudeness prevented administration of his medications."
d. "The patient's dressing change was interrupted by his belligerent behavior."
The correct option is b. ""The patient threw the water pitcher across the room during shift change.""
To document a patient's behavior in an unbiased way, it is important to describe the observable behaviors without adding interpretations, judgments, or assumptions. The statement in option b simply describes an action that was observed without attributing a motive or characterizing the patient's behavior in a subjective way.
Let's analyze each option:
a. ""The patient's hostility created difficulties for the nursing staff."" - This statement is biased because it includes an interpretation of the patient's behavior as ""hostile,"" which is a subjective term.
b. ""The patient threw the water pitcher across the room during shift change."" - This statement is objective and factual, describing a specific behavior without interpretation or judgment.
c. ""The patient's rudeness prevented administration of his medications."" - Similar to option a, this statement uses the subjective term ""rudeness"" to describe the patient's behavior, which is an interpretation rather than a direct observation.
d. ""The patient's dressing change was interrupted by his belligerent behavior."" - Again, this statement uses a subjective term, ""belligerent,"" to describe the patient's behavior, which is not an unbiased observation.
Therefore, option b is the best choice for documenting the patient's behavior in an unbiased manner. It reports the facts without including personal opinions or interpretations."
During what stage of spermatogenesis do the developing sperm lose most of their organelles and cytoplasm?
a. capacitation
b. spermiation
c meiotic division
d. spermiogenesis
e. mitotic division
Answer: d. spermiogenesis
Explanation:
Spermatogenesis is a process that occurs in the testicles, the male gonads. The cells of the testicles are organized around the seminiferous tubules, in which the sperm are produced. Testosterone is secreted by interstitial cells. Surrounding the seminiferous tubules are the Sertoli cells responsible for nutrition and support of the germline cells, that is, those that will generate the sperm. Spermatogenesis is divided into four phases, but we will be looking only at one stage to answer this question:
Spermiogenesis: It is the process that converts spermatids in sperm, losing almost the entire cytoplasm. The vesicles of the Golgi complex fuse together, forming the acrosome, located at the anterior end of sperm. The acrosome contains enzymes that pierce the membranes of the egg, in fertilization. Centrioles migrate to the region immediately after the nucleus of the spermatid and participate in flagella formation, the structure responsible for the movement of sperm.
Answer: b. spermiation
Explanation:
Spermiogenesis is one of the processes of spermatogenesis. In this stage the maturation of spermatids into spermatozoa takes place. The mature spermatozoa are released from the Sertoli cells into the seminiferous tubule, this process is known as spermiation. The spermiation removes the unnecessary cytoplasm and organelles. The mature spermatozoa are mature but it lacks the motility.
What is CHF and pulmonary edema?
Answer:
CHF or Congestive heart failure is defined as a chronic condition in which fluid builds up around the heart and causes it to pump inefficiently. this affects the pumping power of heart muscles. CHF arises when ventricles are unable to pump enough blood volume to body, then blood fills back to lungs, liver, abdomen or other lower body parts.
Most common cause of CHF can be hypertension, valve conditions and coronary artery disease. It can be treated by angiotensin-converting enzyme inhibitors (ACE inhibitors).
Pulmonary edema is defined as a condition in which fluid collects in the air sacs in lungs that makes breathing difficult due to excess fluid in the lungs. One of the cause of Pulmonary edema can be CHF (Congestive heart failure).
The origins of skeletal muscles:
a. represent the attachment to the movable bone
b. is the attachment to the immoveable bone
c. is usually far away from the site of action
d. all of the above are correct
Answer:
The correct answer is option b. is the attachment to the immoveable bone
Explanation:
The origin is the site that doesn't move while muscle contracts. The insertion is the site that does move when the muscle contraction occurs.
The skeletal Muscles in most of the cases have the origin at the attachment to the immovable bones. During contraction, it produces an action or a movement of the appendage.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. is the attachment to the immovable bone.
The process of enlisting more and larger motor units to produce a stronger contraction is called: ________
Answer:
The process is called - Motor unit recruitment.
Explanation:
Motor unit recruitment
Motor unit recruitment helps to increase the contractile strength of the muscle by activation of the additional motor units.
A motor unit consists of motor neuron and all the skeletal muscle fibers that are innervated by axon terminal of the motor neuron. The collection of motor units work together to coordinate contractions of single muscle
Now, when a motor neuron gets activated , all the muscle fibers gets innervated by the motor neuron and stimulated and contracts , this activation of the motor neuron will cause the weak muscle contraction.
As a result , activation of more number of motor neurons will cause more activation of muscle fibers and hence, lead to stronger muscle contraction.
As a result of cold environmental temperatures. T3/T4 production _______:
a. remains unchanged
b. increases
c. decreases
The uterine phase that develops after ovulation due to a rapid fall in progesteronde and estrogen levels after ovulation is
a. the menses
b. the proliferative phase
c. the secretory phase
d. the follicular phase
e. the luteal phase
Answer:
The uterine phase that develops after ovulation due to a rapid fall in progesterone and estrogen levels after ovulation is
a. the menses
b. the proliferative phase
c. the secretory phase
d. the follicular phase
e. the luteal phase
Explanation:
When the follicular phase begins, estrogen and progesterone levels are low. As a consequence, decomposition and shedding of the upper layers of the uterine lining (endometrium) occurs and menstruation takes place.
The answer is: d. the follicular phase.
What is an antigen?
a) a molecule keyed to a particular pathogen that helps target it for destruction
b) a substance that triggers an allergic reaction
c) a substance that triggers an immune response
d) immune cells that ingest and digest pathogens
e) immune cells that insert a fragment of a pathogen into a surface protein
Answer: Option C.
Explanation:
Antigen is defined as a protein or polysaccharide that arises an immune response in lymphocytes. Antigen is a substance that binds to a specific antibody.
For human body, an antigen can be any substance that evokes immune response, Example: dust particle,pollen grain, any food particle. The interaction between antibody and antigen is defined from lock-and-key binding model.
Antigen receptor, are located on B cells and T cells, that binds to antigens and initiates potential immune responses.
Hence, the correct answer is Option C.
Which of the following is not a response to a decrease in blood pressure?
a. Angiotensin II
b. NE
c. ANP
d. ADH
Answer:
ADH.
Explanation:
Antidiuretic hormone (ADH) is also known as vasopressin and released from the posterior pituitary.This is a peptide hormone that regulates the physiological functioning of the body.
ADH hormone increases the blood pressure by constricting the blood arteries increases the insertion of aquaporin in the kidney. Hence, ADH is not a response to decrease in a blood pressure.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Under what conditions is the arrector pili muscle stimulated? What part of the brain would produce an efferent signal to this smooth muscle effector?
Answer:
The pili arrector muscle, or erector muscle of the hair, is a muscle composed of smooth muscle fibers which is innervated by the sympathetic nervous system (SNS). When the hair is erect, what is known as "goosebumps" is produced; This action is involuntary and can be caused by fear, cold, among others. The efferent signals to activate this muscle come from the hypothalamus, brain stem and spinal cord.
The pineal body secretes which hormone that maintains the body's internal clock, the 24-hour wake-sleep cycle, and regulates the onset and duration of sleep?
a. oxytocin
b. calcitonin
c. melatonin
d. cortisol
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: The pineal body secretes which hormone that maintains the body´s internal clock, the 24-hour wake-sleep cycle, and regulates the onset and duration of sleep?, would be, C: Melatonin.
Explanation:
The process of sleep and wakefulness, also called the circadian cycle, its a pretty complex system that is controlled by several parts of the brain, but most importantly, structures of the diencephalon (vital is the hypothalamus), the pineal gland, and the stem of the brain. All these structures, and some others, respond to changes both in light perception by the eyes and other senses, heat, and homeostatic balances. These factor play a vital role in telling the human body that it is time for sleep, or to awaken. The pineal gland, as part of this melody, is essential, as it secretes the hormone, melatonin, in response to light changes. Melatonin will balance out the process of sleep, when it is secreted in high quantities by the pineal gland, and wakefulness, when it is no longer secreted in response to the presence of light. This is what is called the circadian cycle.
differentiate Supraventricular tachycardia vs ventricular tachycardia
Answer:
Ventricular tachycardia:
This tachycardia may be defined as in which the beating of ventricles is not controlled by the sinoatrial node. The heart beating is affected in ventricular tachycardia. The main symptoms of this tachycardia are syncope, dizziness and breath.
Supra-ventricular tachycardia:
This tachycardia may be defined as in which the electrical signals of heart from the upper chamber interferes with the sinoatrial node. The heart beating is increased in supra-ventricular tachycardia. This tachycardia is more commonly found in woman, infants and smokers.
A muscle spindle is composed of several?
Answer:
The muscle spindle is composed of several intrafusal muscle fibers, consisting of three types: static fibers, dynamic fibers and nuclear chain fibers. Its main function is the transmission of proprioceptive information from the body segments to the cortex, it also generates an environment of functional relaxation of the muscles, thus being responsible for avoiding muscle injuries.
Answer:
A muscle spindle fiber is composed of several specialized thin muscle fibers innervated by sensory neurons.
A muscle spindle consists of the several divided muscle fiber which are enclosed in the spindle-shaped connective tissue sac.
Muscle spindle consists of 5-14 muscle fibers. They are dynamic nuclear bag fiber, nuclear chain fibers and static nuclear bag fibers.
They form the muscles of he body that helps in the movement of the skeletal system and movement of the body.
Which of the following ions: K, Cl, or Mg is most similar to the ion trigger for muscles based on its position on the periodic table?
Answer:
Out of K(Potassium), Cl(Chlorine) and Mg(Magnesium) the ion most similar to the ion responsible for trigger for muscles based on its periodic table position is Mg(Magnesium).
Explanation:
Calcium ions are responsible for triggering muscles contraction cycle in the body which binds to troponin (a protein complex of three proteins integral to muscle contraction).
Since, calcium and magnesium belongs to the same block in the periodic table, they have similar chemical properties. So, it is correct to say that Magnesium (Mg) is the most similar ion trigger for muscles activity.
Blood in the urine can be a sign of kidney damage. Why is blood not usually found in the urine of a healthy person?
Explanation:
The reason for the fact that the blood is usually not found in the urine of a healthy person is:
Kidneys are located in back just below the lowest rib. Each kidney is about 4.5 inches long and weighs about 5 ounces. Each kidney contains about a million functional units called nephrons.
Every nephron consists of glomerulus and tubule. Each glomerulus unit functions as tiny filter. Blood in the body passes through these glomerulus, that retains the blood cells and large biomolecules like proteins in circulation while allowing fluid and some small molecules to pass through to tubule.
As the fluid flows through tubules, much of the volume of the liquid is absorbed back in bloodstream. The tubules then join to form collecting system of each kidney. By this point, the concentrated fluid has all characteristics of the urine.
If blood occur in the urine, that means the nephrons cannot function properly which can lead to kidney damage.
Calcium channel blockers mechanism of action. True or False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Calcium channel blockers are NOT a mechanism of action.
A covalent bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the ________.
(a) sharing of electrons.
(b) transfer of electrons
(c) sharing of protons
(d) transfer of protons
Answer:
A. sharing electrons
Explanation:
A covalent bond consists of the simultaneous attraction of two nuclei for one or more pairs of electrons.
A covalent bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the sharing of electrons.
CHEMICAL BONDING:
Atoms of chemical substances/elements are joined together to form compounds and molecules via chemical bonds. There are different types of chemical bonds that exists between the atoms of elements and they include: covalent bonds, ionic bonds, hydrogen bonds etc. Covalent bonds are chemical bonds formed when atoms share electron pairs. Examples of elements and compounds whose atoms are joined by covalent bond are Cl2, O2, H2, CH4, CO2 etc.Therefore, covalent bond between two atoms is formed as a result of the sharing of electrons.
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This hormone causes ejection of milk into ducts during breast-feeding.
a. oxytocin
b. calcitonin
c. LH
d. insulin
e. aldosterone
f. ACTH
Answer:
This hormone causes ejection of milk into ducts during breast-feeding: oxytocin - a.
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of
Answer:
the answer will be delayed cell-mediated immunity
Explanation:
A positive tuberculin skin test is an example of delayed hypersensitivity or Type IV hypersensitivity in immunology. It indicates that the person's immune system has been previously exposed to Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
Explanation:A positive tuberculin skin test is primarily an example of delayed hypersensitivity or Type IV hypersensitivity in medical terminology. When a person is infected with Mycobacterium tuberculosis, the bacteria that cause tuberculosis, our body's immune system responds. The second time it encounters the same pathogen, the immune response is faster and stronger, which is captured by the tuberculin skin test. When the tuberculin, which contains inactivated tuberculosis bacteria, is injected under the skin, any prior exposure to the bacteria will trigger a reaction. This reaction appears as a hard, raised bump on the skin signifying a positive test.
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The external nose functions in :
a. modifying speech vibrations
b. detecting gustatory sensations
c. cooling and drying air entering the respiratory system
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct
Answer:
The answer is E: A, B And C are correct.
Explanation:
The external nasal nose, in addition to its support function, presents others such as detecting odors, either from food or toxic substances; It has valves that initially clean the air entering the lungs, in addition to heating it, Also contributes to speech vibrations.
Give the names of the following body motions produced by muscle actions:
Increases the angel of a joint.
Turns the palm downward.
Decreases the angle of a joint.
Points the toes.
Answer:
Increases the angle of a joint: Extension
Turns the palm downward: Pronation
Decreases the angle of a joint: Flexion
Points the toes (upward): Dorsiflexion
Points the toes (downwards): Plantar flexion
What is the role of the trigger zone? What is summation? Explain.
Answer:
Role of trigger zone:
Trigger zone may be defined as the area present between the junction of cell body, axon and axon hillock. This is the area where chemically regulated and voltage regulated gate meets. The depolarization of cell and propagation of action potential occur at this area.
Summation:
Summation may be defined as the additive effect of the electrical impulse on the junction between the muscle cell and nerve cell. The individual stimuli cannot generate a response, but they together can generate an action potential.
It is a clinic where patients with skin ailments are referred to.
a. actinic keratosis
b. biopsy
c. cicatrices
d. dermatitis
e. dermatology
f. keloids
g. pruritus
h. ulcers
i. vesicles
j. emollients
Answer:
e. dermatology
What is Satiety? what kind of foods tend to give more satiety?)
Answer:
Satiety is the sensation that occurs in the body of not needing food intake. It is a mechanism of stability of the organism where the food that passes through the intestine sends an order to the brain, to report that it does not need more nutrients, information that travels through the vagus nerve or X cranial nerve.
The following are some of the foods that produce more satiety:
- Egg
- potato
- fish
- Oatmeal
- whole grains
Answer:
Explanation:
Satiety is a state in which the person feels the satisfaction of feeding and is not able to consume more. It is a state where the hunger of a person gets suppressed after having a meal. The feeling of satiety will influence a person's diet that is how much a person eat and how soon.
The following kind of foods tend to give more satiety:
1. High in protein and fats: The process of digestion of protein and fats in the body is slow so this will help in keeping the stomach full for long time.
2. High in fiber: The foods containing fibers provide bulk to the food, which helps to feel full for longer and slows down the rate of digestion.
3. High in volume: The foods which contain more water and air also delay digestion.
4. Low in energy density: The foods low in calories typically have a lot of water and fiber which keep the stomach full.
What event triggers the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter?
Peristalsis in the Esophagus event triggers the opening of the gastroesophageal sphincter.
Explanation:
In the esophagus, there are two types of peristalsis occurs.The first one is a "primary peristaltic wave" occurs through which bolus enters esophagus during swallowing. This "wave pushes the bolus down esophagus", into stomach in a wave lasting about 8–9 seconds.The esophageal sphincter in the lower region is separated by both sympathetic and parasymphathetic nerves. The pathways of vagal are a major for the relaxation of reflex of LES and this occurs in LES relaxations.The gastroesophageal sphincter is triggered to open by the act of swallowing and the pressure exerted by the bolus of food. When food nears the stomach, the esophagus distends, leading to the relaxation and opening of the sphincter, allowing food to pass into the stomach. Absence of food pressure keeps the sphincter shut, preventing the reflux of stomach contents into the esophagus.
Explanation:The gastroesophageal sphincter, which is a ring-like muscle located at the stomach end of the esophagus, plays a crucial role in digestive system functioning. This sphincter is activated by the act of swallowing and the pressure exerted by the bolus of food. In specific, during ingestion, a series of contractions move food towards the stomach. When the food bolus nears the stomach, the esophagus distends, which in turn initiates a short reflex relaxation of the gastroesophageal sphincter. This relaxation allows the food bolus to pass into the stomach.
When there is no swallowing or food pressuring the sphincter, it remains shut. This close state of the sphincter prevents the contents of the stomach from traveling up the esophagus, thereby preventing acid reflux or commonly known as 'heartburn’.
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What is the equilibrium potential for Na?
a. 60 mv
b. +60 mv
c. -90 mv
d. 90 mv
Answer:
B. +60 mv
Explanation:
Equilibrium potential of ions is the difference of electric potential in the cell membrane that equilibrates the concentration gradient of an ion.
Final answer:
The equilibrium potential for sodium (Na) is (option b) +60 mV, representing the electrical potential at which the movement of Na+ ions across the cell membrane is balanced, with no net flux of Na+ ions into or out of the cell.
Explanation:
The equilibrium potential is a crucial concept in understanding how ions move across cell membranes, affecting the cell's electrical charge and contributing to processes such as nerve impulses and muscle contractions. Sodium ions (Na+) have a higher concentration outside the cell than inside. When sodium channels open, Na+ ions flow into the cell, moving down their concentration gradient. This influx of Na+ makes the inside of the cell more positive. The movement of sodium ions continues until the electrical potential inside the cell becomes positive enough to prevent further Na+ entry, reaching an equilibrium. According to provided information, the equilibrium potential for Na+ is around +60 mV. This potential is crucial for generating action potentials in neurons and muscle cells, where the rapid influx of sodium ions into the cell through voltage-gated sodium channels leads to the depolarization phase of the action potential.
Pharmacology integrates an understanding of the:
a. transformation of plants and living organisms into effective medications
b. the synthesis of drugs in pharmaceutical laboratories
c. treatment of disease through naturally occurring substances
d. action, movement, and use of drugs in living organism
Answer:
d. action, movement, and use of drugs in living organism
Explanation:
Pharmacology involves action, movement and research in use of drugs in living systems. Also regards the effects of substances like caffeine, antibiotics. The sciences studies the process that occur as they come to the body, since any drug will change the internal chemical balances. Bodies will respond. The changes will happen, and thus we develop better drugs
Main applications include:
Searching or discovery of better medicines to fight diseases, preferably reducing side effects. Studying differences among the experiences led by different target populations with the same drugs and other variables.
Pharmacology lies at the heart of biomedical science, linking together chemistry, physiology and pathology. Pharmacologists work closely with a wide variety of other disciplines that make up modern biomedical science, including neuroscience, molecular and cell biology, immunology and cancer biology.
Pharmacological knowledge improves the lives of millions of people across the world. It maximises their benefit and minimises risk and harm
As new diseases emerge, and older medicines - like antibiotics - no longer work as well, the contribution of pharmacology to finding better and safer medicines becomes all the more vital.
Articulation betwwen the scapula and clavicle
Answer:
The answer to the question: Articulation between the scapula and clavicle, would be: Acromioclavicular joint.
Explanation:
In the human skeleton, the upper limbs are joined together to the torso by a series of joints, or articulations, which are basically the points at which two bones join each other. These articulations allow the bones to be together, while at the same time ensuring that there can be movement without the two bones hitting each other and damaging one another due to friction. The clavicle and the scapula are two such bones that articulate with the head of the humerus, to form the shoulder joint. Without these articulations, there would be no upper limbs at all. The point at which, the scapula, with its acromion, which is its final flap, and the distal end of the clavicle meet together, is called the acromioclavicular joint, in honor of the two bones and the portions of them that articulate.
Write a short journal on the benefits of stress to nursing student.
Nursing students are prone to stress due to the transitional nature of college life. High levels of stress are believed to affect student's health and academic functions.