Answer:
Option (D).
Explanation:
Recombination frequency nay be defined as the the frequency of crossover of a single chromosome during meiosis. The maxiumum recombination frequency is 50%.
Genes that has recombination frequency nearly equal to 50% are considered as unlinked genes. Unlinked genes cannot undergo the recombination process and may have equal chances to inherit together or can inherit separately in the next generation.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Final answer:
Recombination frequency is less than 50% when genes are linked, meaning they are located close together on the same chromosome and are inherited together. A frequency near 50% indicates unlinked genes, suggesting they are either very far apart on the same chromosome or on different chromosomes. The correct answer is D).
Explanation:
The question is why the recombination frequency between two genes is always less than 50%. The answer to this lies in the concept of genetic linkage. Recombination frequency indicates how often new allele combinations are formed in offspring relative to the parents and is expressed in percentages or map units, also known as centimorgans.
When genes are located on the same chromosome and are close together, they tend to be inherited together, and crossing over between them is less likely than when they are far apart or on different chromosomes. This results in a recombination frequency of less than 50%, signifying that they are linked genes.
When the recombination frequency reaches around 50%, it suggests that genes are either located very far apart on the same chromosome or on different chromosomes, acting as if they are unlinked. In these cases, offspring have an approximately equal likelihood of inheriting either parental or recombinant allele combinations.
Thus, the statement that explains the phenomenon is D) genes with a recombination frequency near 50% are unlinked and have an equal likelihood of being inherited together or separately.
newly discovered unicellular organism isolated from acidic mine drainage is found to contain ribosomes, a plasma membrane, two flagella, and peroxisomes, among other components. Based just on this information, the organism is most likely _______
Answer:
Newly discovered unicellular organism isolated from acidic mine drainage is found to contain ribosomes, a plasma membrane, two flagella, and peroxisomes, among other components. Based just on this information, the organism is most likely a motile eukatryot
Im really desperate, I need this answer. Plzzzz.
Use Zoe’s diagram to answer the following questions.
Zoe wants to replace the letters on her diagram with labels that describe how the nerves and muscles communicated with each other to trigger her reflexive response. What should her labels be? Should she eliminate any letters from this pathway?
I believe the correct answers are:
A- Sensory Neuron
B- Spinal cord
C- Effector neuron
D - Brain
Explanation:A - Sensory Neuron:This is a type of neuron that recieves a stimulus. In this case, a person was pinched at the point A causing the sensory neurons to be stimulated then converted the stimulus into a nerve impulse/electric signals finally transmitting it into the spinal cord labelled B.
B- Spinal cord:This is the long J or S- shaped structure supporting the body upright and also acting as a link to communicate signals from the periphery of the body to the brain for interpretation. It recieves signals from the sensory neuron at point A and uses its inter-neurons to communicate with the brain (point D).
C- Effector neuron:This is a neuron that causes muscular contraction in what will be seen as a reflex after the muscle had been stimulated. These neurons are only found in the spinal chord and have a central cell body and nucleus.
D- Brain:It is the central processing center where the reflex stimulus is recieved from the spinal chord (B) and then interpreted into an electrical signal that will produce muscle movement at point C.
A: skin detects sharp nerve
B: spinal cord receives signal from sensory
C: the nerve impulse the muscle to contract
Zoe should remove the the brain from this pathway because a reflexive motor response doesn’t travel to the brain.
What device is used to measure the rate at which food energy is converted to another form?
Explanation:
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The most important role of pigments in photosynthesis is to __________.
Answer:
Capture light energy.
Explanation:
The most important role of pigments in photosynthesis is to capture light energy.
Pigments in photosynthesis absorb specific wavelengths of visible light, allowing plants to capture energy from sunlight and initiate the process of photosynthesis.
Explanation:The most important role of pigments in photosynthesis is to absorb specific wavelengths of visible light. Different pigments absorb different colors of light, allowing plants and photosynthetic organisms to capture a wider range of energy from the sunlight. By absorbing light, pigments initiate the process of photosynthesis, converting solar energy into chemical energy.
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TRUE OR FALSE?
The innate immune system is a generalized response to a pathogen and it keeps a memory of the pathogen.
I believe the correct answer is FALSE.
Explanation:Innate immunity is a fast acting response to confront a pathogen but does not keep memory. It is initiated and carried out by cell and can be refered to as cellular immunity lasting for a short term.
Further Explanation:Innate Immunity:This is the first line of defence and involves only cells. It lasts for a short period usually around 12 hours. It includes physical barries. The cells involved are: epithelial cells, dendritic cells, plasma proteins and natural killer cells. All the cells involved are macrocytes. It functions to recognize and attack the pathogen before the second type of immunity called adaptive immunity sets in. It usually is also non specific and responds generally to any pathogen.
Adaptive Immunity:It is a much more longer lasting type of immunities and has memory. It has a combination of cells and humoral components. It involves Naive B cells which are triggered to release antibodies known as Immunoglobulins depending on the cause of the trigger. Immunoglobulins include IgG, IgM, IgA, IgG and IgD and are usually Y-shaped. Additionally, it involves Naive T cells that are activated into Effector T-cells to assist in fighting the pathogen. This type of immunity is more focused and specific antibodies are released for specific infections/pathogens. It lasts up to 5 days or longer depending on the pathogen. It also takes time to mount up and produce a response.
Level: High School
If you knew the sequence of nucleotides within a gene, which one of the following could you determine with the most accuracy? A. The answer cannot be determined based on the information provided. B. The tertiary structure of the protein C. The secondary structure of the protein D. The primary structure of the protein E. The quaternary structure of the protein
Answer:
The correct option is D, THE PRIMARY STRUCTURE OF THE PROTEIN.
Explanation:
Proteins generally have four different types of structures, which are primary, secondary, tertiary and quaternary structures. The primary structure of a protein refers to the sequence of amino acids in a polypeptide chain. The sequence of amino acid in a protein is determined by the sequence of nucleotide in the DNA that encode the protein. Thus, if one knows the sequence of the nucleotide within a gene, one can easily determine the primary structure of the protein.
Knowing the sequence of nucleotides within a gene allows you to most accurately determine the primary structure of the protein, which is the specific sequence of amino acids that form the protein.
Explanation:The most accurate determination you could make from knowing the sequence of nucleotides within a gene is D. The primary structure of the protein. The primary structure of a protein is simply the sequence of amino acids forming a polypeptide chain, which is encoded by the gene. This sequential information of nucleotides can be translated into the specific sequence of amino acids forming the protein.
Further elaborations such as the secondary structure of protein involving the formation of alpha-helices or beta-pleated sheets, and the tertiary structure which pertains to the overall three-dimensional structure of the protein involve further folding and bonding which is influenced by several other factors beyond the nucleotide sequences of the gene. The quaternary structure involves interactions between two or more tertiary subunits.
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The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the ________.
(A) pelvic nerves.
(B) cephalic plexus.
(C) lumbar splanchnic nerves.
(D) vagus (X) nerves.
D) vagus (X) nerves. The smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the vagus (X) nerves. It is responsible for parasympathetic output to visceral organs, especially the intestines (responsible for gastrointestinal peristalsis). It carries some motor information back to the organs. The solitary nucleus receives primary afferents from visceral organs. We can also say that the smooth muscle of the digestive viscera is served largely by the tenth cranial nerve.
1) What three conditions must be present for minerals to form through natural processes?
2) Why are minerals considered inorganic substances?
3) How do oxides differ from other minerals that contain oxygen atoms?
4) How is a sulfide different from a sulfate?
What makes native elements unique?
1- What three conditions must be present for minerals to form through natural processes?
The formation of minerals is not an accidental process that takes place inside the earth but it depends on several physical and chemical conditions to form. One of the most important conditions necessary for the formation of minerals is the presence of right elements in appropriately required amount.
The second will be the chemical and physical condition such as the pH of the soil or environment, temperature and pressure. The third most important condition is the availability of enough time in which the elements can come into an order for the formation of minerals which otherwise can lead the formation of improperly sized sub constituents of minerals.
2) Why are minerals considered inorganic substances?
Generally, we define organic compounds as those containing carbon atoms and mostly derived from living things. If we talk about minerals, they are mostly derived from nonliving things such as earth crust or layers below its surfaces. They are not derived from animals and plants and therefore they are considered to be inorganic substances. However, some minerals can be organic in nature for example Urea derived from Urine when it is present in very arid conditions.
3) How do oxides differ from other minerals that contain oxygen atoms?
There is a very sharp difference between minerals continuing oxides as conjugates and minerals containing oxygen in some other conjugated form. In former ones, the oxygen atom is directly attached with some metal element (can be one or more). While in latter ones, oxygen is just simply bonded to some other element like silicon, sulfur or carbon. This combination of metals are then attached to some other minerals. There are many important metals which are found as oxides in nature.
Moreover, mineral oxides are basic in nature while non oxides are acidic in nature. Similarly, metal oxides are ionic in nature while non oxides have covalent bonding. Metal oxides react with acids and form salts while non oxides react with bases to form salts.
4) How is a sulfide different from a sulfate?
There is a sharp difference between a sulfide and sulfate, because in sulfide, sulfur atom accepts two electrons from a reducing agent like some metal. It is strongly basic in nature and the sulfide ion exists in S2- form. When gets in contact with water it gets easily protonated to form HS- or Hydrogen sulfide.
On the other hand, sulfate is a state of sulfur where it is bonded with four oxygen atoms with formula as SO42- . It forms salts with metallic elements like Calcium sulphate (CaSO4) and Sodium sulphate (Na2SO4 ).
5- What makes native elements unique?
Native elements are the minerals which are found in an uncombined form in nature. It means that they are made up of only single kind of element and the same is the thing which makes them unique because other minerals are mostly an amalgam of several kinds of metals or elements. Some examples of native elements include, gold and silver which are composed of single elements respectively.
Answer:1.For minerals to form through natural processes, the correct elements must be present in the right amounts. The physical and chemical conditions, such as temperature, pressure, and pH, must be favorable. In addition, there must be enough time for the atoms to become ordered. Otherwise the mineral grains will remain very small.
2.In most cases, minerals are considered inorganic substances because they’re not derived from or made by living matter, such as plants and animals. There are a few minerals, however, that are produced by living organisms.
3.In oxides, the oxygen atoms bond directly to one or more metals. In other minerals, such as carbonates, sulfates, and silicates, the oxygen atoms are part of molecules in which the oxygen is already bonded to another element, such as carbon, sulfur, or silicon. These molecules then bond to other elements.
4.In sulfides, sulfur atoms bond with one or more metals. In sulfates, the sulfur atoms are part of a molecule that also contains oxygen. The sulfate molecule is what bonds to other elements.
5.Native elements are unique in that they’re composed of atoms of a single element. For example, gold is composed only of gold atoms. Silver is composed only of silver atoms.
Explanation:
Epilepsy may result in motor seizures due to massive synchronous firing of neurons in a small area of the cerebral cortex (epileptic focus). Excitation spreads from the focus, involving an increasingly larger area of the cortex. A drug for the treatment of epilepsy would be most effective if it caused which of the following changes in the epileptic focus? A. an increase in the neuron-firing thresholdB. An increase in extracellular Na+ concentrationC. a decrease in axon-membrane permeability to negative ionsD. a decrease in the length of the depolarization stage
Answer: Option A
Explanation:
Epilepsy can be defined as the medical condition in which the central nervous system disorder in which the brain activity becomes abnormal which results in the abnormal behavior, sensation accompanied by loss of awareness.
In this condition a drug that can best treat epilepsy should reduce the activity of neurons in the epileptic focus which are excitatory neurons based on the effect throughout their cortex.
It does so by increasing the threshold which is required to generate action potential which will decrease the chances that neurons will fire.
This effect will reduce the overall amount of excitation which spreads from epileptic focus throughout the cortex.
hence, the correct answer is option A
For epilepsy treatment, an effective drug would increase the neuron-firing threshold, stabilizing the electrical activity in the brain and preventing seizure occurrences.
Explanation:Epilepsy is a neurological disorder characterized by recurrent seizures, which are sudden bursts of electrical activity in the brain. These can cause convulsions, unusual behavior, and loss of consciousness.
To treat epilepsy effectively, a drug would need to prevent the spread of erratic electrical signals. One way to do this is by increasing the neuron-firing threshold, thus making it harder for neurons to reach the level of depolarization needed for a seizure to occur.
A drug that increases the neuron-firing threshold in the epileptic focus would be most beneficial. This could be achieved by blocking or interfering with movements of sodium (Na+) and potassium (K+) ions in and out of the neuron membrane, thus changing the action potential and reducing excitability. As a result, the drug would help interrupt the propagation of the abnormal electrical potentials that cause seizures.
Dehydration reactions are used in forming which of the following compounds?
A) triacylglycerides
B) polysaccharides
C) proteins D) A and C only
E) A, B, and C
Answer:
E) A, B, and C
Explanation:
A chemist would call them condensation reactions, that is, reactions in which two molecules combine by splitting out a molecule of water.
A) Triacylglycerides form by splitting out molecules of water from glycerol and fatty acids
C₃H₅(OH)₃ + 3RCOOH ⟶ C₃H₅(OCOR)₃ + 3H₂O
glycerol fatty acid triacylglyceride water
B) Carbohydrates form by splitting out molecules of water from simpler carbohydrates
C₆H₁₂O₆ + C₆H₁₂O₆ ⟶ C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ + H₂O
glucose fructose sucrose water
C) Proteins form by reactions between amino acids.
H₂NCH(R)CO-OH + H-NHCH(R)COOH
amino acid amino acid
⟶ H₂NCH(R)CO-NHCH(R)COOH + H₂O
dipeptide water
Dehydration reactions are used in forming - option E. A triacylglycerides, B polysaccharides, C proteins.
Dehydration reaction where two hydrogen atoms from one molecule combine with an oxygen atom on the other molecule or hydroxyl group from one molecule combine with a hydrogen atom from the other molecule in both cases, water is released as a product.
A) Triacylglycerides -
splitting out molecules of water from glycerol and fatty acids
C₃H₅(OH)₃ + 3RCOOH ⟶ C₃H₅(OCOR)₃ + 3H₂O
glycerol fatty acid triacylglyceride water
B) Carbohydrates or polysaccharides: monomers like glucose from polymers.
C₆H₁₂O₆ + C₆H₁₂O₆ ⟶ C₁₂H₂₂O₁₁ + H₂O
glucose fructose sucrose water
C) Proteins: form by reactions between amino acids.
H₂NCH(R)CO-OH + H-NHCH(R)COOH
amino acid amino acid
⟶ H₂NCH(R)CO-NHCH(R)COOH + H₂O
dipeptide water
Thus, the Dehydration reactions are used in forming - option E. A triacylglycerides, B polysaccharides, C proteins.
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A nurse needs to calculate a client’s cardiac output. The client’s heart rate is 80 beats per minute. Which other measurements does the nurse need to calculate the cardiac output?
Some drugs modulate the activity of ion channels. For example, Novocain somewhat inhibits the opening of sodium channels. What happens to the threshold of a sensory neuron if this drug is used?
Answer: it will take more stimulation to reach the threshold.
Aldosterone from the adrenal cortex causes sodium ions to be
Answer: retained to maintain effective vascular circulating volume and on the other hand, the elimination of potassium and magnesium.
Explanation:
The adrenal glands are bilateral structures divided into two distinct zones: the cortex and the marrow. The adrenal cortex is subdivided into 3 zones, each with specific anatomical characteristics. The glomerular zone, composed of cuboid and columnar cells, with a dense nucleus and scarce cytoplasm with few lipids, is arranged in coniferous clusters of compact nests, secretes a mineralocorticoid hormone known as aldosterone.
Aldosterone acts on the regulation of electrolyte homeostasis in extracellular fluid, mainly sodium (Na) and potassium (K). Exerts its effect on distal and distorted tubules and Nephron collecting duct. Aldosterone production is under the control of serum levels of renin, angiotensin, and K.
Aldosterone, produced by the adrenal cortex, causes the kidneys to retain sodium ions, which in turn leads to water retention and affects blood pressure and volume.
Explanation:Aldosterone is a hormone produced by the adrenal cortex, a part of the adrenal gland. Its primary function is to regulate the balance of water and electrolytes in the body, specifically sodium and potassium. When aldosterone is secreted, it prompts the kidneys to retain sodium ions. This results in an exchange process in the renal tubules, where sodium is reabsorbed back into the bloodstream and potassium is excreted into the urine. Therefore, aldosterone actually causes sodium ions to be retained and not expelled. This sodium retention process consequently leads to water retention, which impacts blood pressure and volume.
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Compare and contrast three metabolic pathways by choosing whether the statement applies to aerobic respiration. Check all that apply. View Available Hint(s) Check all that apply. A total of 38 ATP are produced per molecule of glucose input. End products may include lactic acid or ethanol. Can generate ATP in the absence of O2. Much or most of the ATP produced is produced by oxidative phosphorylation. The coenzyme NAD+ plays an important role in the pathway. Process involves the Krebs cycle Between 2 and 38 ATP are produced per molecule of glucose input. Process involves electron transport and chemiosmosis A total of 2 ATP are produced per molecule of glucose input. End products are CO2 and H2O Process includes glycolysis
Aerobic respiration, anaerobic respiration, and glycolysis are three metabolic pathways that differ in their ATP production and end products, and their involvement of oxygen and specific metabolic steps.
Explanation:The three metabolic pathways being compared and contrasted are aerobic respiration, which can generate ATP in the absence of O2 and involves the Krebs cycle, electron transport, and chemiosmosis, and produces between 2 and 38 ATP per molecule of glucose input; anaerobic respiration, which can generate ATP in the absence of O2 and may produce end products like lactic acid or ethanol, and produces 2 ATP per molecule of glucose input; and glycolysis, which produces 2 ATP and 2 NADH molecules per molecule of glucose input, and if the pyruvate molecules cannot be further catabolized, the cell will only harvest 2 ATP molecules from one molecule of glucose.
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Which of the following best represents the length of the life cycle of a typical midlatitude cyclone?
A) 1 hour
B) 1 day
C) 1 week
D) 1 month
E) 1 year
Answer:
C- 1 week
Explanation:
A midlatitude cyclone is a cyclone that has a low atmospheric pressure at its centre, and travels in a counter-clockwise direction. There are six stages of the life cycle on a midlatitude cyclone, namely-
The stationary front- this has shear forces in opposite directionsCyclone formation- also called cyclogenesis, this occurs when a cyclonic wave develops and increasesDistinct poleward moving- low pressure is formed at the apex of the cyclone when warm and equatorward moving cold fronts developThe cold front begins to overtake the warm frontThe occluded front- Maximum intensity of the cyclone is reached at this stageThe cyclone begins to dissipate as cold air is forced to the bottom of the cyclone and warm air risesThis entire process takes about a week from start to end.
White perch is a fish that is native to Atlantic coastal regions and is invasive to the Great Lakes. It feeds on native species and is thought to be the cause of decline of the Great Lakes walleye fish populations
ANSWER
The correct answer is B.
EXPLANATION:
Here is the full question with the options attached to it:
White perch is a fish that is native to Atlantic coastal regions and is invasive to the Great Lakes. It feeds on native species and is thought to be the cause of the decline of the Great Lakes walleye fish populations. What was most likely its mode of introduction?
A. Produce brought from the eastern states
B. Trapped in a ship's ballast or a water tank
C. Trapped in a cargo crate carrying nonperishable items
D. Luggage brought in an overseas flight.
An invasive specie refers to a living organism that is not native to a particular environment but is brought to that environment either intentionally or accidentally.
Presence of invasive specie is usually detrimental to the overall well being of animals that are native of the concerned environment. Invasive specie can be introduced into an area via different methods. An example of invasive specie is White perch fish. It was brought into the Great Lakes accidentally trapped in ship's ballast or water tank.
Answer: the correct answer is b
Explanation: took the test and got it right
Match the Following :
1. Receives blood from all areas superior to the diaphragm, except the heart wall.
2. Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs.
3. Drains the scalp.
4. Runs through the armpit area, giving off branches to the axillae, chest wall, and shoulder girdle.
5. Drains the upper extremities, deep vein.
A. Superior vena cava
B. Pulmonary trunk
C. Axillary artery
D. Subclavian vein
E. External jugular vein
Answer:
1. A
2. B (although technically it is the pulmonary artery)
3. E
4. C
5. D
Explanation:
The correct matches for the given statements:
1. Receives blood from all areas superior to the diaphragm, except the heart wall. - A. Superior vena cava
2. Carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. - B. Pulmonary trunk
3. Drains the scalp. - E. External jugular vein
4. Runs through the armpit area, giving off branches to the axillae, chest wall, and shoulder girdle. - C. Axillary artery
5. Drains the upper extremities, deep vein. - D. Subclavian vein
The superior vena cava is responsible for receiving blood from all areas superior to the diaphragm, except the heart wall. The pulmonary trunk carries oxygen-poor blood to the lungs. The external jugular vein drains the scalp. The axillary artery runs through the armpit area, giving off branches to the axillae, chest wall, and shoulder girdle. Lastly, the subclavian vein drains the upper extremities, deep vein.
Blood vessels are a vital part of the circulatory system responsible for transporting blood throughout the body. There are three main types of blood vessels: arteries, veins, and capillaries. Arteries carry oxygenated blood away from the heart to various parts of the body. They have thick and elastic walls that help them withstand the high pressure generated by the pumping action of the heart. Veins are blood vessels that carry deoxygenated blood back to the heart. They have thinner walls compared to arteries and contain valves that prevent the backflow of blood. Capillaries are tiny, thin-walled blood vessels that connect arteries and veins. They are the site of exchange of oxygen, nutrients, and waste products between the blood and the body's tissues.
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Robert Koch was involved in research on all of the following topics EXCEPT techniques for isolating microbes in the laboratory. the cause of anthrax. the cause of tuberculosis. development of a method to determine the cause of an infectious disease. the cause of fermentation.
Answer:
The cause of fermentation
Explanation:
Was Louis Pasteur the one who demonstrate the cause of fermentation and organic decomposition.
How can dominant-lethal alleles be passed down? (Choose the BEST answer!) a. They can’t, as they are lethal.b. They can be passed down if the individual with the lethal mutation lives to reproductive age and has a child. c. Dominant-lethal alleles occur solely through spontaneous mutations, they are not passed down through generations.d. They can be passed down if the individual freezes their eggs or sperm to allow a child to be born with their genetics, even after they pass.
Answer: b
Explanation:
Dominant lethal alleles can be passed down if the individual can live to a reproductive age. The individual can then have children and can possibly pass down the lethal allele
Which type of bond joins the COOH group of one molecule to the NH2 of another molecule? A. 1-4 Glycosidic bond B. Ester bond C. Hydrogen bond D. Peptide bond
Answer:
D. Peptide bond
Explanation:
The reaction between one amino acid and another is
[tex]\rm H$_{2}$NCH(R)-CO-OH + H-NH-CH(R)COOH\\\\\longrightarrow \,\text{H${_2}$NCH(R)-} \underbrace{\text{CO-NH}}_{^\text{peptide}_{\text{bond}}}\text{-CH(R)COOH + H$_{2}$O}[/tex]
The bond that joins the two amino acids is called a peptide bond.
A. is wrong. A 1,4-glycosidic bond is formed between two carbohydrate units.
B. is wrong. An ester bond is the characteristic feature of fats.
C. is wrong. Hydrogen bonds are intermolecular attractive forces among molecules
During which stage of the cell cycle do two new nuclei form?
I believe the correct answer is Mitosis.
Explanation:The cell cycle has 4 stages with one resting stage. In the Third stage called Mitosis the nucleus is divided into 2 daughter nuclei and the cell starts to undergo cytoplasmic division.
Further Explanation:a) Gap 1 (G1) Phase:It is the first phase of the cell cycle and the cell is undergoing recovery fro its previous cellular division. It starts to double its organelles and accumulates raw materials that will be used for DNA synthesis in the next phase. In this stage also, the DNA is checked for any abnormalities or damages and if any is found, the cell undergoes a programmed cell death called apoptosis. It takes 11 hours to complete.
b) Synthesis (S) Phase:
This is a phase where DNA synthesis/replication occurs. Chromosomes usually enter the S phase with one chromosome but move on to the next phase with 2 identical chromosomes. It takes up to 8 hours.
c) Gap 2 (G2) Phase:
It is the third phase and is between the Mitotic phase and the synthesis phase. The cell synthesizes all the proteins that are required for cell division to occur. The cell is also checked for DNA abnormalities and if any are found, the cell undergoes apoptosis. It takes 4 hours for this process to complete.
d) Mitosis (M) Phase:
It is the last phase of the cell cycle and there it is in this phase that the nucleus divides. It is a lengthy process. Chromatins are condensed and the chromatids are attached at the centromere. The nuclear envelope disintegrates and the nucleolus disappears. Spindle fibers begin to take shape and two centrosomes move away from each other at the center forming microtubules in star-like arrays. Centromere of each chromosome develops 2 kinetochores. Chromosomes are pulled around by kinetochore fibers and forced to align across equatorial plane of cell. Centromere dissolves releasing sister chromatids and the sister chromatids separate. The spindle fibers then disappear and two clusters of daughter chromosomes formed forming daughter nuclei. Nuclear envelopes form around the two incipient daughter nuclei, chromosomes uncoil and become diffuse chromatin again. Finally, the nucleolus reappears in each daughter nucleus.
Also important to note is the G0 phase where the cell undergoes resting and there is totally no activity taking place. Many cancerous cells optimize this phase by avoiding it and going directly to the synthesis stage hence no DNA abnormalities are checked.
Level : High School
The stage of the cell cycle in which two nuclei form is known as telophase.
What is the cell cycle?The cell cycle may be defined as the sequence of events happening from the end of one nuclear division to the beginning of the next. The complete process of the cell cycle terminates in the following two steps:
Interphase. M-phase (Division phase).Interphase is again classified into three phases. G1 phase, S-phase, and G2 phase. In these phases, the number of chromosomes duplicates is followed by the division phase.
During the termination of mitosis, telophase is the stage where two new nuclei form around the separated sets of daughter chromosomes. During this phase, two sets of daughter chromosomes reached opposite poles and converted into chromatin thread. The Nuclear membrane form round and the nucleolus reappear.
Therefore, telophase is the stage of the cell cycle in which two nuclei form.
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Design your own scientific experiment. Your experiment must follow the scientific method and meet the criteria described in the lesson in order to be considered scientific. You do not have to conduct your experiment; however, you are still responsible for including all the steps of the scientific method. Since you will not be able to record data or draw a conclusion, for the last two steps please include a description of what each step involves.
Answer:
"What seasonings make melt the fastest, garlic, sugar, or pepper?"
Explanation:
this can be a good question because it is highly specific and there are no questions as to what your experiment is
explanations for the scientific method:
1. Make an observation- "different conditions affect the melting of ice such as people salting the roads in winter, this caused me to be curious of what other seasonings might possibly have a similar effect to that of the salt."
2. create a Hypothesis- "I hypothesize that garlic will have the most effect on the melting of the ice because like salt its a more savory seasoning while sugar is more sweet and the reaction would be different and pepper has little flavoring to begin with"
3. test your hypothesis- "this can be done using 3 trials in which 3 pieces of ice are laid onto paper towels and seasoned with 1 teaspoon each of each individual flavoring along with one ice cube that will remain unseasoned (this is our control) we shall then set a timer for 2 minutes and see which ice cube is the most melted"
4. draw conclusions- "this will lead you to the result of the experiment, this would be the seasoning that cause the most effect on the melting process of ice"
Natural resources: are still the most important factor in determining the productivity of human or physical capital for all countries. B) are the only factor which consistently shows a positive impact on productivity for wealthy countries. C) are a less significant source of productivity growth in most countries today than in earlier times. D) can be used to explain the differences in productivity growth among countries.
Answer:
C) are a less significant source of productivity growth in most countries today than in earlier times.
Explanation:
There are basically two types of resources employed in the production of goods and manufactures: inputs, sourced from natural resources, and labor - derived from human labor.
Companies determine the amount between capital and labor that can produce a good at a lower cost.
Given that the inputs are mostly finite, the development of technologies that make it possible to increase labor productivity and rationalize the consumption of inputs in the production process dictates the rate of increase in productivity. For example, if 10 years ago a plastic factory produced 1 ton using 100kg of petroleum compost and today the same factory produces 2 tonnes with the same 100kg, there has been an increase in productivity due to the introduction of new technologies - and not by the use of the input.
Ben observes how quickly some dry wood is burning in a campfire. Which term best relates to Ben’s observation?
reaction rate
activation energy
collision theory
spontaneous reaction
Answer:
reaction rate - first choice
Answer: Option (a) is the correct answer.
Explanation:
Rate of reaction is defined as the rate consumed by the reactants to result in the formation of products.
For example, when Ben observes how quickly some dry wood is burning in a campfire then it basically depicts the rate of combustion of wood.
Activation energy is the minimum amount of energy required by reactant molecules to undergo a chemical reaction.
Thus, we can conclude that in the given situation reaction rate best relates to Ben’s observation.
How does connective tissue differ from the other three major tissue types?A.Connective tissue often consists of relatively few cells embedded in an extracellular matrix.B.Connective tissue consists of contractile proteins.C.Connective tissue consists of cells capable of transmitting electrical impulses.D.There are three types of connective tissue.E.Connective tissue is found lining body surfaces.
Answer:
How does connective tissue differ from the other three major tissue types? The correct answer is A.
Explanation:
The connective tissue creates connection between other tissues. There is connective tissue (also sometimes called connective tissue) everywhere in the body, it is the most abundant and widely distributed of all primary tissues and its amount varies substantially from one organ to another.
A.Connective tissue often consists of relatively few cells embedded in an extracellular matrix: This is correct.
The existence of this fibrous matrix is what causes the connective tissue to have the high resistance it has and withstand loads and abuses that no other tissue would support.
B.Connective tissue consists of contractile proteins: this is incorrect.
Muscle tissue is the one that possesses contractile proteins.
C.Connective tissue consists of cells capable of transmitting electrical impulses:this is incorrect.
This corresponds to the nervous tissue
D.There are three types of connective tissue: Incorrect. The connective tissue represents such a heterogeneous group of tissues that classification is difficult
This connective tissue is divided into:
1. Loose / dense connective tissue
2. Mucous tissue
3. Adipose tissue
4. Cartilaginous tissue
5. Bone tissue
6. Blood tissue
7. Lymphatic tissue
E.Connective tissue is found lining body surfaces: Incorrect. This characteristic is of the epithelial tissue.
Connective tissue contains relatively few cells dispersed in an extracellular matrix. This matrix, composed of ground substance and protein fibers, can vary in density. Connective tissue serves various functions in the body, from connecting tissues and organs to providing support and protection.
Explanation:Connective tissue differs significantly from the other three major tissue types. Primarily, connective tissue is characterized by relatively few cells embedded in an extensive extracellular matrix. The matrix contains large amounts of ground substance often crossed by protein fibers. This ground substance can be fluid, such as in loose connective tissue, or solid, as in bones. Moreover, the composition of the matrix is directly correlated with its function.
Connective tissues can be categorized broadly into loose connective tissue, dense connective tissue, supportive connective tissue, and fluid connective tissue. The variation in these categories lends to their diverse functionality in the body, from providing structure and protection to assisting movement and energy storage.
Fibrous connective tissues, a subtype of connective tissues, contain a high density of collagen fibers and are found in areas of the body where stress occurs from all directions, notably in the skin. They also form tendons and ligaments that connect muscles to bones and bones to bones, respectively.
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As the ciliary muscle relaxes, the suspensory ligaments tighten and stretch the lens, allowing for distance vision. As the ciliary muscle relaxes, the suspensory ligaments tighten and stretch the lens, allowing for distance vision. True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Ciliary muscles are present within the ciliary body and are involved in controlling the shape of the lens. While focusing on the distant object, ciliary muscles are relaxed. The relaxed ciliary muscles make the suspensory ligaments attached to the ciliary body become taut. The taut suspensory ligaments make the lens relatively flat in shape by stretching it in all the directions.
The statement regarding distance vision is true, as the relaxation of the ciliary muscles leads to a flattened lens suitable for seeing distant objects, which is part of the accommodation process of the eye.
Explanation:The statement that as the ciliary muscle relaxes, the suspensory ligaments tighten and stretch the lens, allowing for distance vision, is true. When looking at objects at a distance, the ciliary muscles within the eye are relaxed, which leads to the suspensory ligaments being pulled tight. This tension causes the lens to flatten, thereby reducing its power and increasing its focal length, which is necessary for focusing on distant objects. This is in contrast to when the ciliary muscles contract for close vision, which causes the lens to become more spherical and increases its power, allowing the eye to focus on nearby objects. This process is called accommodation, and it enables the eye to adjust its focal length to maintain a clear image on the retina.
Gametogenesis is the term for
a. the fertilization of eggs.
b. the development of polar bodies.
c. the movement of sperm.
d. the production of gametes.
Answer:
D
Explanation:
the production of gametes
What is the prime mover in anatomy?
Answer:
prime mover sometimes called the agonist,is the muscle that provides the primary force driving the action
The prime mover, or agonist, in anatomy refers to the muscle primarily responsible for a particular movement, like the biceps brachii when lifting a cup, while other muscles acting as synergists provide assistance or stabilization.
In the context of human anatomy, the term prime mover, also known as the agonist, represents the main muscle responsible for initiating a specific movement. A common example of a prime mover is the biceps brachii when lifting a cup. As the biceps brachii contracts and produces the primary force for the action, the brachialis muscle acts as a synergist, assisting the prime mover by adding extra force or by being a fixator that stabilizes the bone to which the prime mover attaches.
Conversely, the muscle that has the opposite function of the prime mover is termed the antagonist. This antagonist muscle relaxes and lengthens in response to the prime mover's contraction, allowing for smooth control of the movement. During movements where precise control or the maintenance of a position is necessary, the antagonist muscles play a critical role. Additionally, the arrangement of the muscle fibers, or fascicles, within these various muscles influences the type of action and range of motion they can produce.
What is the function of phosphoribosyltransferases?
a. they are central to the re-synthesis of nucleotides from bases in salvage reactions.
b. they mediate the degradation of AMP.
c. they are involved in the reversible reactions of purine salvage.
d. they mediate the degradation of IMP. e. they are competitive inhibitors employed in the salvage of purine nucleotides.
Answer:
a. they are central to the re-synthesis of nucleotides from bases in salvage reactions.
Explanation:
Phosphoribosyltransferases are the enzymes that are involved in salvage pathways to reuse the free purines and pyrimidines to make nucleotides. Metabolic degradation of nucleotides releases purines and pyrimidines which in turn enter the salvage pathway to be reused in the formation of new nucleotides. These metabolic pathways that make new nucleotides by reusing the free purines and pyrimidines are called salvage pathways.
Example: Adenosine phosphoribosyltransferase is the enzyme that catalyzes the formation of adenine nucleotide from free adenine and PRPP (5-phosphoribosyl-1-pyrophosphate).
Thirty patients with acne volunteer to be treated with either a medicinal lotion
or a normal moisturizing cream. This type of experimental design is called
a(n)
A. in vitro observation
B. clinical trial
c. geographical cohort study
D. general population survey
Answer:
Thirty patients with acne volunteer to be treated with either a medicinal lotion
or a normal moisturizing cream. This type of experimental design is called
a clinical trial.-B.