Which statements about light are true? Select all that apply. Select one or more: a. It can travel through empty space. b. It has no mass. c. It has moving electrons. d. It’s made of moving electric and magnetic fields.

The velocity of car B after the collision is -0.21 m/s.

When the two bumper cars collide elastically, their momentum is conserved. We can use the principle of conservation of momentum to solve this problem.

The formula for calculating the final velocity of car B is:

VB,f = ((mA - mB) * VA,i + 2 * mB * VB,i) / (mA + mB)

Substituting the given values:

VB,f = ((281 kg - 209 kg) * 2.82 m/s + 2 * 209 kg * (-1.72 m/s)) / (281 kg + 209 kg) = -0.21 m/s.

Therefore, the velocity of car B after the collision is -0.21 m/s.

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The correct answer is that the velocity of car B after the collision is approximately +1.00 m/s.

To solve this problem, we use the principle of conservation of momentum in an elastic collision. The total momentum before the collision must equal the total momentum after the collision. Additionally, in an elastic collision, kinetic energy is also conserved.

Let's denote the initial velocities of car A and car B as [tex]\( v_{A1} \) and \( v_{B1} \)[/tex], and the final velocities as [tex]\( v_{A2} \) and \( v_{B2} \)[/tex]. The masses of car A and car B are [tex]\( m_A \) and \( m_B \)[/tex], respectively.

Given:

[tex]- \( m_A = 281 \) kg[/tex]

[tex]- \( m_B = 209 \) kg[/tex]

[tex]- \( v_{A1} = +2.82 \) m/s (moving to the right)[/tex]

[tex]- \( v_{B1} = -1.72 \) m/s (moving to the left)[/tex]

We need to find [tex]\( v_{B2} \)[/tex], the final velocity of car B.

Using the conservation of momentum:

[tex]\[ m_A \cdot v_{A1} + m_B \cdot v_{B1} = m_A \cdot v_{A2} + m_B \cdot v_{B2} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ (281 \text{ kg} \cdot 2.82 \text{ m/s}) + (209 \text{ kg} \cdot -1.72 \text{ m/s}) = (281 \text{ kg} \cdot v_{A2}) + (209 \text{ kg} \cdot v_{B2}) \][/tex]

Using the conservation of kinetic energy:

[tex]\[ \frac{1}{2} m_A \cdot v_{A1}^2 + \frac{1}{2} m_B \cdot v_{B1}^2 = \frac{1}{2} m_A \cdot v_{A2}^2 + \frac{1}{2} m_B \cdot v_{B2}^2 \][/tex]

[tex]\[ (281 \text{ kg} \cdot (2.82 \text{ m/s})^2) + (209 \text{ kg} \cdot (-1.72 \text{ m/s})^2) = (281 \text{ kg} \cdot v_{A2}^2) + (209 \text{ kg} \cdot v_{B2}^2) \][/tex]

We now have two equations with two unknowns [tex](\( v_{A2} \) and \( v_{B2} \))[/tex]. We can solve these equations simultaneously to find the velocities after the collision.

Solving these equations, we find that the final velocity of car B, [tex]\( v_{B2} \)[/tex], is approximately +1.00 m/s. This means that after the collision, car B is moving to the right with a speed of 1.00 m/s.

The exact calculations would involve algebraic manipulation and possibly the use of a quadratic formula, but the final result is that car B moves to the right with a velocity of +1.00 m/s after the collision.

Final answer:

Glue requires particles to collide with sufficient energy and proper orientation to break old bonds and form new ones, relying on adhesive and cohesive forces.

Explanation:

For glue to effectively form a bond between two materials, there are two fundamental requirements. First, the particles must collide with each other. Without this collision, the atoms from the different materials cannot come into close enough contact to form a bond. Second, these colliding particles must come together with sufficient energy to break existing bonds and form new ones. Additionally, the particles must have the proper orientation during the collision to allow the right atoms to come into contact and form the new bond.

It is also important to understand the types of forces at play: cohesive forces, which bind molecules of the same type together, and adhesive forces, which bind a substance to a surface. In chemical bonds, electrostatic forces are crucial as they involve the attraction of positively charged nuclei to negatively charged electrons, leading to a bonding interaction when the system's energy is lowered.

Answer:

D. friction is the correct choice.

Explanation:

Friction is the resistance to motion of one object moving relative to another. It is not a fundamental force, like gravity or electromagnetism.

Answer:

friction

Explanation:

hope it helps :)

Answer:

two ampheres

Explanation:

the formula for calculating voltage is V=IR so if the current which is I is 2 and the resistance which is R is decreased to one forth then we will say

R=x multiplied by 1/4=x/4

V=2x/4 cross multiply then we have

since the voltage is constant then it is=1

so 4=2x divide both sides by 2 we then get 2 as our answer

Answer:8a

Explanation:

Answer: Your answer is "erect".

Explanation:

Got this one right on the quiz.

Answer:

c

Explanation:

Answer:

B. velocity = 0 m/s, acceleration = 9.8 m/s

Explanation:

When the ball reaches the maximum height all energy is potential energy. Because of that, the kinetic energy of the ball is zero and the velocity is also zero. The acceleration of the ball is in all trajectory the gravitational constant, because the gravitational force always acts over the ball.

Hence, the velocity is 0m/s and the acceleration is 9.8m/s^2

B. velocity = 0 m/s, acceleration = 9.8 m/s

The ball's velocity is zero at its maximum height and its acceleration is still 9.8 m/s² due to gravity.

The magnitudes of the velocity and acceleration of the ball at its maximum height are velocity = 0 m/s and acceleration = 9.8 m/s² respectively.

When the ball reaches its maximum height, its velocity is zero because it momentarily stops moving before reversing its direction and falling back down. However, the acceleration due to gravity is still acting on the ball, pulling it downward with a constant acceleration of 9.8 m/s².

So, the correct answer is option B. velocity = 0 m/s; acceleration = 9.8 m/s².

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Answer:

I believe its: A wave with a shorter wavelength has higher frequency

According to the diagram, the wavelength with a shorter wavelength has higher frequency. Thus, the correct option is B.

A wave is a disturbance in a medium which carries energy without a net movement of particles in the medium. A wave may take the form of elastic deformation, a variation of the pressure, electric or magnetic intensity, electric potential, or the temperature of the medium or surrounding atmosphere.

Wavelength can be defined as the distance between identical points such as troughs and crusts in the adjacent cycles of a waveform signal which propagated in space or along a wire. Wavelength is inversely proportional to the frequency of wave.

Therefore, the correct option is B.

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Answer:

A. the words "work" and "energy" are interchangeable.

Explanation:

Work and kinetic energy are interchangeable, so they are the same, ie. they have the same units. Your work can give kinetic energy to a body and a body with kinetic energy can produce work

Answer:

B)  Solvent

Explanation:

This is because the solute is dissolved in the solvent.

In the example of salt water, the water is the solvent and the salt is the solute.

The solute is substance being dissolved.

The solvent is what the solute is being dissolved in.

Answer:

1. He is putting force on the ball to throw it. 2. Him throwing the ball. 3. If he puts more force into throwing the ball it would give the ball more energy>>>

Explanation:

(1) The picture represents an example of kinetic energy because the ball is in motion.

(2) The factors affecting the energy of the ball are its mass and velocity.

(3) The change the could be made to give the ball more energy is to increase its mass or velocity.

Kinetic energy is the energy of motion. In the given picture, the ball is in motion, so it represents an example of kinetic energy.

The factors that affect the energy of the ball include its mass and velocity. A ball with a larger mass or a higher velocity will have more kinetic energy.

To give the ball more energy, you could increase its mass or increase its velocity, which will in turn increase the kinetic energy of the ball.

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a) i) See graph in attachment

ii) See graph in attachment.

b) i) All of them

ii) none

c) [tex]s=\frac{4D tan \theta}{\mu_s}[/tex]

d) See explanation below

Explanation:

a)

Find in attachment the graph showing the kinetic energy and the potential energy versus the position, x.

i)

Between x = -D and x = 0, the block is sliding down along the ramp. The kinetic energy of the block at any time is given by:

[tex]KE=\frac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

where

m is the mass of the block

v is its speed

At the beginning, the block's kinetic energy is zero, because the speed is initially zero: since v = 0, KE = 0.

As the block slides down, the kinetic energy increases, because the speed of the block increases; at x = 0 (end of the ramp), all the initial energy has been converted into kinetic energy, which is now maximum.

Then, the block slides along the flat, rough surface; as friction does (negative) work on the block, the speed of the block decreases, and so also its kinetic energy decreases, becoming zero when x = +4D (when the block comes to a stop).

ii)

The potential energy of the block is given by:

[tex]GPE=mgh[/tex]

where

m is the mass of the block

g is the acceleration due to gravity

h is the height of the block above the ground

At the beginning (x = -D) the potential energy is maximum since the block is at maximum height.

When the block slides down (between -D and 0), the height h decreases, therefore the potential energy decreases as well, until reaching 0 when x = 0 (end of the ramp).

After x = 0, the block slides along the rough surface; however, its potential energy here no longer changes, as the height h dors not change (the surface is horizontal).

b)

Here, the block is released from the top of a new ramp, which has a base length of 2D (instead of D) but same angle as before: therefore, the initial height of the ramp is twice that in part a). This also means that the initial (potential) energy of the block in this case is twice the GPE of part a):

[tex]GPE'=2GPE[/tex]

As a result, when the block reaches the end of the ramp at x = 0, it will have twice the kinetic energy it had before:

[tex]KE'=2KE[/tex]

The stopping distance of an object moving with accelerated motion is proportional to its initial kinetic energy:

[tex]s\propto KE[/tex]

Therefore, this means that here the stopping distance of the block will be twice that of part a (which was 4D), so the block will stop at x = +8D.

So, all aspects of the student's reasoning are correct.

c)

Let's call [tex]E[/tex] the initial total energy of the block at the top of the ramp.

In situation a), the initial total energy is

[tex]E=GPE=mgh = mgD tan \theta[/tex]

where [tex]h=Dtan \theta[/tex] is the height of the ramp.

And so the kinetic energy at the bottom of the ramp is

[tex]KE=E[/tex]

We can rewrite the kinetic energy so that

[tex]\frac{1}{2}mv^2=E \rightarrow v \sqrt{\frac{2E}{m}}\\\rightarrow v=\sqrt{2gD tan \theta}[/tex]

For an accelerated motion, the stopping distance can be found using the equation

[tex]v'^2-v^2=2as[/tex]

where

[tex]v'=0[/tex] is the final speed of the block

[tex]a=-\mu_b g[/tex] is the acceleration due to friction

So we find

[tex]s=\frac{-v^2}{2a}=\frac{(2gD tan \theta)}{\mu_s g}=\frac{2D tan \theta}{\mu_s}[/tex] (1)

In situation b), the initial height of the block is

[tex]h=2D tan \theta[/tex]

So the final stopping distance becomes (1)

[tex]s=\frac{4D tan \theta}{\mu_s}[/tex]

d)

We can see that the formula derived in part c) depends only on:

- The initial height of the ramp, which is [tex]Dtan \theta[/tex] in part a) and [tex]2D tan \theta[/tex] in part b)

- The coefficient of friction in the rough part, [tex]\mu_s[/tex]

- The angle of the ramp, which remains the same in the two cases

Therefore, all the correct aspects identified by the student in his reasoning are found in the fact that the final stopping distance is proportional to the initial energy of the block, which is proportional to initial height of the block, and since this is twice in part b) compared to part a), therefore the stopping distance is also twice in part b).

Refer the below solution for better understanding.

Given :

Block has initial velocity, u = 0.

Base of the ramp has a length of D.

Negligible friction between the block and the inclined ramp.

Coefficient of kinetic friction between the block and the rough horizontal surface is [tex]\rm \mu_ b[/tex].

Solution :

a)  Graph of the following quantities is attached below.

i) We know that the Kinetic energy is,

[tex]\rm KE = \dfrac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

at x = 0, KE is zero because initial velocity is zero but kinetic energy increases as velocity increases. And at an instant kinetic energy becomes maximum because velocity is maximum.

When the block slides along the flat, rough surface, friction acts on the block, the speed of the block decreases, so kinetic energy is also decreases and becomes zero at x = 4D.

ii) We know that potential energy is given by,

PE = mgh

At x = -D , height of the block is maximum therefore potential is also maximum at x = -D. The potential energy decreases as well, until reaching 0 when x = 0.

b) The initial height of the ramp is twice that in part a). This also means that the initial (potential) energy of the block in this case is twice the PE of part a). As a result, when the block reaches the end of the ramp at x = 0, it will have twice the kinetic energy it had before.

Stopping distance is proportional to its initial kinetic energy:

Therefore, the stopping distance of the block will be twice that of part a), so the block will stop at x = 8D.

Therefore, all aspects of the student's reasoning are correct.

c) Initial total energy is,

E = PE

[tex]\rm E= mgh = mgDtan\theta[/tex]

Kinetic energy at bottom of the ramp is,

KE = E

[tex]\rm \dfrac{1}{2}mv^2 = mgDtan\theta[/tex]

[tex]\rm v = \sqrt{2gDtan\theta}[/tex]

We know that,

[tex]\rm v'^2 = u^2 +2as[/tex]

here,

[tex]\rm v' = 0[/tex] and [tex]\rm a = -\mu_bg[/tex] (acceleration due to friction). So,

[tex]\rm s = \dfrac{-u^2}{2a}[/tex]

[tex]\rm s = \dfrac{2gDtan\theta}{\mu_bg}[/tex]

[tex]\rm s = \dfrac{2Dtan\theta}{\mu_b}[/tex]   ----- (1)

In section b) h = [tex]\rm2Dtan\theta[/tex]

Now equation (1) becomes,

[tex]\rm s = \dfrac{4Dtan\theta}{\mu_b}[/tex]

d) We can see that the formula derived in part c) depends only on:

The initial height of the ramp, which is [tex]\rm Dtan\theta[/tex] in part a) and [tex]\rm 2Dtan\theta[/tex] in part b).

The coefficient of friction in the rough part, [tex]\mu _s[/tex].

The angle of the ramp, which remains the same in the two cases.

Therefore, all the correct aspects identified by the student in his reasoning are found in the fact that the final stopping distance is proportional to the initial energy of the block, which is proportional to initial height of the block, and since this is twice in part b) compared to part a), therefore the stopping distance is also twice in part b).

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model are used to predict how the atom behave

Answer:

The model allows us to predict how atoms will behave in certain situations.

Explanation:

Answer:

Electromagnetic waves can bring energy into a system by virtue of their electric and magnetic fields. ... If the frequency of the electromagnetic wave is the same as the natural frequencies of the system (such as microwaves at the resonant frequency of water molecules), the transfer of energy is much more efficient.

Answer:As a wave's wavelength increases, the frequency decreases, and as wave's wavelength decreases, the frequency increases. When electromagnetic energy is released as the energy level increases, the wavelength decreases and frequency decreases.

Explanation:

google lol

Answer:

Time period = 2*0.79 s =     1.58 s

Frequency = 1/TimePeriod = 0.63 Hz

Explanation:

Time period of the pendulum is the time taken to come back to the exact same position. so if you start from top left, the time period is the time taken when the pendulum comes back up to top left.

Final answer:

The impact speed of a 3-kg object dropped from a height of 5 meters, assuming no air resistance and complete conversion of potential to kinetic energy, will be 9.9 m/s. The calculation is based on the Principle of Conservation of Energy using the formulas for potential and kinetic energy.

Explanation:

The question refers to calculating the impact speed of an object that has been dropped from a certain height, considering the transformation of potential energy into kinetic energy. This is a subject matter ofPhysics,specifically, it relates to the Principle of Conservation of Energy and kinematics which are typically taught in High School level physics classes.

When an object is dropped from a height and is acted upon only by gravity, the potential energy that the object has due to its height is converted to kinetic energy as it falls. Assuming no air resistance, this transformation is complete, and the kinetic energy at impact can be given by:

KE = ½mv²

Where KE is kinetic energy, m is mass, and v is velocity. The potential energy (PE) the object has before it falls is given by:

PE = mgh

Where g is the acceleration due to gravity (9.8 m/s² on Earth), and h is the height from which the object falls. At the moment of impact, the potential energy will have been converted into kinetic energy (if we're ignoring air resistance), so we can set these equal to each other to solve for v:

½mv² = mgh

By canceling out the mass and solving for v, we find:

v = √(2gh)

Using the given height of 5 m, we can compute the velocity:

v = √(2 * 9.8 m/s² * 5 m) = √(98 m²/s²) = 9.9 m/s

The velocity of the rock as it hits the ground would therefore be 9.9 m/s if dropped from a height of 5 meters with no air resistance. This differs from the incorrect value of 5.0 m/s that was mentioned in the prompt.

Answer:

mechanical pencil lead

iron

silver

brass

copper

yarn

Answer:

TRUE

Explanation:

Answer:

True

Explanation:

All electromagnetic waves travel at the same speed through empty space. That speed, called the speed of light, is 300 million meters per second (3.0 × 108 m/s).

Answer: A.visible light

Explanation:

The visible spectrum is the portion of the electromagnetic spectrum that is visible to the human eye. Electromagnetic radiation in this range of wavelengths is called visible light or simply light. A typical human eye will respond to wavelengths from about 380 to 740 nanometers.

Final answer:

Humans can see the part of the electromagnetic spectrum known as visible light, which ranges from 380 nm to 740 nm in wavelength. (option A)

Explanation:

The part of the electromagnetic spectrum that humans can see is known as visible light. This is a small portion of the larger electromagnetic spectrum which also includes other types of waves such as radio waves, gamma rays, x-rays, ultraviolet light, infrared light, and microwaves.

The visible light spectrum for humans ranges from wavelengths of approximately 380 nanometers (nm) to 740 nanometers. Beyond the scope of human vision, other species can detect different parts of the spectrum; for example, bees can see ultraviolet light and some snakes can detect infrared radiation.

Answer:

1. [tex]Q = 5.56 * 10^{-3} C[/tex]

2.[tex]Q = 2.97 * 10^{-12} C[/tex]

Explanation:

1. Electrostatic force is given as:

[tex]F = \frac{kqQ}{r^2}[/tex]

where k = Coulombs constant

q = charge of first charge

Q = charge of the second charge

r = distance between them

From the question:

F = 100 N

q  = [tex]2 * 10^{-10} C[/tex]

r = 0.01 m

We need to find Q.

From the formula of force, we have that Q is:

[tex]Q = \frac{Fr^2}{kq}[/tex]

[tex]Q = \frac{100 * 0.01^2}{8.99 * 10^9 *2 * 10^{-10}} \\\\\\Q = \frac{0.01}{1.798}\\ \\\\Q = 0.00556 C = 5.56 * 10^{-3} C[/tex]

This is the charge, Q, of the second charge.

2. From the question:

F = 2 N

q  = [tex]3 * 10^{-6} C[/tex]

r = [tex]2 *10^{-4} m[/tex]

We need to find Q.

Using the same formula for Q as in 1. above, we have that:

[tex]Q = \frac{2 * (2 *10^{-4})^2}{8.99 * 10^9 *3 * 10^{-6}} \\\\\\Q = \frac{8 * 10^{-8}}{26970}\\ \\\\Q = 2.97 * 10^{-12} C[/tex]

This is the charge, Q, of the second charge.

Answer:

(1)  [tex]4.4835*10^{17}C[/tex]

(2) [tex]2.9748*10^{-12}C[/tex]

Explanation:

Force Between two charges is give by.

[tex]F=k\frac{Q_1 *Q_2}{r^2}[/tex] , here k is called coulomb constant and has value = [tex]8.967*10^9Nm^2/C[/tex].

(1) case, F =100N, r = 0.1m and [tex]Q_1[/tex]=[tex]2*10^{-10}C[/tex] substituting these values in above equation and solving for unknown gives us.

[tex]Q_2 = 4.4835*10^{17}C[/tex].

(2) Case, F = 2N, r = [tex]2*10^{-4}m[/tex] and [tex]Q_1=3*10^{-6}C[/tex].

again by substituting these in above equation and solving for unknown gives us.

[tex]Q_2=2.9748*10^{-12}C.[/tex]

Answer:

D

Explanation:

Mechanical waves need a mater interference to be able to travel. Electromagnetic waves are able to travel through empty space or in a vacuum.

The main difference between mechanical waves and electromagnetic waves is that mechanical waves require a medium to travel, while electromagnetic waves can travel through a vacuum.

The fundamental difference between a mechanical wave and an electromagnetic wave lies in how they travel. Mechanical waves require a medium (solid, liquid, or gas) to propagate, meaning they cannot travel through a vacuum. Examples include sound waves and water waves.

In contrast, electromagnetic waves, such as light and radio waves, can travel through both matter and empty space; they do not need a medium to propagate. This ability to travel through a vacuum is due to the fact that electromagnetic waves are generated by the vibration of electric and magnetic fields, which are perpendicular to each other and to the direction of wave travel.

Answer:

Mercury orbits the fastest around the Sun.

Answer:the one which is closest to the sun

Explanation:

Answer:

231-91Pa>4-2a+227-89Ac

Explanation:

hope this helps

The equation for the alpha decay of  [tex]^{231} _{91}Pa[/tex] is written as [tex]^{231}_{91}Pa\ ---> \ ^4_2\alpha \ + \ ^{227} _{89}Ac[/tex].

Alpha decay is a type of radioactive decay in which an atomic nucleus emits an alpha particle.

The emission of this alpha particle reduces the mass number of the original atom by 4 and the atomic number by 2.

The alpha decay equation is written as;

[tex]^a_zX\ ---> \ ^4_2\alpha \ + \ ^{a-4} _{z-2}Y[/tex]

When the given atom ([tex]^{231} _{91}Pa[/tex]) under goes alpha decay, the resulting element is written using the following equation;

[tex]^{231}_{91}Pa\ ---> \ ^4_2\alpha \ + \ ^{227} _{89}Ac[/tex]

Thus, the equation for the alpha decay of  [tex]^{231} _{91}Pa[/tex] is written as [tex]^{231}_{91}Pa\ ---> \ ^4_2\alpha \ + \ ^{227} _{89}Ac[/tex].

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Answer:

39.45 m/s

Explanation:

This phenomenon is known as Doppler Effect, and it occurs when there is a source of a wave in motion with respect to an observer. In such situation, the frequency of the wave as perceived by the observer is shifted with respect to the real frequency.

In particular:

- The observed frequency is higher if the source is moving towards the observer

- The observed frequency is lower if the source is moving away from the observer

The formula to calculate the apparent frequency in the Doppler Effect is:

[tex]f'=\frac{v \pm v_o}{v\pm v_s}f[/tex]

where

f is the real frequency

f' is the observed frequency

v is the speed of the wave

[tex]v_s[/tex] is the velocity of the source, which is positive if the source is moving away, negative if it is moving towards the observer

[tex]v_o[/tex] is the velocity of the observer, which is negative if the observer is moving away, positive if it is moving towards the source

In this problem:

v = 340 m/s is the speed of sound

- When the ambulance is approaching you from behind,

f' = 320 Hz

[tex]v_o=-30 m/s[/tex] (car is moving away from ambulance)

So

[tex]320 = \frac{340-30}{340 -v_s}f[/tex] (1)

- When the ambulance overcomes you and moves away from you,

f' = 300 Hz

[tex]v_o=+30 m/s[/tex] (car is moving towards ambulance)

So

[tex]300 = \frac{340+30}{340 +v_s}f[/tex] (2)

Re-arranging both equations (1) and (2),

1)

[tex]320 = \frac{310}{340 -v_s}f\\320(340-v_s)=310f\\108,800-320v_s = 310 f[/tex]

2)

[tex]300 = \frac{370}{340 +v_s}f\\300(340+v_s)=370f\\102,000+300v_s = 370f[/tex]

Both equations can be rewritten as

[tex]f=\frac{108,000-320v_s}{310}\\f=\frac{102,000+300v_s}{370}[/tex]

And by equating them we find:

[tex]\frac{108,000-320v_s}{310}=\frac{102,000+300v_s}{370}\\37(10,800-32v_s)=31(10,200+30v_s)\\399,600-1184v_s=316,200+930v_s\\83,400=2114v_s\\v_s=\frac{83400}{2114}=39.45 m/s[/tex]

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Answer:

Fuel for nuclear power plants is a radiation hazard to miners and other nuclear power workers. Nuclear waste requires long-term storage. Mining nuclear fuels can damage the environment. Human error at plants can lead to meltdowns, which endanger the environment and human health. Natural disasters can lead to radiation leaks. Though currently abundant, nuclear fuels are nonrenewable resources.

Explanation:

this is the sample answer :)

Three Risks or disadvantages of nuclear power

Nuclear power is a form of power derived from nuclear subtances and elements. it can also be called nuclear energy.

This type of power is quite expensive to maintain and most time the power is really high and unable to control.

In conclusion, nuclear power has high risk and disadvantages that must be consider, a few has bee described above

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