Answer:
D. Peptide bond
Explanation:
The reaction between one amino acid and another is
[tex]\rm H$_{2}$NCH(R)-CO-OH + H-NH-CH(R)COOH\\\\\longrightarrow \,\text{H${_2}$NCH(R)-} \underbrace{\text{CO-NH}}_{^\text{peptide}_{\text{bond}}}\text{-CH(R)COOH + H$_{2}$O}[/tex]
The bond that joins the two amino acids is called a peptide bond.
A. is wrong. A 1,4-glycosidic bond is formed between two carbohydrate units.
B. is wrong. An ester bond is the characteristic feature of fats.
C. is wrong. Hydrogen bonds are intermolecular attractive forces among molecules
What are “control” and “regulation” in metabolism?
Answer:
Explanation:
?
Which activity is part of the inflammatory response? skin producing complement proteins phagocytes producing mucus complement proteins signaling phagocytes body temperature decreasing
Answer:
Phagocytes producing mucus
Explanation:
Phagocytes producing mucus is part of the inflammatory response.
Mucus is a great part of healing because it prevents any more germs from infecting the wound.
Answer:
Phagocytes producing mucus
Explanation:
Most animals and plants reproduce sexually. This means that DNA is passed down to new organisms from two parental organisms. Which of the following is a key advantage of sexual reproduction?
A. The elimination of genetic mutations from a parent organism
B. Increased genetic diversity for changing environments
C. The receipt of the strongest genes from both parents for survival
D. The creation of new genes to improve surviva
B. Increased genetic diversity for changing environments
With sexual reproduction an offspring gets a bit of traits from both parents. This means that there is more variety and diversity. Think about humans. We are very genetically divers. There are people with brown hair or blond or red. People with blue, brown, or green eyes. There are also some people that are short or tall. This goes to show that sexual reproduction increases genetic reproduction.
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~Just a girl in love with Shawn Mendes
Answer:
B
Explanation:
What is the phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents?
Select one:
a. 1:2:1
b. 9:3:3:1
c. 1:2:2:1
d. 3:1
The phenotypic ratio of a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents is 9:3:3:1
The Phenotypic ratio in a monohybrid cross between two heterozygous parents is 3:1.
In biology, a monohybrid cross is a cross between two organisms involving only one trait. Recall that genes occur in pairs called alleles, the expressed traits of individuals depends on the dominant (expressed) and recessive genes in the alleles.
Two heterozygous parents may be shown as Tt. The gene T is dominant while the gene t is recessive. We can see that three of the offspring has the dominant T gene hence they will express the trait represented by T. Only one organism will express the trait represent by t. Therefore, the phenotypic ratio is 3:1.
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In a series of experiments, Hershey and Chase radioactively labeled DNA and protein in viruses and then used labeled viruses to infect bacteria. Hershey and Chase's experiments definitively showed that
A. DNA and not protein is the genetic material.
B. protein and not DNA is the genetic material.
C. neither DNA nor protein act as a cell's genetic material.
D. DNA and protein work together as a cell's genetic material.
Answer:
A. DNA and not protein is the genetic material.
Explanation:
Hershey and Chase's experiment proved that DNA is the genetic material. In their experiment with radiolabelled protein coat of phage, the infected bacterial did not exhibit any radioactivity. This proved that the protein coat of the phage does not enter the bacterial cell to cause the infection and is not the genetic material
On the other hand, the infected bacteria exhibited radioactivity when DNA of phage of radiolabelled. This proved that DNA was the genetic material since the DNA of the phage entered the bacteria, not the protein.
Answer:
the answer is a
Explanation:
i took the test on penn foster and got it right
What is the name of the oldest-living tree in the world?
Answer:
clonal trees
Explanation:
The Mississippi River Delta wetlands ecosystem is home to a large number of fish, birds, and other aquatic organisms. During the last century, this ecosystem has seen a decrease in wetland areas and species diversity due to land development, agriculture, and flooding. Conservation groups have been working to reconnect the Mississippi River with its flood plain and restore lost wetlands. One result of restoring wetland areas in this ecosystem would be
A) an increase in a biotic factors that would cause organisms to develop new adaptations
B) the development of an ecosystem that will prevent invasive species from settling there
C) an increase in the carrying capacity of the ecosystem for wetland organisms
D) to prevent the organisms that live in this ecosystem from competing for food and shelter
Answer: C) An increase in the carrying capacity of the ecosystem for wetland organisms.
Explanation:
The wetlands are the ecosystem that are developed when a water from any of the source like ocean, river, lakes, snow melting and rainfall get deposited in the shallow regions of the land. The water in such region may remain for either temporarily or seasonally.
According to the given situation, the process of restoration of wetlands will help in increasing the carrying capacity of the wetland ecosystem. This is because of the fact that the organisms which are capable to survive in wetland ecosystem may experience disturbance due to human interventions. But with the increase in area and supply of water from the river the carrying capacity of the ecosystem will increase. The carrying capacity is the number of members of the population of species which an ecosystem can allow to survive.
Answer: C) An increase in the carrying capacity of the ecosystem for wetland organisms.
In items of energy shortage from carbohydrates or fats in foods, the body uses protein in what way? a) it removes the nitrogen portion and burns the remaining fragments for energy b) it converts it to fat to provide more concentrated energy c) it decreases the breakdown of food proteins for energy and uses stored glycogen d) it stores amino acids in the cells to be used later for energy
Answer:
The correct options is A.
Explanation:
The major source of energy in human is carbohydrate, but the body can also use fat and protein for energy production. The human body usually use protein for energy production when there is shortage of carbohydrates and fat. The body typically remove the nitrogen portion of the protein and use the remaining portion as body fuel. If the body continue to use protein as a source of energy for a long time, it leads to depletion of body muscles.
The correct answer is the letter A.it removes the nitrogen portion and burns the remaining fragments for energy
Hope this helps
A student is conducting their science experiment on the effect of caffeine on dogs. He has 3 groups of test subjects. The 1st group of dogs receives plain water. The 2nd group of dogs receives 10 mg of caffeine each, and the 3rd group receives 50 mg of caffeine each. He will measure their activity levels by recording how long each dog runs without stopping, after giving them the pills. What is the control group
The control group in this experiment is the 1st group of dogs that receives plain water. This group serves as the baseline measurement and is essential for comparison with the other two experimental groups receiving different doses of caffeine.
In scientific research, a control group is used to establish a standard against which the changes observed in an experimental group can be compared. In this case, the control group is not receiving the variable being tested, which is caffeine. Since the purpose of the experiment is to measure the effect of caffeine on the dogs' activity levels, the group receiving plain water will represent normal activity levels without the influence of caffeine. By having a control group, the researcher can fairly assess the impact of the 10 mg and 50 mg caffeine doses on the dogs by comparing their activity levels to those of the dogs who received only water.
The branch of psychology that studies how a person's thoughts, feelings, and behavior are influenced by the presence of other people and by the social and physical environment is called "_____ psychology."
Answer:
Social psychology is a correct answer.
Explanation:
The branch of psychology that studies how a person's thoughts, feelings, and behavior are influenced by the presence of other people and by the social and physical environment is called '' Social psychology."
Social psychology studies about people's feelings, behaviors and thoughts are influenced by the involvement of other people.
It explains the cause of how the feelings, beliefs, thoughts, goals, and intentions are influenced by others.
Thus Social psychology is the branch of psychology which deal with the studies human interaction in the social groups and explain the social situation's impact on human behavior.
Describe animal interactions that affect populations in the tundra ecosystem.
Answer:
Animals migrate to eat insects that live there year round.Many animals in the tundra hibernate during the long, cold winter months.
Animals are most active in the short summer as the snow melts and shallow wetlands form
Explanation:
Answer:
Interferes with each other number/count and hence affects the activities physical or chemical associated with it .
Explanation:
There are several varieties of animals in the tundra region in which some are extremely dangerous animals such as polar bear which feed on both flesh and plants such as seals, fish, birds, caribou, musk oxen, berries, and leaves. They are extremely powerful with huge diet. The species on which it feed has a slow growth rate as compared to the rate at which they are fed upon. Thus, the population of these lower level animals is in danger. Along with it several animals hibernate for a long period due to extreme cold and hence the population of species on which they feed upon grow tremendously
Also some species of animals feed on microorganism that are the only source of disintegrating dead bodies of animals and plants. Excessive feeding on such microorganism may lead to problem of improper or incomplete or slow dead organic matter disintegration
Which of these describes loose connective tissue? (A) It is a loose weave of fibers that functions as a packing material. (B) It is composed of many fibers that connect bone to bone and muscle to bone. (C) It is a rigid material that provides structural support. (D) It transports nutrients and gases from one part of the body to another.It plays a role in padding, insulation, and energy storage.
Answer:
A.it is a loose weave of fibers that functions as a packing material
Loose connective tissue is a loose weave of fibers that functions as a packing material.
One form of connective tissue is called loose connective tissue which has a disordered arrangement of fibers. It acts as a packing material by filling organ gaps, supporting and cushioning delicate structures. It is composed of cells, fibers (including elastic and collagen fibers) and ground material. Such tissue serves as a source of padding, insulation and stored energy. Areolar tissue and adipose tissue are two examples of loose connective tissue.
Therefore, the correct option is A.
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Spores are produced by _____ in the diploid phase. meiosis eggs mitosis fertilization (answer quick and ill make u brainliest)
Answer:
Spores are produced by meiosis in the diploid phase.
Answer:
Meiosis.
Explanation:
Meiosis may be defined as the type of the process of cell divisions in which a parent cell divides into four daughter cells. The chromosome number reduces to half in the daughter cells.
Spores are produced as meiosis as meiosis generally occurs in the cell that are involved in reproduction. Spores are haploid cells that are only produced by the process of meiosis.
Thus, the answer is meiosis.
kmf Of the 40 specimens of bacteria in a dish,3 specimens have a certain trait. If 5 specimens are to be selected from the dish at random and without replacement, which of the following represents the probability that only 1 of the 5 specimens selected will have the trait?
Answer:
[tex]\frac{C^{3}_1* C^{47}_4}{C^{40}_5}[/tex]
Explanation:
It is given that out of 40, total 5 specimen are selected.
Thus, the number of ways in which 5 specimens are selected from a given sample of 40 is given by
[tex]C^{40}_{5}\\[/tex]
Number of specimen with certain trait is equal to 3.
Now, total 5 specimen are selected out of which one specimen is selected from the set of specimen that has certain trait (i.e out of 3) while the remaining four specimen will be selected from the rest [tex]40-3=37[/tex] specimen.
Thus, the probability of choosing only 1 of the 5 specimens with the trait is equal to
[tex]\frac{C^{3}_1* C^{37}_4}{C^{40}_5}[/tex]
Which of the following is a disadvantage of asexual reproduction? Only 1 parent is needed It requires more energy and resources It can be done very quickly Offspring may be more susceptible to disease because they are genetically identical
Answer:
Offspring may be more susceptible to disease because they are genetically identical
Explanation:
Asexual reproduction is the process that includes the production of progeny from a single parent. Since there is no gametic fusion and the only single parent is involved, the progeny is genetically identical to the parents and among themselves.
Some of the genetic variations produced during sexual reproduction are beneficial and increase the survival chances of individuals by making them better adapted to surroundings or imparting beneficial traits such as disease resistance.
Lack of genetic variations among the progeny makes them more likely to get infected with diseases.
The ancestors of elephants inhabited every continent except Antarctica and Australia. But the Asian and African elephants are the only ones to survive. Why? A. Dinosaurs killed all other elephant species. B. Asian and African elephants killed off other species of elephants. C. Asian and African elephants adapted well to their environments.
Asian and African elephants survived till this day primarily due to their effective adaptation to their environments. Other species like the woolly mammoths faced extinction pressures due to severe habitat changes and extensive hunting. The ability to adapt to environmental changes was pivotal to the survival of the remaining elephant species.
Explanation:The survival of Asian and African elephants can primarily be attributed to their successful adaptation to their respective environments. Other elephant species like the woolly mammoths and the mastodons located in places such as North America, Europe, and North Asia, faced drastic habitat changes and extreme hunting pressures. The woolly mammoths, for instance, began to go extinct about 10,000 years ago when human hunters drove them towards extinction. On the other hand, Asian and African elephants were able to better adapt to their environments and survive fluctuating conditions.
It's important to note that elephants and their ancestors evolved significantly over time, with some species even sharing up to 98 to 99 percent identical genomes with modern elephants. These animals were able to survive by adjusting their strategies and becoming effective in varying conditions, unlike other now extinct large animals. So, the main factor in the survival of the Asian and African elephant species is their successful adaptability to their environments while other species could not cope with external pressures and changes.
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"Some sympathetic preganglionic fibers stimulate the adrenal medulla to release norepinephrine and epinephrine into the blood, producing what is commonly called a "surge of adrenaline." True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Epinephrine and norepinephrine are the hormones secreted by the adrenal medulla and are also called adrenaline and noradrenaline, respectively. During stress conditions, the hypothalamus stimulates the preganglionic neurons of sympathetic division.
These preganglionic neurons stimulate the chromaffin cells to secrete epinephrine and norepinephrine to prepare the body for fight or flight response. The increased level of epinephrine and norepinephrine hormones in the blood is called “surge of adrenaline”
True, the activation of sympathetic preganglionic fibers leads to the adrenal medulla releasing epinephrine and norepinephrine, initiating the fight-or-flight response.
Explanation:The statement you're asking about is true. Some sympathetic preganglionic fibers, upon activation, stimulate the adrenal medulla to release epinephrine (often referred to as adrenaline) and norepinephrine (noradrenaline) into the bloodstream. This response is part of the fight-or-flight response, which prepares the body to face or escape from potential threats. The sympathetic nervous system triggers this response, which originates from neural impulses in the hypothalamus in reaction to stress. When these neurotransmitters are released into the blood, they cause physiological changes such as increased heart rate, increased blood pressure, and elevated blood sugar levels to support the body's need for immediate energy and heightened awareness.
What are three questions that focus on the cause and effect relationship between the genetic code and gene expression, mechanisms of gene regulation and/or the role of DNA segments that do not code for
proteins?
(If you can provide further info that would be great, thank you!)
Three questions that focuses on the cause and effect relationship between the genetic code and gene expression, mechanisms of gene regulation and/or the role of DNA segments that is not involved in coding the proteins are:
i. Illustrate the process of translation and explain it with the help of a diagram.
ii. What are codons? Name the stop codons in eukaryotes.
iii. What are exons and introns? Explain what happens to the introns during the process of transcription and translation?
The cause and effect relationship between the genetic code and gene expression, mechanisms of gene regulation, and the role of DNA segments that do not code for proteins.
Explanation:Three questions that focus on the cause and effect relationship between the genetic code and gene expression, mechanisms of gene regulation, and the role of DNA segments that do not code for proteins are:
How does a change in the genetic code affect gene expression?What are the mechanisms by which gene regulation occurs?What is the function of DNA segments that do not code for proteins?The genetic code is a set of rules that determines the sequence of amino acids in a protein. Changes in the genetic code, such as mutations, can lead to alterations in gene expression, affecting the production of specific proteins. Gene regulation involves the control of gene expression, and several mechanisms, such as DNA methylation and transcription factors, play a role. Additionally, non-coding DNA segments, such as introns and regulatory sequences, have important functions in gene regulation and other cellular processes.
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Where is the greatest amount of the world’s carbon found?
atmosphere
seafloor sediments
ocean
plants and animals
Answer:
The best answer to the question: Where is the greatest amount of the world´s carbon found, would be: the seafloor sediments, where the ocean deposits this element.
Explanation:
Although the most logical answer to this question would be the atmosphere, given that carbon is present in the form of carbon dioxide, the reality, and according to research done, is that carbon, as an element is present most of all in the ocean and it is the seafloor sediments that have become the biggest reservoirs of elemental carbon.
Which statement about a biological catalyst is true. A. Catalysts increase the velocity of chemical reactions. B. Catalysts shift the equilibrium of a given reaction towards the products. C. Catalysts are used up during a chemical reaction. D. Catalysts change the thermodynamic favorability of a reaction.
Answer:
The right answer to this question is option A. Catalysts increase the velocity of chemical reactions.
Explanation:
Catalysts can be lots of things, it can be a specific substance to a chemical reaction that helps this reaction to happen faster, or even an enzyme. A catalyst, or, a biological catalyst, is mostly recognized as enzymes, and enzymes work in a system called lock-key system. So for the reaction to happen, a specific substrate needs to enter in a specific enzyme, and when that happens, the reaction happens faster than before.
Biological catalysts, or enzymes, increase the rate of chemical reactions without being used up or changing the equilibrium of the reaction; the true statement is that catalysts increase the velocity of chemical reactions.
The statement about a biological catalyst that is true is A. Catalysts increase the velocity of chemical reactions. Catalysts are not used up during the reaction (C is incorrect), and they do not change the thermodynamic favorability of a reaction (D is incorrect); instead, they provide an alternate pathway with lower activation energy for the reaction. Moreover, while catalysts help a reaction achieve equilibrium faster, they do not shift the reaction equilibrium towards the products (B is incorrect). Biological catalysts, known as enzymes, are highly efficient in increasing reaction rates under physiological conditions, such as body temperature and pH.
Our genetic material, DNA, is formed from a 4 letter alphabet" of bases: A, T, G, C (adenine, thymine, guanine, and cytosine). The order in which the letters are arranged is important, but because a molecule can move, there is no difference between a sequence and the same sequence reversed. How many distinct DNA sequences of 5 bases are there?
Answer:
544 distinct DNA sequences are there.
Explanation:
DNA contains four nitrogenous bases adenine, thymine, guanine and cytosine.
Total DNA sequences of 5 bases are [tex]4^{5}[/tex]
= 1024 sequences.
Out of 1024 sequence, [tex]4^{3}[/tex] sequence is palindromic sequence (the sequence that can be determined only if the first three sequences are known.
64 sequences are palindromic sequence.
Since, the difference between the sequence and the same sequenced reverse is zero. 960 sequences (1024-64) are reverse of the other 959 sequences.
Distinct DNA sequences can be calculated by:
Distinct DNA sequence = Palindromic sequence + 1/2 (remaining sequences)
= 64+1/2(960)
=544 sequences.
Thus, the distinct DNA sequences are 544.
Victor is making cake batter. When he added corn oil, fat-free milk, baking powder, and salt together, the oil and milk separated into two layers. To make a mixture that does not separate into oily and watery components, Victor should add ________ and stir the ingredients together.
Answer:
egg yolk
Explanation:
In order to combine the oily and watery components which are immiscible ( unable to mix) Victor would require an emulsifier.An emulsifier is a substance which contains molecules with hydrophilic (water-loving) and hydrophobic ( water-repellent) ends. Emulsifiers allow substances like water and oil to become miscible (able to mix and form a single smooth emulsion).Egg yolk is an example of an emulsifier which is suitable to Victor's activity- making cake batter. The egg yolk will prevent the separation of oil and water components.To prevent the oil and milk from separating in the cake batter, Victor should add an emulsifying agent like egg yolk and stir the ingredients together.
Explanation:When Victor added the corn oil and fat-free milk to the cake batter, the oil and milk separated into two layers because oil is nonpolar and milk is polar. Nonpolar substances, like oil, do not mix well with polar substances, like water. To make a mixture that does not separate, Victor should add an emulsifying agent, which can interact with both the oil and water. For example, he could add egg yolk, which is a common emulsifying agent in recipes such as mayonnaise and cake batter. By adding egg yolk and stirring the ingredients together, Victor can create a stable mixture that does not separate into oily and watery components.
Why must scientists be aware of the ethical issues that their research creates?
Answer:
Explanation:
The scientists must be aware of the ethical issues related to the research as it is important for the authenticity and validity of their research. The research must be original work and creativity of the scientists. If some information is taken from any source it is required to be addressed in the research work to appreciate the efforts of the other scientists and for the purpose of the acknowledgement.
What is an allele? A. Trait form that is hidden by a dominant gene B. One of different forms of the same gene C. Trait form that is displayed by recessive genes D. Identical copies of two different genes
Which of the following carries no sensory information?
trigeminal nerve
vestibulocochlear nerve
hypoglossal nerve
optic nerve
Answer:
Hypoglossal nerve
Explanation:
The hypoglossal nerve is a motor nerve. It is found under the tongue and its main function is tongue movement. It controls the muscles of the tongue that we use when we speak and also when we eat. Its function can be damaged by a stroke, and that is why stroke vitims usually slur.
The hypoglossal nerve (XII) ( Option C ) carries no sensory information. It is purely a motor nerve that controls muscles of the tongue.
The question is asking which nerve carries no sensory information. Among the options given:
Trigeminal nerve carries both sensory and motor information.Vestibulocochlear nerve carries sensory information for hearing and balance.Optic nerve carries sensory information for vision.Hypoglossal nerve is purely a motor nerve that controls muscles of the tongue.Therefore, the hypoglossal nerve (XII) carries no sensory information. Understanding the specific functions of different cranial nerves is essential in neurobiology, which deals with various sensory and motor pathways in the body.
Complete question:
Which of the following carries no sensory information?
A. trigeminal nerve
B. vestibulocochlear nerve
C. hypoglossal nerve
D. optic nerve
True or false? A codon is a group of three bases that can specify more than one amino acid.
A single codon corresponds to one specific amino acid, making the statement false. The codons for tyrosine are the same in both plants and humans, which is true. The start codon signifies the beginning of translation and also encodes for the amino acid methionine, which is also true.
The statement that a codon can specify more than one amino acid is false. A codon, which is a group of three nitrogen bases in nucleic acids, corresponds to one specific amino acid in the genetic code. There are some instances, known as the wobble effect, where different codons may code for the same amino acid, but a single codon does not encode for multiple amino acids.
The codons that specify tyrosine are indeed the same in both plants and humans, reflecting the virtually universal nature of the genetic code. This fact emphasizes the similarity in the way that different organisms translate RNA sequences into proteins.
Regarding the start codon, the statement is true. The start codon, typically AUG, not only signals the beginning of the protein-coding region but also codes for the amino acid methionine.
Last year, Kylee moved to a new town, got hooked on heroin, and had some medical scares that made her realize she wants to quit her substance abuse for good. Her parents have offered to help financially, but they're upset with things that she's done and said they don't want to see her again until she's been clean for at least one year. What is the best treatment option for Kylee?
Answer:
A residential program that removes her from her current living situation, followed up with support groups to offer accountability
Explanation:
Kyle wants and needs to change and quit her addictions, but she won't be able to do it alone, she needs professional help and emotional support to make this important step in her life.
Since Kyle can't count on her parents until she's clean, the best Kyle can look for is a residential program that removes her from her current life situation, accompanied by support groups to offer accountability.
That way Kyle will have the necessary follow-up to avoid relapsing, getting rid of her addictions, and making peace with her parents.
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Which of the following describes a phenomenon that occurs when we observe plants that wilt?
A. The xylem releases all its water.
B. The stomata close, cutting off transpiration and gas exchange.
C. The roots begin to rot, causing them to no longer uptake water.
D. The plant begins absorbing oxygen and releasing carbon dioxide into the atmosphere.
Answer:
A: The xylem releases all it's water
Explanation:
This is so because wilting is the loss of rigidity of non-woody parts of plants. This occurs when the turgor pressure in non-lignified plant cells falls towards zero, as a result of diminished water in the cells. The rate of loss of water from the plant is greater than the absorption of water in the plant.
Answer:
A
Explanation:
Your supervisor asks you to set up a pure culture of a bacterial species he is researching. He tells you that this species is a fastidious, halophilic, gram-positive mesophile that does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase. What type of culture medium and environmental factors must you use to grow this organism?
Answer:
This bacterial species needs to be grown in a nutrient agar of high salt (NaCl) concentration. It needs to be incubated at moderate temperature of between 20°C and 45°C. This species needs to be kept in an oxygen free environment, a sealed jar containing an oxygen- free gas mixture.
Explanation:
Fastidious: indicates that the bacterial species requires special nutrients and specific environmental conditions to grow.Halophilic: refers to "salt- loving" bacteria, who thrive in conditions with high salt concentrations.Gram -positive: indicates that the bacterium tested positive in the Gram stain test. Mesophile: indicates that the optimum temperature fro the bacteria to grow in is between 20°C and 45°C.This species does not have catalase or superoxide dismutase which indicates that this is an obligate anaerobe because both of these enzymes are required for aerobic respiration. This species cannot be exposed to oxygen.In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is ________.
A. not present except where it is combined with carrier molecules
B. about equal to the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
C. greater than the oxygen combined with hemoglobin
D. only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form
Answer:
D. only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form is correct answer.
Explanation:
Plasma is a component of blood, it has many functions in our body like fighting against diseases, clotting the blood.
In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form and 98.5% of the oxygen is bound to hemoglobin.
Thus option (D) only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried in dissolved form is correct.
In the plasma, only 1.5% of the oxygen is carried in dissolved form. Most oxygen is carried by hemoglobin in red blood cells.
Explanation:In the plasma, the quantity of oxygen in solution is generally quite small. The correct answer is D. only about 1.5% of the oxygen carried is in dissolved form. Most of the oxygen in the blood is actually carried by hemoglobin, a protein found in red blood cells. Hemoglobin binds to oxygen in areas of high oxygen concentration, such as in the lungs, and releases it in areas of lower concentration, such as in the body's tissues. Only a small fraction of the oxygen — about 1.5% — is dissolved directly into the plasma.
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