Which receptors is not a membrane receptor?

Answers

Answer 1
Final answer:

Intracellular receptors, such as steroid hormone receptors and thyroid hormone receptors, are examples of receptors that are not membrane receptors. They are located within the cell, as opposed to being on the cell's surface.

Explanation:

In biology, the types of receptors that are not categorized as membrane receptors are commonly called intracellular receptors. Unlike membrane receptors, which are located on the cell’s surface and interact with external signaling molecules, intracellular receptors are located inside the cell. Typical examples of intracellular receptors include steroid hormone receptors and thyroid hormone receptors. These receptors bind to hormones that have the ability to cross the cell membrane due to their lipid-soluble nature.

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Answer 2
Final answer:

Intracellular receptors are the type of receptors that are not membrane receptors. These receptors are housed inside the cell and bind to nonpolar molecules like steroids. In contrast, membrane receptors are located in the plasma membrane and interact with external ligand molecules.

Explanation:

In the context of cell biology, the receptors that are not membrane receptors are called intracellular receptors. These types of receptors are located within the cell rather than on its membrane. One example is the steroid hormone receptor. Molecules that are nonpolar, such as steroids, can diffuse across the cell membrane and bind to these intracellular receptors. The receptor-ligand complex then moves to the nucleus and interacts with cellular DNA, influencing gene expression. On the other hand, cell-surface receptors or membrane receptors are embedded in the plasma membrane of the cell. They interact with external ligand molecules and are involved in signal transduction processes that convert external signals into intracellular ones.

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Related Questions

In an asexually reproducing organism it is expected that the offspring will be genetically identical to the parent. However, in one particular event of asexual reproduction the offspring was found to be differing from the parent. The reason behind this could be __________.

Answers

Answer:

Mutation

Explanation:

I believe it is a mutation. A mutation is when the DNA is copied with a small mistake. Ex: AGCC => AGGC

Then, after a mutation, the DNA isn’t exactly identical because of this mistake in the DNA after copied.

I hope this helped! Happy Thanksgiving! GOBBLE GOBBLE!

Proton flow through the ATP synthase enzyme
A. provides the energy for adding a phosphate to ADP to make ATP. results in the release of ATP from its tightly bound state in the active site.
B. produces local pH changes in the active site which alter the equilibrium constant for the reaction.
C. provides the free energy needed for ADP to bind to the enzyme.

Answers

Final answer:

The flow of hydrogen ions through the ATP synthase enzyme provides the energy for adding a phosphate to ADP to make ATP.

Explanation:

The flow of hydrogen ions through the ATP synthase enzyme provides the energy for adding a phosphate to ADP to make ATP. The energy released by the hydrogen ion stream allows ATP synthase to attach a third phosphate group to ADP, forming a molecule of ATP. This process is called chemiosmosis, as the hydrogen ions move from an area of high concentration to an area of low concentration through ATP synthase.

Give a brief explanation of why food webs are preferred over food chains for representing the flow of energy in an ecosystem.

Need help asap

Answers

The Food webs are preferred over food chains for representing the flow of energy in an ecosystem for the following reasons: The food webs are higher in complexity when compared to food chains and also, in food web, more than one primary producers is present which increases the 'flow of energy' in the ecosystem. Food web represents the real life better than the food chains do. Food web shows many different paths through which the organisms can be connected.

_________ threshold is also called the ________ threshold, the point at which lactic acid produced in muscles begins to accumulate in the blood. It defines the upper limit that can be sustained _________.

Answers

Answer:

1. Anaerobic

2. lactate

3. Aerobically

Explanation:

During excessive muscular activities such as a marathon, lactate fermentation occurs in muscles to serve as a source of ATP to sustain muscle contraction. The lactate produced during lactate fermentation is removed aerobically from muscles. Lactate threshold or anaerobic threshold refers to the intensity of physical activity that produces the blood lactate at a fast rate than its removal.

Increased intensity of exercise or physical activity increases lactate production. As the intensity reaches the point at which lactate cannot be removed from the body fast enough, it is accumulated and causes fatigue in muscles. Therefore, the lactate threshold is the upper limit that can be sustained aerobically by the body without any accumulation of lactate.

A population of scarab beetles has an annual per capita birth rate of 0.8 and an annual per capita death rate of 0.5. Estimate the number of individuals added to or lost from a population of 1,000 individuals in one year. Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. 3,000 individuals added 50 individuals lost 300 individuals added 30 individuals added 500 individuals lost

Answers

Answer:

Option C

Explanation:

Given the annual per capita birth rate is [tex]0.8[/tex]

Annual per capita death rate is  [tex]0.8[/tex]

Net per capita growth or reduction in the population will be equal to the difference between the birth rate and death rate.

Hence, net per capita increase in the population is equal to

[tex]0.8 -0.5\\=0.3[/tex]

Thus, the total number of individuals added to the population of 1000 is equal to

[tex]0.3 * 1000\\= 300[/tex]

Hence, option C is correct

The nervous system:
works with the endocrine system to maintain homeostasis.
communicates with the body via action potentials (nerve impulses).
is responsible for perceptions and behaviors.
initiates voluntary movements.
all of these are correct.

Answers

Answer:

All of these are correct.

Explanation:

Nervous system is the complex network of the nerves that carries the information in the body. Nervous system mainly consists of large numbers of millions of neurons.

The nervous system perform different functions in the body. The communication of the nervous system occurs by the transmission of nerve impulse. The voluntary and  involuntary actions of the body are controlled by the nervous system. The behavior and perception of the organism is controlled by nervous system. The endocrine system also depend on the nervous system and maintains the homeostasis of the body.

Thus, the correct answer is option (5).

Bryophytes, ferns, and fern allies all require ________ for sexual reproduction because the sperm cells ________.A) dry conditions; must be dry before they fertilize egg cellsB) pollinators; depend on animals for distributionC) surface water; swim to the egg cellD) wind currents; depend on wind for gamete distributionE) None of these choices are correct.

Answers

Answer: option C

Bryophtes, ferns and ferns allies require surface water to swim to the egg cell.

Explanation:

Bryophytes are Nonflowering and seed producing group of plants. They are found in moist habitats and are small. Bryophtes consist of ferns, mossess, liverworts and hornworts. In the gametophyte life cycle which is responsible for producing gametes for sexual reproduction, the flagellated sperm is produce in the antheridia through meiosis.and the non motile egg is produced in the structure called archegonia through meiosis. The flagellated sperm swim in the water to non motile egg to fertile the egg and produce a zygote. This zygote into a sporophyte.

Bryophytes, ferns, and fern allies all require surface water for sexual reproduction because the sperm cells swim to the egg cell. The correct option is C).

What are bryophytes?

Bryophytes are a type of non-flowering plants that also produce seeds. They are tiny and live in wet environments. Liverworts, hornworts, ferns, and mosses make up bryophtes.

The flagellated sperm is produced in the antheridia during meiosis as part of the gametophyte life cycle, which is in charge of creating gametes for sexual reproduction. And meiosis occurs in the archegonia, a structure where the non-motile egg is created.

In order to fertilize the non-motile egg and create a zygote, the flagellated sperm swim in the water to the egg. Sporophyte formed from this zygote.

Therefore, the correct option is C) surface water; swim to the egg cell.

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Match each vocabulary word with its definition. 1 . photosynthesis the process of burning in the presence of oxygen 2 . nucleus a nucleus surrounded by electrons 3 . combustion a process that splits the atom 4 . fission central part of an atom 5 . solar energy capacity for doing work 6 . atom process that plants produce sugar 7 . energy energy from the sun

Answers

Answer:

1. Photosynthesis: process that plants produce sugar

2. Nucleus: central part of an atom

3. Combustion: the process of burning in the presence of oxygen

4. Fission: a process that split atom

5. Solar energy: energy from the sun

6. Atom: a nucleus surrounded by electron

7. Energy: capacity for doing work

Explanation:

1. Photosynthesis is the process by which plants, some bacteria and some protistans use the energy from sunlight to produce glucose(sugar) from carbon dioxide and water

2. The protons and neutrons cluster together in the central part of the atom, called the nucleus

3. Combustion is the process of burning something.

4. Fission is a nuclear reaction or a radioactive decay process in which the nucleus of an atom splits into two or more smaller, lighter nuclei.

5. Solar is a form of energy gotten from the sun.

6. Atom: every atom is composed of a nucleus and one or more electrons bound to the nucleus.

7. Energy is the ability to do work

All of the following statements regarding dual x-ray absorptiometry are true, except
1. radiation dose is considerable.
2. two x-ray photon energies are used.
3. photon attenuation by bone is calculated.

Answers

Answer:

Option (1).

Explanation:

Dual x-ray absorptiometry technique is used for the evaluation of the bone mineral density. The bone densitometry is normally used in this technique to estimate the mineral content of bone.

The radiation dose in the absorptiometry is considerable and only small or low amount of radiation dose is considered. The heavy dose may cause health problems in the individual. The photon energies are used for the bone and soft tissue. The treatment of osteoporesis can be done by this technique.

Thus, the correct answer is option (1).

Which of the following environmental conditions would be MOST likely to result in transcription of the lac
operon in an E. coli cell?
A
low levels of lactose and high levels of glucose
B high levels of lactose and high levels of cyclic AMP
C
ow levels of lactose and low levels of cyclic AMP
D
high levels of lactose and high levels of glucose

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is B high levels of lactose and high levels of cyclic AMP.

Explanation:

Lac operon contain 3 regulatory genes and 3 structural genes.In presence of lactose the repressor molecule that is encoded by Lac I gene cannot bound to the operator region.

        Bacause the lactose interact with the repressor and change its conformation so that it cannot repress the expression of the structural genes of lac operon.

  On the other hand cyclic AMP is a positive regulator of  lac operon .The interaction of cyclic AMP with the promoter region of lac operon stimulates the binding of RNA polymerase in the promoter region to boost the expression of structural genes of lac operon such as Lac Z,Lac Y and Lac A.

Answer:

B. high levels of lactose and high levels of cyclic AMP

Explanation:

Just wanted to confirm. The explanation above me is correct.

All the offspring of a cross between a tall pea plant and a dwarf pea plant are tall. This means that the allele for tall plants is ________ the allele for dwarf plants.

Answers

Answer:

All the offspring of a cross between a tall pea plant and a dwarf pea plant are tall. This means that the allele for tall plants is DOMINANT OVER the allele for dwarf plants.

Explanation:

Mendel's law of dominance state that the heterozygous genotype expresses only one allele of a gene out of the two alleles present together. The allele that is expressed in a heterozygous genotype is said to be the dominant one as it does not allow the expression of another allele of the gene.

The allele of a gene that is not expressed in the presence of its dominant allele is said to be the recessive one. Under such conditions, a heterozygous genotype expresses the dominant phenotype. When a tall and dwarf pea plants are crossed, all the F1 progeny is tall. This means that the allele for the tallness is dominant over the allele for the dwarfism.

A is a DNA sequence where RNA polymerase binds and begins the process of transcription. A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription. A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that inhibit transcription. is the protein complex that is part of the RNA interference (RNAi) mechanism. It denatures short double-stranded RNAs to single strands that carry out RNAi. is the enzyme complex that is active in RNAi, where it cuts double-stranded regulatory RNAs into 21-bp to 26-bp segments that are subsequently denatured by RISC.

Answers

Answer:

A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription.

Explanation:

Background Knowledge:

DNA contains genes which is a particular segment of DNA. A gene usually has regulatory regions and a structural region.

Promoter: The regulatory region located to the 5 prime end of coding strand of the gene which is called as promoter that controls the binding RNA Polymerase during transcription.

The Terminator is the other regulatory region, located to the 3 prime end of coding strand of the gene. The terminator region causes RNA polymerase to stop transcription.

Structural region is the region present between the promoter and terminator.

Answer of the question is:

A is a DNA sequence that binds regulatory proteins that interact with promoter-bound proteins to activate transcription.

Final answer:

Transcription is initiated at a promoter, where RNA polymerase binds, and regulated by transcription factors that act as activators or repressors. Enhancers and repressors control the transcription process by modifying DNA structure or affecting RNA polymerase activity.

Explanation:

Transcription is initiated at a specific DNA sequence known as the promoter, which is found upstream of the gene it regulates. A promoter is crucial because it determines the exact location where RNA polymerase binds and initiates transcription, starting the synthesis of RNA from the DNA template. The formation of this initiation complex involves unwinding the DNA to create a transcription bubble, where the DNA strand is read and transcribed into mRNA.

Transcription is also regulated by transcription factors, which can function as either activators or repressors. These regulatory proteins bind to sequences known as regulatory elements near the promoter. Activator proteins enhance the interaction between RNA polymerase and the promoter, facilitating transcription, while repressors inhibit this process, thereby impeding RNA synthesis. Methylation and DNA-bending due to protein interactions also play a role in facilitation and control of these regulative actions.

Enhancers and repressors influence transcription by altering the DNA's shape or by recruiting other regulatory elements to control the availability and activity of RNA polymerase at the promoter region. The overall regulatory mechanisms ensure that transcription is precise and responsive to the cell's needs, allowing for efficient and controlled gene expression.

Why do you think that the change in one nucleotide can cause tay-sachs disease to be fatal

Answers

Answer: The protein is completely disrupted and it can not perform its function

Explanation:

Tay-Sachs disease is a rare degenerative disease and autosomic recessive. It affects the brain and central nervous system. It occurs when the body lacks hexosaminidase A, which is a protein that helps break down a group of chemicals found in nerve tissue, called gangliosides. Without this protein, gangliosides build up in cells, often in neurons in the brain.

Tay Sachs disease is caused by a mutation of one nucleotide for a protein that disrupts the activity of an enzyme in the brain. Proteins are synthesized according to the DNA sequence. Every three bases (called a codon), one of the many amino acids that will form the protein is synthesized. When one of these bases is mutated, it is very possible that a different amino acid is synthesized instead. Sometimes that doesn't happen because the genetic code is degenerated and different codons can give rise to the same amino acid. But in this mutation, the protein is completely disrupted and it can not perform its function. Then, the brain is affected as it was explained and results fatal.

How can you change the power of a single-lens microscope

Answers

Answer:

By reducing the focal length

Explanation:

The power of a lens is inversely proportional to its focal length.

Mathematically, this relation can be written as

[tex]P = \frac{1}{f}[/tex]

Where, "P" represents power and "f" represents focal length. As per this relationship, the power will increase with the decrease of focal length.

Power is basically the measurement of refractive power of a lens. The refractive strength of a lens increases with the decrease in focal length.

In a particular environment there is plenty of food, water, cover, and space to support a large population of pheasants, but a larger quantity of predators are introduced. The predators become the _______ for pheasants in that environment.a. carrying capacity.b. abiotic factor.c. limiting factor.d. biotic factor

Answers

Answer:

c. limiting factor.

Explanation:

The limiting factors are environmental or ecological factors that act directly on the living beings of a population, limiting their size, since these factors determine their birth, mortality, migrations, etc. They are the ones that regulate the growth and expansion of a species.

If environmental factors are optimal for the development of a living being, they favor the growth of that organism in that biotope. But if any of these factors prevents the growth of a species, there is talk of a limiting factor.

Among these physical and chemical factors that determine the biotope include:

- Abiotic factors (do not depend on population density):

Climate:

Light. Only the most superficial organisms access it in water. On land, there is also competition in leafy areas to access it.

Temperature. Some living beings cannot live at the temperature that others live.

Water: It is necessary that it rains or that living beings can access water in order to live. If there is no water, they die.

Atmospheric pressure.

Non-climatic:

Soil factors: The chemical composition of the soil, its pH, salinity, etc. It makes some plant species may or may not survive in it.

Factors of the aquatic environment: The concentration of O2, dissolved CO2, the degree of salinity, the existence of currents, etc., limits the development of some organisms.

- Biotic factors (depend on population density):

Food. If they do not have enough food, the population will have to be smaller.

Interspecific relationships. The number of predators limits the number of prey, and vice versa.

Intraspecific relationships. The relationships established between individuals of the same species can also limit their existence.

Answer:its c

Explanation: on edg

Crossing over often occurs during prophase. How could scientists use an easy to measure trait that is linked to the gene responsible for a certain genetic condition to locate the disease causing gene?

Answers

Answer:

Crossing over is the phenomena of the exchange of the genetic material between the non sister chromatid of the homologous chromosomes. The crossing over results in the  formation of recombinant progeny.

Linked traits are  close to each other and present on the same chromosome. The linked traits that are very close to each other and will not separate by the process of crossing over. This information is used to locate the disease condition.

Among the virulence factors produced by Staphylococcus aureus are hemolysin, coagulase, hyaluronidase, and enterotoxin. Which of these factors contribute(s) to the ability of S. aureus to invade the body?
A) coagulase
B) enterotoxin
C) hemolysin
D) hyaluronidase
E) coagulase and hemolysin

Answers

Answer:

A) coagulase

Explanation:

Diseases caused by Staphylococcus aureus may be due to direct tissue invasion, or exclusively due to toxins produced.

The mechanism of invasion of S. aureus, in the first moment, depends directly on the fact that this bacterium adheres to the skin or mucosa, thanks to coagulase (a component of the cell surface that ensures adherence to the epithelia), to then break through the barriers of the epithelium, compromising intercellular link structures, as desmosomes and adhesion joints.

After invasion of the epithelium, S. aureus uses several strategies to enable their survival and proliferation in the host organism, corresponding to the other virulence factors.

A normal chromosome and its homolog carrying an inversion are given. The dot (•) represents the centromere. Normal: M N • O P Q R S T Inversion: M Q P O • N R S T What type of inversion is present and what is the name of the structure that will form during synapsis?

Answers

Answer:

Pericentric, inversion loop.

Explanation:

Chromosomal inversion may be defined as the rearrangement of chromosome that may get reversed and attached. Two main types of inversion are pericentric inversion and paracentric inversion.

The pericentric inversion involves the inversion of chromsome and centromere is involved in this inversion. M Q P O • N R S T , in this case centromere is present and shows the pericentric inversion. The structure that forms during the synapsis is known as inversion loop.

Thus, the answer is pericentric, inversion loop.

Which is the best nursing explanation for the symptom of polyuria in a client with diabetes mellitus? With diabetes, drinking more results in more urine production. Increased ketones in the urine promote the manufacturing of more urine. High sugar pulls fluid into the bloodstream, which results in more urine production. The body's requirement for fuel drives the production of urine.

Answers

Answer:

C: High sugar pulls fluid into the bloodstream, which results in more urine production .

This is the best nursing explanation for the symptom of polyuria in a client with diabetes mellitus.

Explanation:

Diabetes can lead to many health problems, even kidney failure. 'Type 1 diabetes' is a disease in which the pancreas halts producing insulin. This insulin hormone is essential to getting energy from food. It can affect humans of any age.  

Polyuria occurs in diabetes when the blood has excess amount of sugar. Kidneys produce urine and reabsorb all the sugar and send it back to the body. So, excess sugar has domino effect on the body and leads to more urine. Frequent urination means lots of fluids loss from the body and person becomes dehydrated.

You might infer from packages of commercial fertilizer that which nutrients are most limiting to plant growth?

a. hydrogen, phosphorus, and magnesium
b. carbon, nitrogen, and phosphorous
c. phosphorus, potassium, and calcium
d. iron, magnesium, and nitrogen
e. nitrogen, phosphorous, and potassium

Answers

I think it’s B , carbon , nitrogen, and phosphorus
B . carbon , nitrogen and phosphorus

Oxygen consumption can be used as a measure of metabolic rate because oxygen is

Answers

Final answer:

Oxygen consumption can be used as a measure of metabolic rate because it is necessary for cellular respiration, the process by which organisms produce energy. By measuring the amount of oxygen consumed, we can estimate an organism's metabolic rate. This is especially important in biology and can be applied to different organisms.

Explanation:

Oxygen consumption can be used as a measure of metabolic rate in organisms. This is because oxygen is necessary for the process of cellular respiration, which is how organisms produce energy. By measuring the amount of oxygen consumed, we can estimate how much energy an organism is using and thus determine its metabolic rate. For example, a person who is exercising will have a higher metabolic rate and therefore consume more oxygen compared to someone who is resting.

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Oxygen consumption is a measure of metabolic rate because it's involved in cellular respiration, where energy is produced from oxygen and nutrients.

Oxygen consumption is a reliable indicator of metabolic rate due to its central role in cellular respiration. During this vital process, organic molecules, such as glucose, are oxidized in cells to generate energy in the form of ATP. Oxygen is a critical component of these chemical reactions, serving as the final electron acceptor in the electron transport chain, allowing the production of ATP. As metabolic activity increases, the demand for oxygen rises to support higher energy production. Thus, measuring the rate of oxygen consumption provides valuable insights into the metabolic intensity of an organism, its energy requirements, and overall health. It's a widely used tool in physiology and biology to assess metabolic rates in various species and study their adaptations.

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Which of the following organisms would have the HIGHEST predicted gene density (most genes per megabase of DNA) in genomic DNA?A. ChickenB. E. coli bacteriaC. MouseD. Human

Answers

Answer: E.coli bacteria has the highest predicted gene density in genomic DNA.

Explanation:

Gene density of an organism in a genomic DNA is the ratio of the number of genes per number of base pair, it is written in megabase. Bacteria DNA has a higher gene density ranging from 500-1000/mb. This is because bacteria DNA has no introns and few codons in their gene. Humans has a gene density of 12-15gene/mb. The chicken karoytype has 6pairs of large macrochromosomes and 33 pairs of smaller microchromosomes.

What factor of phylogenies enable us to determine that all terrestrial mammals are quadrupedal (walk on all four legs) except humans, the one bipedal twig on the many branches of the mammalian tree?

Answers

Answer:

Common ancestor is the main factor that determines that all terrestrial animals are quadrupedal.

Explanation:

Phylogeny means the evolution of the organisms or genetically related organism and how they are related. The study of phylogeny is called as phylogenetics. Terrestrial means those who live on land. Mammals are one who gives birth to their offspring directly. They are generally warm-blooded, breath air. Studying each state of the ancestor and also tracing the organism characteristics during evolution.

If a biological father has little to do with his biological offspring, and instead spends most of his time with his sister’s children who call him by a term meaning "father" rather than "uncle," the descent system of these people is most likely_______.

Answers

If a biological father has little to do with his biological offspring, and instead spends most of his time with his sister’s children who call him by a term meaning "father" rather than "uncle," the descent system of these people is most likely Matrilineal.

Explanation:

Matrilineal is made up of two words ‘Matri’ means mother ‘lineal’ means link or ancestry. So matrilineal means the generation of people that origin or come before a person i.e. female. Matrilineal means maintaining the generation through the mother-line rather than father-line.

In matrilineal family relationship can be record through female. Tradition that that follows to give mother last name to children is a matrilineal tradition. This type of tradition is found in countries like Ghana, Indonesia, Cameroon, Malaysia, Costa Rica, and India etc. Akon, Alor, Betek, Bribri, Billava, Garo are some groups that follows the matrilineal tradition.

In pneumothorax and complete atelectasis involving the right lung:
a. interpleural pressure would increase toward atmospheric and transpulmonary pressure would become zero
b. intrapulmonary pressure and transpulmonary pressure would be negative
c. perfusion of the right lung would increase
d. transpulmonary pressure would increase

Answers

The answer it will be D

what bond holds each amino acid together to make a protein?

Answers

Answer:

PEPTIDE BOND.

Explanation:

Amino acids can link with each other through a peptide bond to form a protein or polypeptide .

this is a condensation reaction that involves the elimination of water molecule.i.e a H2O molecule is produced in this reaction.

the peptide linkage occurs when the OH group of acidic side of one amino acid reacts with the H-atom of the other amino acid and C-N link to form a bond called a PEPTIDE BOND.

Which of the following hypotheses is the best predictor of tree species diversity?
A. Species richness will related to temperature and potential evapotranspiration
B. Species richness will be related to precipitation
C. Species richness will be related to actual evapotranspiration.
D. Tree species richness is related to mammal species richness.

Answers

Final answer:

Tree species diversity is influenced by a combination of factors including temperature, evapotranspiration, and precipitation. Although each of the given hypotheses could predict tree species richness under certain conditions, it's important to consider the specific ecosystem. In science, hypotheses are tested and evaluated based on evidence, rather than ranked.

Explanation:

Determining which of the following hypotheses is the best predictor of tree species diversity can be complex because it largely depends on the particular ecosystem being considered. Nonetheless, species richness is generally influenced by a combination of biotic and abiotic factors, including temperature, precipitation, and availability of resources.

Hypothesis A, which posits that species richness is related to temperature and potential evapotranspiration, is a viable predictor as these factors can influence where species can thrive. Similarly, Hypothesis B, which suggests species richness is related to precipitation, is also a considerable predictor because water availability is crucial for plant survival. Hypothesis C, which connects species richness to actual evapotranspiration, could also be strongly predictive because it ties into the available energy and water in the ecosystem. Lastly, Hypothesis D, which claims that tree species richness is related to mammal species richness, could have less predictive power as it is more dependent on complex interactions between different species and might not directly relate to tree species richness.

However, it's important to note that in science, hypotheses are not ranked as best or worst, but rather, they are tested to determine if they are supported or not by the evidence.

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When Casey opens her eyes in the morning she sees a photograph by her bedside. At that point, her eyes are receiving light energy. Her eyes then change the light energy into neural messages for the brain to process. This conversion of one form of energy into another is called:

Answers

Answer:

This conversion of one form of energy to another is called energy transformation.

Explanation:

Eye is one of the most important sensory organ of our body that helps in the perception of light.

   When we see a light at that time light energy is converted into neural messages and then carried to the brain by ophthalmic nerve for processing.

  Here the law of conservation of energy is maintained which states that energy cannot be created nor destroyed, energy can only be transformed.

 

Which part of the government has authority to enforce the Clean Water Act?
U.S. Forest Service
Congress
the president
the Environmental Protection Agency

Answers

Answer:

The Environmental Protection Agency

Explanation:

Answer:

Which part of the government has authority to enforce the clean water act? 4.- The Environmental ProtectionAgency

Explanation:

The 1972 amendments stablished that the Environmental Protection Agency was the responsible authority to supervise the Clean Water measures it developed. It was not the first time the government had established laws about it. However, the expansion of the amendments structured the modern system. Providing guidelines for water quality, standards and also to the acts of anyone that acted against the water state and condition. Qualifying them as polluters and criminals.  It is known as the Clean Water law, amendment.

In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If we choose one of these pairs, such as pair 14, what do the two chromosomes of the pair have in common?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - position of the centromere, length, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes

Explanation:

The two chromosomes that are present in a pair of autosomes that are 22 in numbers in human and one sex-linked chromosome that is not like other autosomes.

Any two chromosomes of a pair of chromosomes like chromosome 14 are similar in shape and size, the staining pattern of both the chromosomes and the most important traits that they code for the same trait.

Thus, the correct answer is -  position of the centromere, length, staining pattern, and traits coded for by their genes.

Other Questions
If you started with a cell with four chromosomes, what would happen if sexual reproduction took place for four generations using diploid (2n) cells instead of haploid cells (n)? (In other words, how many chromosomes would the cells have after four generations without meiosis?). If the media chooses to focus on a war in the Middle East rather than discussing some positive economic news from that region, it is engaging in . This is directly related to the media's power of . You have a flashlight that uses 0.75 watts of power and requires 1.5 volt battery.How many joules of energy are used by the flashlight in 15 minutes? Hint: Joules are watts and seconds and you are computing the difference between the electric energy at two points A and B.What the total charge q0? Hint: the statement of the problem provides delta V.How many particles, each having a charge of 1.60 x 10^-6, are needed to produce the total charge at q0? Sheila (m=56.8 kg) is in her saucer sled moving at 12.6 m/s at the bottom of the sledding hill near Bluebird Lake. She approaches a long embankment inclined upward at 16 above the horizontal. As she slides up the embankment, she encounters a coefficient of friction of 0.128. Determine the height to which she will travel before coming to rest. According to your textbook, how many of the following are properties of covalent compounds: a. *Can be gas, liquid or solid at room temperature b. *Does not conduct electricity c. *Exist as an extended array of atoms d. *Involves the sharing of electrons Which of the following choices lists the organs of the bird digestive system in the correct order, from first to last contact with food material? Which of the following choices lists the organs of the bird digestive system in the correct order, from first to last contact with food material? esophagus, crop, gizzard, stomach, intestine, anus esophagus, stomach, gizzard, crop, intestine, anus esophagus, crop, stomach, gizzard, intestine, anus esophagus, gizzard, crop, stomach, intestine, anus Which of the following would not be classified as an arthropod? Please choose the correct answer from the following choices, and then select the submit answer button. giant clam centipede deer tick jumping spider spider crab The question of which powers are appropriate to Congress Group of answer choices was answered clearly and finally by the lengthy enumeration of powers in Article I of the Constitution. A. continues to generate substantial controversy, despite the lengthy enumeration of powers in the Constitution. B. was a matter of controversy during the early years of the Union but no longer generates much controversy. C. concerns only insignificant issues today. D. has been left undefined by numerous court decisions. Which sentence in the passage best conveys that vegetarianism is good for the environment?Why Go Vegetarian? People choose to eliminate meat from their diets for many reasons. Concerns about health risks, farming practices, and environmental problems are just a few. The following hypotheses are given. H0 : 1 2 H1 : 1 > 2 A random sample of five observations from the first population resulted in a standard deviation of 12. A random sample of seven observations from the second population showed a standard deviation of 7. At the 0.01 significance level, is there more variation in the first population? Identify the Arabian Sea.A)1B)5C)6D)7 On march 4 1999 the new england journal of medicine published a research article by Dr Douglas Jorenby and colleague comparing different treatments to help patients stop smoking. A father brings his daughter to the community clinic for an annual physical exam. After the father steps out of the room, the adolescent informs the nurse that she is frightened by her father's behavior because "he yells at me every day and tells me I am a failure because I don't get good grades, and I am fat." The nurse recognizes the reported father's behavior as which type of maltreatment? A producer of medical devices makes a single model that can be customized to talk in and display any of 47 different languages. This customization is performed in one of their five regional distribution centers as firm orders are received, providing an elegant example of:A) backward integrationB) forward integrationC) channel assembly.D) offshoring Mary is planning to buy a mobile phone that costs $500. A salesperson at the store informs her about four different installment plans that shecan choose from.plan A: a down payment of $50 and monthly payments of $40 for 12 monthsplan B: a down payment of $100 and monthly payments of $80 for 6 monthsplan C: no down payment and monthly payments of $60 for 12 monthsplan D: no down payment and monthly payments of $100 for 6 months Electricity is distributed from electrical substations to neighborhoods at 1.6104 V . This is a 60 Hz oscillating (AC) voltage. Neighborhood transformers, seen on utility poles, step this voltage down to the 120 V that is delivered to your house. Part A How many turns does the primary coil on the transformer have if the secondary coil has 140 turns? Express your answer using two significant figures. n prim n p r i m = nothing turns SubmitRequest Answer Part B No energy is lost in an ideal transformer, so the output power P out from the secondary coil equals the input power P in to the primary coil. Suppose a neighborhood transformer delivers 230 A at 120 V . What is the current in the 1.6104 V line from the substation? Express your answer using two significant figures. I i I i = nothing A SubmitRequest Answer Provide Feedback Next Two buses depart two cities moving in the same direction. The speed of the first bus is 54 mph which is 60% of the speed of the second bus. The faster bus caught up to the other bus one hour and thirty minutes after the departure. will give brainliest 9. A stock's price has been continuously declining at a rate of 5% per week. If the stock started at a price of$62.50 per share, algebraically determine the number of weeks it will take for the price to reach $20.00 pershare. Round your answer to the nearest tenth of a week the ratio of blueberries to strawberries is 1:7if there are 210 strawberries how many berries are there An airplane propeller is 2.68 m in length (from tip to tip) and has a mass of 107 kg. When the airplane's engine is first started, it applies a constant torque of 1930 Nm to the propeller, which starts from rest.a. What is the angular acceleration of the propeller? Treat the propeller as a slender rod.b. What is the propeller's angular speed after making 5.00 rev?c. How much work is done by the engine during the first 5.00 rev?d. What is the average power output of the engine during the first 5.00 rev?e. What is the instantaneous power output of the motor at the instant that the propeller has turned through 5.00 rev?