The false statement in Sanger sequencing is that the gel is read from top to bottom.
Explanation:The false statement about Sanger sequencing is (D) To read the DNA sequence of the synthesized strand in the 5'-to-3' direction, the gel is read from top to bottom.
In Sanger sequencing, the gel is actually read from bottom to top. The fragments of DNA are separated by size using electrophoresis, with shorter fragments traveling farther from the starting point. The smallest, labeled fragment is located near the bottom of the gel, while the longest, unlabeled fragment is located near the top of the gel. By reading the sequence from the bottom to the top, the DNA sequence can be determined.
Learn more about Sanger sequencing here:https://brainly.com/question/28174336
#SPJ6
The carbon to produce carbohydrates in the second stage of photosynthesis comes from
Answer:
Front the atmosphere that's from environment
In a flock of birds one individual first gives a call when a predator appears. This call is quickly repeated by all members of the flock and soon the entire flock is calling at this predator. This activity seems to deter the predator. When this barrage of calls is given the predator always flies away. This is a possible example of ______
Answer:
The correct answer will be- flock defense
Explanation:
A flock is a group of same species of animals usually observed in the birds during migration.
The flock increases their fitness of survival by avoiding predators in which the one individual of the group gives a call in response to the predator.
The same predator call is repeated by every member of the flock which threatens the predator and the predator goes away. This flock response is considered as the defense response to predator and thus the mechanism is known as flock defense.
Thus, flock defense is the correct answer.
In chloroplasts, ATP is synthesized from ADP plus inorganic phosphate (Pi) in a reaction catalyzed by ATP synthase molecules that are embedded in the thylakoid membrane. Which of the following statements provides evidence to support the claim that no ATP will be synthesized in the absence of a proton gradient across the thylakoid membrane?
No ATP is synthesized when channel proteins that allow the free passage of protons are inserted into the thylakoid membrane is the evidence.
The chlorophyll obtains the electrons from water which produces oxygen as a by product. During the process of electron transport, H+ is pumped across the thylakoid membrane, which leads to the production of proton gradient that is responsible for the formation of ATP in the stroma.
If proton gradient is not available or present then no ATP is synthesized so we can conclude that no ATP molecules are formed if no protein gradient is provided to the thylakoid membrane.
Learn more: https://brainly.com/question/13971708
Option C is correct. No ATP is synthesized when channel proteins that allow the free passage of protons are inserted into the thylakoid membrane is the evidence.
During Photosynthesis:
When photon hits the photo system, the electron become exited. Exited electron channeled to the low energy state. The energy of electron is used to pump proton from stroma into lumen of thylakoid.This generate a proton gradient across the membrane.This gradient use to run ATP synthase which generate ATP.So we can conclude that the proton gradient is required to generate ATP.
To know more about Photosynthesis, refer to the link:
https://brainly.com/question/1757345?referrer=searchResults
Suppose that a certain gene functions to enforce a checkpoint on the cell cycle. A mutation causing the loss of this gene's function would be most likely to cause a person to
A. develop an extra limb
B. have cancer immediately
C. be more likely to have cancer at some point in his/her life
D. lose the capability to produce gametes
E. be extra protected from ever getting cancer
Answer:
The correct answer is C. be more likely to have cancer at some point in his/her life.
Explanation:
Cell cycle checkpoints are controlled by different proteins which are coded by different genes. They are important in cell cycle regulation and stops cell cycle immediately if they find any problem in the cell like mutation.
The cell cycle will not be continued if the problem does not solve and cell death will occur which prevents cancer by preventing the mutation to spread into new cells.
Therefore if a mutation occurs in certain genes that enforce a checkpoint on the cell cycle then the mutated gene will pass in new cells and the mutated cells will grow uncontrollably due to no checkpoints so the person will probably have cancer at some point in his or her life.
the tailless trait in the mouse results from an allele of an gene on chromosomes 17. a cross of tailless x tailless mice produces tailess and wildtype offspring in a ratio of 2 tailess: 1 wildtype. all tailess offspring from this cross when mated with wildtype produce a 1:1 ratio of tailess to wildtype. is the allele for the tailess trait dominant or recessive?
Answer:
Dominant
Explanation:
Please see the attachment
When constructing a Punnett square, _____________ go on the outside of the square, and _______________ go inside the square.
A. diploid gametes, haploid offspring
B. diploid offspring, diploid parents
C. haploid gametes, diploid offspring
D. haploid offspring, diploid gametes
E. haploid offspring, haploid parents
Answer:
haploid gametes, diploid offspring
Explanation:
Gametes that produces offprings are usually hapliod (n) e.g the sperm cell or the egg cell. In the Punnet Square, When these two hapliod gametes fuses together, they produce a diploid offspring carrying the traits of both of the gametes.
A very common type of red–green colorblindness in humans is caused by a mutation in a gene located on the X chromosome. Knowing that the mutant allele is recessive to the wild type, what is the probability that the son of a woman whose father is colorblind is going to also be colorblind
Answer:
50%
Explanation:
According to the given information, the allele for the red-green colorblindness is inherited in an X linked recessive manner. Let's assume that the allele X^c is responsible for red-green colorblindness. The woman is normal but had a colorblind father (X^cY). Fathers give their X chromosomes to the daughters while their Y chromosome is transmitted to their sons. The sons get their X chromosomes from the mother.
The colorblind father has transmitted the X-linked allele for the red-green colorblindness to his daughter. Therefore, the genotype of the woman is X^cX. The woman would produce two types of eggs: 50 % with X^C and 50% with X. Therefore, 50% of sons of this woman would get X linked allele for the red-green colorblindness and would be affected by the disorder while the rest 50% of her sons will be normal.
Answer:
Males would be more affected because they inherit only one X chromosome. Women would have to inherit two recessive genes to develop the trait, while men would have to inherit only one.
Explanation:
Why is a cap added to mRNA, but not to tRNA or rRNA?A-Transfer RNA and rRNA exhibit complex structures with double stranded regions. The three-dimensional shapes of these molecules keep the 5\' end of the RNA away from the enzymes that process the cap.B-Transcription and processing of mRNA occur in the nucleus, where cap binding proteins are found. These proteins, which add and modify the cap, are not found in the cytoplasm, where tRNA and rRNA are transcribed and processed.C-Each of the three types of RNA are transcribed by different RNA polymerases. Only RNA polymerase II, involved in mRNA synthesis, contains a domain capable of interacting with enzymes that form the cap.D-Only mRNA contains introns. Capping occurs simultaneously with intron removal because the same enzymes and proteins involved in both of these processes must bind to RNA at the same time.
Answer:
The correct option is C ' Each of the three types of RNA are transcribed by different RNA polymerases. Only RNA polymerase II, involved in mRNA synthesis, contains a domain capable of interacting with enzymes that form the cap.'
Explanation:
All the different type of RNA's undergo the process of transcription. However, their transcription is carried on by different types of RNA polymerases.
The transcription of the mRNA is carried by RNA polymerase II. The process of capping is essential so that the mRNA is stopped from degradation.
The rRNA is transcribed by RNA polymerase I which cannot add a cap tothe RNA.
The tRNA is transcribed by the RNA polymerase II, but the domain is different which cannot undergo the process of capping.
Genomic mammalian DNA cannot be expressed directly using bacterial expression vectors because mammalian genomic DNA contains introns, which the bacterial cell cannot excise. Complementary DNA, or cDNA, enables scientists to express mammalian DNA from a bacterial plasmid. Place the sentences into the correct order to describe the formation of double‑stranded cDNA. You will only use five of the seven sentences.
Answer:
DNA to be cloned mature mammalian mRNA is isolated reverse transcriptase, provided with a primer, synthesizes a strand of cDNA without introns the mRNA is hydrolyzed by raising the pH a primer site is created on the ssDNA a complementary DNA strand is synthesized, forming a ds cDNA molecule. dsDNAExplanation:
cDNA is the acronym for complementary DNA. This DNA is a single or double stranded moolecule that is synthesized from a messenger RNA molecule. This molecule is used in studies that aim to clone eukaryotic genes in prokaryotic individuals. The result of this is the expression of a protein from a eukaryotic individual in prokaryotic individuals.
To form a double-stranded cDNA molecule, the following steps would be required:
DNA to be cloned mature mammalian mRNA is isolated reverse transcriptase, provided with a primer, synthesizes a strand of cDNA without introns the mRNA is hydrolyzed by raising the pH a primer site is created on the ssDNA a complementary DNA strand is synthesized, forming a ds cDNA molecule. dsDNACompare and contrast the reasons cell division is important for unicellular and multicellular organisms. 2. Provide an example of why cell division remains important to an adult organism even after it is fully developed. 3. What is the role of growth factors? 4. Cells divide, differentiate, or die. What is differentiation?
(1)
For unicellular organisms, cell division is important for the reproduction of the population, Unicellular organism mainly use cell division, also called binary fission, for pollution growth. This is because unicellular organisms are only composed of one cell.
Multicellular organisms use cell division for growth and reproduction. Cell division causes increase in the number of cells composing the organism hence its growth in size. Cell division is also used to create gametes that are used in reproduction by fertilization.
(2)
Even in fully developed organisms, cell division is important in tissue repair. In tissue homeostasis, there is a balanced rate of cell division and cell death . An example in muscles. Due to the stress experienced by muscle cells, they usually have a lower life span and therefore the damaged cells are often replaced with new ones by cell division. This prevents tissue wastage.
(3)
Growth factors signal the growth of a cell. They usually bind receptors on the cell surface and indicate how the cell should grow and divide base don environmental stimuli. An example is during regular exercises. Growth factors indicate that the muscle cells should divide regularly and grow bigger to accommodate the higher stress in the muscles from the workout. This is how your muscles grow bigger and stronger with more exercise.
(4)
Differentiation of cells occurs through the silencing of some gene allowing the cell to produce particular proteins (and other biomolecules) that align with its functions in the body. This especially critical in multicellular organisms. An example is that while al the cells in your body have the same DNA, some cells differentiate into liver cells while others into lungs, stomach, heart, and etcetera.
Learn More:
For more on cell division check out;
https://brainly.com/question/4365207
https://brainly.com/question/11266913
#LearnWithBrainly
Cell division is important in both unicellular and multicellular organisms. It is the primary method of reproduction in unicellular organisms, allowing them to multiply and grow. In multicellular organisms, cell division is necessary for growth, maintenance, and repair of cells and tissues. Growth factors play a role in regulating cell division, and differentiation is the process by which cells become specialized to perform specific functions.
Explanation:Cell division is important in both unicellular and multicellular organisms, but for different reasons. In unicellular organisms, cell division is the primary method of reproduction. When a single cell divides, it creates two new cells, allowing the organism to multiply and grow.
In multicellular organisms, cell division is important for growth, maintenance, and repair of cells and tissues. For example, when an organism is injured, cell division allows for the regeneration of damaged tissues. Additionally, cell division is necessary for the production of new blood and skin cells in adults.
Growth factors are proteins that regulate cell division and cell growth. They bind to specific receptors on the surface of cells and initiate signaling pathways that promote cell division. These growth factors ensure that cell division occurs in a controlled and regulated manner.
Differentiation is the process by which cells become specialized to perform specific functions. During development, cells undergo differentiation to become different types of cells, such as nerve cells, muscle cells, or skin cells. This specialization allows for the coordinated functioning of different tissues and organs in multicellular organisms.
Learn more about Cell Division here:https://brainly.com/question/29773280
#SPJ6
You would like to examine the product of a PCR reaction using gel electrophoresis. You have about 50 µL of PCR product, but the well can only hold 10 µL of sample. You have a 5X stock solution of loading dye which must be mixed with the PCR product to a final concentration of 1X. What is the volume of loading dye and PCR product that you will need in order to make 10 µL of the final mix? Round each to the nearest microliter.
Answer:
You need to mix 2 µL of the 5x loading dye and 8 µL of the PCR product.
Explanation:
To get a final concentration of 1X of the loading dye, you make the next calculations:
(V1)(C1)=(V2)(C2) (Volume1)(Concentration1)=(Volume2)(Concentration2)
where:
(V1)(5x)=(10 µL)(1x)
V1=[(10 µL)(1x)]/5x
V1= 2 µL
The human genome comprises just over 3.1 billion base pairs. Assuming average nucleosome spacing throughout the genome, how many molecules of histone H2A are present in the chromatin of one somatic human cell after DNA replication but before cell division?
a. 6.2 million
b. 124 million
c. 32 million
d. 3.1 milion
e. 62 million
The number of histone H2A molecules in the chromatin of one somatic human cell after DNA replication but before cell division is approximately 21.23 million.
Explanation:The human genome is composed of 3.1 billion base pairs. The spacing between nucleosomes is on average 146 base pairs. After DNA replication, the number of histone H2A molecules in the chromatin of one somatic human cell can be calculated by dividing the total number of base pairs by the nucleosome spacing. Therefore, the number of histone H2A molecules in one somatic human cell after DNA replication but before cell division is approximately 21.23 million, which is not one of the given options.
Learn more about Histone H2A molecules here:
https://brainly.com/question/31681646
#SPJ12
14) You are studying the rose-spotted numbat, which lives for one year. In this species there are two types of helpers. Type I helpers repel predators, bring food to the young and defend the territory. Having one of these helpers increases the reproductive output of the breeders by 0.5 offspring. Type I helpers are related to the young of the breeding pair by r-0.4, on average. Additionally, the Type I helpers can occasionally breed and produce, on average, 0.5 offspring per year. Type II helpers do not breed, however, they are much more effective in providing help to the breeders. Their help, which is also given exclusively to the breeders (to whose young they are also related by r 0.4) results in an increase of 1.5 offspring. Which of the following statements is true? a) Type II helpers have greater direct fitness than Type I helpers b) Type II helpers have greater inclusive fitness than Type I helpers c) Breeders with Type I helpers have higher fitness than breeders with Type II helpers d) Type I helpers have greater indirect fitness than Type II helpers e) Type I helpers do not increase the fitness of the breeders they help
Answer:
b) Type II helpers have greater inclusive fitness than Type I helpers
Explanation:
Type II helpers have a greater direct fitness and inclusive fitness than Type I helpers. Breeders with Type II helpers have higher fitness than breeders with Type I helpers.
Explanation:Type II helpers have greater direct fitness than Type I helpers. Direct fitness refers to the number of offspring an individual produces, so Type II helpers, despite not being able to breed, increase the reproductive output of the breeders by 1.5 offspring. On the other hand, Type I helpers increase the reproductive output by 0.5 offspring. Therefore, Type II helpers have a greater direct fitness than Type I helpers.
Type II helpers also have greater inclusive fitness than Type I helpers. Inclusive fitness includes both an individual's direct fitness and the fitness gained through relatives that share genes with it. Since Type II helpers are closely related to the breeders' young by a coefficient of relatedness of 0.4, their help indirectly increases their own inclusive fitness.
Breeders with Type II helpers have higher fitness than breeders with Type I helpers. This is because Type II helpers provide more effective help, resulting in a higher increase in the number of offspring. Therefore, statement b) Type II helpers have greater inclusive fitness than Type I helpers is true.
Learn more about Helper types and their fitness in the rose-spotted numbat here:https://brainly.com/question/14020442
#SPJ12
People with beriberi, a disease caused by thiamine deficiency, have elevated levels of blood pyruvate and a -ketoglutarate, especially after consuming a meal rich in glucose. How are these effects related to a deficiency of thiamine?
Answer:
Explanation:
Thiamine pyrophosphate is a thiamine derivative and acts a coenzyme for various enzymes including pyruvate dehydrogenase and α-ketoglutarate dehydrogenase. These are involved in catabolism of pyruvate and α-ketoglutarate, respectively.
Peter Grant - the evolutionary biologist who has studied finches on Daphne Major (an island in the Galapagos) for several decades - collected data on birds' beak sizes, weight, diet and mating behavior to test his hypotheses. This kind of data is an example of:A. taxonomyB. artificial selectionC. empirical evidenceD. non-factual informationE. a belief
Answer:
C. empirical evidence
Explanation:
Empirical evidence is a type of knowledge obtained through sensory experience, that is, through the process of observation and experimentation. Empirical evidence is often used during the application of the scientific method to test a hypothesis. In the example in question, Peter Grant obtained empirical evidence about birds' biology to verify that his assumptions about their evolution were correct.
List and briefly describe four components of innate immunity (include one barrier defense and three internal defenses)
Final answer:
Innate immunity consists of barrier defenses like the skin, and internal defenses such as the inflammatory response, natural killer cells, and phagocytes. These components work together to provide immediate defense against pathogens.
Explanation:
Innate immunity includes both barrier and internal defenses against pathogens. The following are four components of the innate immune system:
Barrier defenses: The skin and mucous membranes act as the body's first line of defense, providing a physical barrier that prevents the entry of pathogens.Inflammatory response: When a pathogen penetrates barrier defenses, mast cells and basophils release histamines, which increases blood flow and immune cell access to the affected area, creating inflammation.Natural killer cells: These cells are a type of lymphocyte that detects and destroys cells infected by viruses and tumor cells without the need for prior activation by specific antigens.Phagocytes: Cells like macrophages engulf and digest pathogens and debris. They are an essential component of the innate immune response.These components work together to provide immediate, nonspecific responses to various pathogens and prepare the body for more specific adaptive immune responses.
In a predator-prey system, the two species are related by: Choose all that apply.
coevolution.
character displacement.
the population cycle.
exploitation.
Explanation:
A preditor-prey system, the 2 species are related by; co-evolution(because preditors eat prey that is available and plentiful, for example a rodent species.
also, the population cycle because rodents live for a short period of time in the wild, but reproduce quickly. example; spring and summer seasons is when food is most plentiful for all species of wildlife,
Answer:
In a predator-prey system, the two species are related by the population cycle.
Explanation:
A recent study was published in NATURE which demonstrated that predator prey system is related with each other through population cycle.
As the population of organisms keep on changing with time. For example mouse and rats produce 7-10 off springs in a month while snake that hunt mouse breed only seasonally once or twice a year.
Here is the full study that will help you under stand better.
Citation: Stevens, A. (2010) Dynamics of Predation. Nature Education Knowledge 3(10):46
Populations evolve for many reasons. Suppose there is a population of plants that have either purple flowers or white flowers, and the allele for purple flowers is dominant. This means that plants with two purple alleles have purple flowers. Plants with one purple allele and one white allele also have purple flowers. Only plants with two white alleles have white flowers.For each event or condition described below, answer the following questions.a. Which mechanism of evolution is at work?b. How does this event affect the population's gene pool? c. Do the frequencies of the two alleles change, and if so, how?
Answer:
n/l
Explanation:
Natural selection through directional selection was the driving force behind evolution. The parents of the purple flowers were capable of withstanding the selective pressure.
What is natural selection?Natural selection is the process by which living organism populations adapt and change. Individuals in a population are basically the naturally variable, which implies they differ in some ways.
The driving force behind evolution was natural selection via directional selection. The purple flowers' parents were able to withstand the selective pressure.
Because of dominance in expression with each successive generation in both homozygote and heterozygote states, and thus higher frequency of expression compared to white flowers, the gene pool of purple flowers will be large.
The frequency of an allele is determined by the allele's rate of expression in the population.
Thus, dominant purple flowers have a higher frequency of expression than recessive white flowers, which can only express themselves in the homozygote recessive state.
For more details regarding natural selection, visit:
https://brainly.com/question/2725702
#SPJ6
Two nutrient solutions are maintained at the same pH. Actively respiring mitochondria are isolated and placed into each of the two solutions. Oxygen gas is bubbled into one solution. The other solution is depleted of available oxygen. Which of the following best explains why ATP production is greater in the tube with oxygen than in the tube without oxygen?
A. The rate of proton pumping across the inner mitochondrial membrane is lower in the sample without oxygen. B. Electron transport is reduced in the absence of a plasma membrane. C. In the absence of oxygen, oxidative phosphorylation produces more ATP than does fermentation. D. In the presence of oxygen, glycolysis produces more ATP than in the absence of oxygen.
Was told the answer is A. but i need help justifying that and why it is not D
Answer:
Explanation:
A is correct because energy from electrons from oxygen are used to pump the H+ (as well as electrons from NADH) It's not D because glycolysis happens both in absence and presence of oxygen and never uses O2 so glycolysis is the same in both processes, its what happens after glycolysis that is dependent on the availability of oxygen (oxidative phosphorylation or fermentation)
Final answer:
The rate of proton pumping across the inner mitochondrial membrane is lower in the sample without oxygen, explaining why ATP production is greater in the tube with oxygen. Glycolysis does not produce more ATP in the presence of oxygen.
Explanation:
The best explanation for why ATP production is greater in the tube with oxygen than in the tube without oxygen is that the rate of proton pumping across the inner mitochondrial membrane is lower in the sample without oxygen. In oxidative phosphorylation, oxygen acts as the final electron acceptor and combines with protons to form water. Without oxygen, the electrons cannot be removed from the system, causing the electron transport chain to back up and ATP production to decrease. Therefore, the presence of oxygen is essential for efficient ATP production.
In contrast, choice D, glycolysis refers to the breakdown of glucose without oxygen and occurs in the cytoplasm, not the mitochondria. Glycolysis produces a small amount of ATP directly, regardless of the presence of oxygen. However, the majority of ATP production occurs through oxidative phosphorylation in the mitochondria, which requires the presence of oxygen.
he passage describes some glycolysis reactions. Select the appropriate term for each blank to complete the passage. In the first reaction of glycolysis, glucose is converted to . The phosphate comes from . A is an enzyme that transfers the terminal phosphate of to a substrate. The product of this reaction is then to fructose‑6‑phosphate. Fructose‑6‑phosphate is then phosphorylated by a second reaction, giving .
Answer:
Glucose-6-phosphate,ATP, hexokinase,fructose-1,6-bisphosphate.
Explanation:
In the first reaction of glycolysis glucose is converted to glucose is converted to glucose -6-phosphate.The phosphate comes from ATP. Hexokinase is an enzyme that transfers the terminal phosphate to a substrate.The product of this reaction is then converted to fructose-6-phosphate.Fructose-6-phosphate is then phosphorylated by a second reaction,giving fructose-1,6 -bisphosphate.
1. What chemicals make up the sides-or backbone, of the DNA molecule
Answer:
1. Deoxyribose sugar
2. Phosphate molecules
Explanation:
The back bone of DNA is made up pf two molecules.
1. Deoxyribose sugar
2. Phosphate molecules
deoxyribose is a 5 carbon sugar molecule while phosphate is inorganic salt .
Final answer:
The backbone of the DNA molecule is composed of a sugar-phosphate chain, formed by the alternating units of phosphate groups and a five-carbon sugar called deoxyribose.
Explanation:
The sides or backbone of the DNA molecule are made up of alternating units of phosphate groups and a five-carbon sugar known as deoxyribose. These two components are bonded together through a type of chemical reaction known as dehydration synthesis, which forms a covalent bond between the phosphate group of one nucleotide and the deoxyribose sugar of the next, resulting in a long polymer chain. This sugar-phosphate backbone forms the structural framework of DNA to which the nitrogen-containing bases are attached. The structure of DNA is a double helix, where these backbones twist around each other with the complementary nucleotide bases pointing inwards, held together by hydrogen bonds.
Why is the net production of ATP from palmitate 106 ATP and not 108 ATP?
A. because conversion of palmitate to palmitoyl-CoA consumes the equivalent of 2 ATP
B. because the overall reaction for conversion of palmitoyl-CoA to has 106 ATP on the products side of the reaction
C. because each NADH produces about 2.5 ATP, and each FADH2 produces about 1.5 ATP
D. because 2 ATP are lost due to the production of by β oxidation inside a mitochondrion
Answer:
D. because 2 ATP are lost due to the production of by β oxidation inside a mitochondrion
Explanation:Two ATPs were borrowed from the Nets 4 ATPs produced in glycolysis, for the substrate level phosphorylation in the initial stage of glycolysis for pyruvate productions.
Therefore, the total ATPs would have been 108ATPs, produced as net ATPs, during kerb’s cycle, and oxidative phosphorylation. But because 2ATPs has been spent in substrate phosphorylation then the ATPs produces is 106ATPs
If a small founder population of 12 people ends up on a small island, and one member of the population had a mutation that creates a new allele, what is the likelihood that the allele will be eliminated from the population? Enter your answer as a percentage (not decimal), omit the percent sign however.
A Proximity of 92 percentage may likely be eliminated from the population.
Explanation:
This is based on the principle of genetic drift which states that the allele frequency in a population changes from generation to generation. Sometimes there in a loss of alleles and otherwise there is a fixation or rise.
If there is a probability of an allele being fixed we have to calculate the initial frequency of the mutation.
Mutation fixing probability = No. mutation alleles / total Number of alleles
= 1/12 = 0.083
Therefore the probability of the allele getting eliminated is
Elimination probability = 1 – mutation fixing probability
= 1 - 0.083 = 0.917 =91.7 % = 92 %
Which of the following is a consequence of acid deposition? Group of answer choices A) It increases the likelihood of low-lying ground fogs. B) It results in offshore eutrophication, damaging coral reefs. C) It creates rainwater that can damage skin cells or cause cancers. D) It leaches important minerals from soils. E) It is increasing the rate of global warming.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D
Explanation:
Acid deposition is the process by which the acid formed in the atmosphere falls off with the rain and gets deposited in the lithosphere.
The deposition of the acid in the soil causes many adverse effects on the living organisms especially plants as deposition of acid leads to the reactions which result in the release of the elements from their compounds via a process known as "leaching".
The leaching of the elements leads to the decrease in the fertility of the soil and thus productivity of the plants or crops.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Answer:
Option (D)
Explanation:
The acid rain is usually defined as a type of precipitation which is comprised of acids such as sulfuric and nitric acids and is harmful to the living organism.
It directly affects the soil because the nutrient particles present in the soil such as phosphorus, nitrogen, and aluminum are washed away during acid rain. The acid rain adds the hydrogen ions to the soil and reacts with the nutrients present in the soil and thereby removes it and it eventually flows to the streams and rivers. This process of eroding soil particles is often known as leaching.
Thus, Acid rain leads to the leaching of important soil minerals.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
A man with normal vision and a colorblind woman have children together. We can expect that _________ of their sons and _________ of their daughters will be colorblind.
A. half none
B. none half
C. all half
D. half all
E. all none
During the light dependent reactions of photosynthesis, we would expect what compound(s) to be produced? A) glucose B) ATP and NADPH C) water and NADPH D) glucose and oxygen
Answer:D
Explanation:After water combined with CO2, it give glucose n oxygen
Answer:
D
Explanation:
Which of the following statements is correct? a. Aldosterone is secreted in response to elevated levels of sodium in the blood. b. Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. c. Aldosterone helps decrease blood volume. d. Aldosterone increases the concentration of sodium in the urine.
Answer:
b. Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys.
Explanation:
Once it is produced by the adrenal gland it stimulates the mineralocorticoid receptors on the distal tubule and collecting duct of the kidney's nephrons. This causes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys indirectly affecting water retention.
The statement 'b. Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys' is correct. Aldosterone helps regulate electrolyte balance, increasing sodium reabsorption and water retention, leading to elevated blood volume and pressure while also excreting potassium.
Explanation:The correct statement among the options given is: b. Aldosterone promotes sodium reabsorption in the kidneys. Aldosterone is a hormone secreted by the adrenal cortex, and it plays a vital role in regulating sodium and potassium balance within the body. It is released in response to several conditions, including low blood volume, low blood pressure, or high levels of potassium in the blood. The primary function of aldosterone is to increase the reabsorption of sodium ions in the distal convoluted tubules and collecting ducts of the kidneys. When sodium is reabsorbed, water follows due to osmosis, leading to an increase in blood volume and blood pressure. Conversely, aldosterone also stimulates the excretion of potassium, thereby reducing its levels in the blood.
Fred Griffith studied two strains of Streptococcus pneumonia,one that causes a lethal infection when injected into mice, and a second that is harmless.He observed that pathogenic bacteria that have been killed by heating can no longer cause an infection. But when these heat-killed bacteria are mixed with live, harmless bacteria, this mixture is capable of infecting and killing a mouse. What did Griffith conclude from this experiment?
Answer:
The correct answer will be- There is some molecule which could have transformed the avirulent bacterial strains to become virulent and called it a transforming principle.
Explanation:
Griffith performed the experiment on two strains of Streptococcus pneumonia in which one strain is avirulent called R strain and another virulent strain called S strain.
When Griffith killed the S bacteria (virulent) by heat and added it in the R strain Petri dishes and then injected the bacteria to mice, the mice killed. This amazed him as to how the avirulent bacteria killed the mice ?
He concluded that there was some principle which transformed the avirulent bacteria to virulent bacteria and thus called the principle as transforming principle.
The physical process that makes gene linkage incomplete is
A. segregation
B. mitosis
C. the lining up of chromosomes in the middle of the cell
D. cyclin reaching a threshold concentration
E. crossing over
Answer:
Option E, Crossing Over
Explanation:
In the process of crossing over, a chromosome is replicated to produce two sister chromatids.
Sister chromatids have genes that are divided and shared with the offspring in equal number. In this way genetic traits are exchanged and the offspring has a new set of genes.
This process takes place at the prophase stage of cell division.
Without crossing over, gene linkage is incomplete.
Hence , option E is correct
A drug that prevents assembly of the mitotic spindle would cause the cell cycle to stall just after
A. chromosome condensation
B. attachment of the spindle to the chromosomes
C. all the chromosomes have lined up in the middle of the cell
D. the separation of sister chromatids
E. cytokinesis
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A
Explanation:
Colchicine is the drug that prevents the assembly of the mitotic spindles which halts or stops the cell cycle.
The colchicine acts by inhibiting the microtubule polymerization thus mitotic spindles which takes place after the condensation of the chromosomes during prophase and pre-metaphase.
This acts as checkpoint which can halt the cell cycle at the phase of chromosome condensation.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.