Greenland does have higher albedo as compared to Africa because of ice everywhere in greenland, and albedo is the melting of snow and ice.
Reason of having albedo in Greenland?Since 2000, the Greenland albedo should be reduced at the accelerated rate and it should be increased in the surface temperature.
Also, in the case when the temperature is increased more snow so it should be melted and associated albedo reduced at the higher elevations in near future.
In this way, it should have a higher albedo.
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Scientists expect Greenland to have higher albedo than that of Africa because the snow in Greenland is fresh and thicker than that of Africa.
What are the weather conditions in Greenland?The climate in the Greenland has continental characteristics with very cold winter conditions which are down to minus 50°C in the northern Greenland. The temperature is very rarely above zero degree Celsius from the months of September to May.
Scientists notice that the albedo of the ice sheet is much higher in the winters when much of the Greenland area is covered by the fresh snow. During the spring season, the albedo declines rapidly as the snow begins to melt with the increase in temperature, reaching a minimum in the summer season and rising again as the fall transitions back to winter.
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A 76-year-old woman with emphysema presents with respiratory distress that has worsened progressively over the past 2 days. She is breathing through pursed lips and has a prolonged expiratory phase and an oxygen saturation of 76%. She is on home oxygen at 2 L/min. Your initial action should be to:A. increase her oxygen flow rate to 6 L/min.B. administer a beta-2 agonist via nebulizer.C. place her in a position that facilitates breathing.D. auscultate her lungs for adventitious breath sounds.
Answer: The correct answer to the question is option C
PLACE HER IN A POSITION THAT FACILITATES BREATHING.
Explanation: Emphysema is a condition of the respiratory system,in emphysema,there is significant damage of the air sacs in the lungs altering breathing and exchange of gases and leading to breathlessness.
Respiratory distress,pursed lips breathing,prolonged expiratory phase and low oxygen saturation all indicates chronic obstructive pulmonary disease.
One of the initial management of respiratory distress is proper positioning.cardiac positioning is the best position to ease breathing difficulty.
The woman should be made to lie on her back with a pillow under her head to support her,the best should be raised at an angle of 30° ,and two pillows should be placed under the hands and arms to support it two pillows placed under the both ones for support too.
This type of position will help relief tensing in the patients abdominal and respiratory muscles and as well ease the tension that occurs to the chest during gravity,promote venous return and prevent thromboembolism.
The patient can also be made to lie on her back,her head elevated with pillow and a pillow will be placed between her legs.
These positions makes the respiratory airways to relax and thus easing breathing.
If you pick up a novel object that you've never seen before and run your fingers along it to get a better sense of its shape, you are engaging in A. increased touch sensitivity. B. two-point touch. C. proprioceptive feedback.D. nociception. E. a haptic exploratory procedure.
When you run your fingers along an object to sense its shape, you are engaging in a haptic exploratory procedure. This active touch involves haptic perception, which integrates various sensory inputs and feedback mechanisms to help recognize the object's properties.
If you pick up a novel object that you've never seen before and run your fingers along it to get a better sense of its shape, you are engaging in E. a haptic exploratory procedure. Haptic perception is involved when we recognize an object by touching it. This perception is a combination of the senses in the skin, the position of the hand, and how the fingers conform to the object.
By actively moving your fingers over the object, you're using active touch, which tends to be more informative for determining an object's shape and other properties. Through touch, we can discern various characteristics such as size, weight, texture, stiffness, and so forth. This information is processed by receptors in our skin and then combined in our central nervous system to form a detailed understanding of the object.
Two-point discrimination, proprioceptive feedback, and nociception are all different aspects of the haptic system that serve their unique purposes in tactile sensation.
Overall, when you explore an object with your hands to learn about its shape and other qualities, you are primarily using haptic perception.
Primary targets for insulin action include all of the following except
Answer:
renal glucose reabsorption
Explanation:
Explain how it is that actin and myosin in the sarcomere never actually shorten and yet the muscle as a whole does.
Answer:
The muscle fibers are pulled by the myosin and sarcomere together, resulting in the shortening of the fibres, but the sarcomere and myosin just move.
Explanation:
During muscle contraction, each sarcomere shortens, bringing the Z discs close together. There is no change in the width of the A band but both I bands and the H zone almost completely disappear. These changes are explained by actin and myosin filaments sliding past one another, so that the actin filaments move into A band and H zone. Muscle contraction thus results from an interaction between the actin and the mosin filaments that generates their movement relative to one another. The molecular basis for this interaction is the binding of the myosin to actin filaments that generate their movement relative to one another.
During muscle contraction, the actin and myosin filaments in a sarcomere do not actually shorten. Instead, they slide past each other, pulling the actin filaments towards the center and reducing the overall length of the sarcomere. This leads to the muscle's overall contraction, even though the individual filaments themselves do not shorten.
Explanation:The actin and myosin filaments in the sarcomere do not actually shorten during muscle contraction. Instead, they slide past each other in a process known as the sliding filament model of contraction. The myosin heads form cross-bridges by attaching to the actin filaments, pulling them towards the center of the sarcomere. This action reduces the distance between consecutive Z discs, thus shortening the sarcomere. The energy for this process is provided by ATP. While some regions such as the H zone and I band within the sarcomere do shorten, the thick (myosin) and thin (actin) filaments remain the same length. Their overlapping movements lead to the overall contraction of the muscle.
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What may happen if a species goes extinct?
Answer:
Every living thing plays a role in the food chain and Earth's ecosystems, and the extinction of certain species, whether predators or prey, can leave behind significant impacts. ... “When a predator goes extinct, all of its prey are released from that predation pressure, and they may have big impacts on ecosystems.”
Explanation:
Extinctions can have serious ramifications on ecosystems and human welfare, such as collapsing ecosystems, affecting food production, and compromising air and water quality. The loss of keystone species is especially critical as it can lead to extinction cascades.
When a species goes extinct, it can have significant implications for human welfare and the health of ecosystems. Although extinction is a natural part of macroevolution, the current accelerated extinction rate could result in the loss of tens of thousands of species within our lifetimes. This loss can lead to the collapse of ecosystems, which negatively impacts food production, clean air and water, and human health. Especially troubling is the loss of keystone species, which can trigger an extinction cascade and disrupt entire communities. Therefore, the practical importance of biodiversity loss is significant, affecting ecological balance and the benefits that humans derive from nature.
A young female wears her lap belt low, over her upper thighs, because the belt is uncomfortable when worn properly. If involved in a head-on "up and over" type collision, to what injury is she most prone, given the position of her lap belt?
A) Internal abdominal injury
B) Dislocated hips
C) Tibia-fibula fractures
D) Bilateral arm fractures
Answer:
The correct answer here is B) Dislocated Hips
Explanation:
Due to the force of the of the collision which causes a forceful "up and over" pull over her body, hips is likely to get dislocated.
If worn properly, the lap belt will hold her in place preventing her upper torso which is heaver than her lower body mass (that is the hips and below) from reacting to the forceful conversion of potential energy to kinetic energy.
When her body, having used the belt erroneously, goes into a full kinetic jump, the weight of the upper torso will pull the most at the hips thus leading to the dislocation.
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An ulcer is a break or discontinuity in a cutaneous or mucous membrane in the body. There are many types of ulcers. __________ is a type of ulcer in which there is an erosion of the gastrointestinal lining deep enough to penetrate the muscularis mucosa.
a.Gastroesophageal reflux disease (GERD)
b.Diverticulosis
c.A peptic ulcer
d.Gastritis
Answer: C
Explanation:
A peptic ulcer is an erosion in a segment of the gastrointestinal mucosa, typically in the stomach (gastric ulcer) or the first few centimeters of the duodenum (duodenal ulcer), that penetrates through the muscularis mucosae.
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Which winds are found primarily in the tropics
Answer:
is the trade winds
Explanation: trust me i just took the assigment is correct
Athletes' motivation, the level of competition, the type of sport, and the ________ are the key factors in determining the probability of using anabolic steroids. A. pressure for winning B. age of the athlete C. price of this drug D. expectations of the fans
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Definitely the goal of any athletes is to win a laurel, so that the energy put into timeless training can be consummated. Therefore the spirit of wining at all cost usually drive most athletes to spike up their systems to achieve their dreams. Most athletes are determined to win to satisfy the sponsor, family and relations. Besides coaches who want their work output to be noticed usually led athletes to spike the systems with steroid . Besides distractions by social levels, and need to meet up with time wasted ,made some athletes to spike systems.
Thus this collective efforts put pressure on the athletes to win at all cost.
After the population of Florida panthers (Puma concolor) fell to several dozen, scientists developed a plan to save this endangered species. They moved eight panthers from a different subspecies in Texas into the Florida panthers’ habitat so that the two would interbreed. This interbreeding will help the panthers because:
A) the new population will carry a greater proportion of dominant alleles
B) matings between subspecies will produce offspring with recessive phenotypes
C) a higher rate of homozygosity will ensure that more individuals are able to fight diseases
D) natural selection can favor panthers that respond positively to changes in the environment
Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are
Answer:
Divisions of the cerebral hemispheres that are named after the overlying skull bones are called Lobes
Explanation:
By means of a prominent groove, called the longitudinal fissure, the brain is divided into two halves called hemispheres. At the base of this fissure lies a thick bundle of nerve fibers, called the corpus callosum, which provides a communication link between the hemispheres. The left hemisphere controls the right half of the body, and vice-versa, because of a crossing of the nerve fibers in the medulla.
The central sulcus and the lateral sulcus, divide each cerebral hemisphere into four sections, called lobes.The central sulcus, also called fissure of Rolando, also separates the cortical motor area (which is anterior to the fissure).
The cerebral cortex is classified into four lobes, according to the name of the corresponding cranial bone that approximately overlies each part. Each lobe contains various cortical association areas – where information from different modalities are collated for processing. Together, these areas function to give us a meaningful perceptual interpretation and experience of our surrounding environment.
Answer:
Brain lobes
Explanation:
The brain has two hemispheres (left and right) that are formed each by 4 lobes: parietal, and occipital, frontal and temporal. These lobes are named depending on the overlying skull bones
Renin is released by cells of the apparatus in response to afferent arteriole pressure and the degree of stretch of the arteriole wall. True or False
Answer: True
Explanation:
Renin ( angiotensinogenase), is an aspartic protease protein which is secreted by kidney that participates in the body's renin – angiotensin – aldosterone network that mediates arterial vasoconstriction and extracellular fluid volume.
Renin is released by cells of the juxtaglomerular apparatus in response to the stimuli of decrease in arterial blood pressure and the degree of stretch of the arteriole wall.
Hence, the statement is true.
For finches on the Galapagos a significant change in big size can observed across the years Rapunzel rainfall orchestra how can the changes and finch beak size be attributed to evolution
Answer:
The food resources of the finches vary in regard to the island, it is for that reason that we observe differences in the finch beak size
Explanation:
Evolution explains how the survival of the most adaptive organisms to the environment (in this case birds with suitable beaks) makes that they perpetuate their genes in future generations
Loss of biodiversity matters not only with regard to mammals or other vertebrates, but also microbes. What statement below would encourage a wide range of people to view microbes as worthy of discovery and protection from extinction?
A. Microbes may be the most sensitive to the next large extinction event.
B. Microbes may produce unique proteins useful in genetic research.
C. Microbes play a role in digestion.
D. Microbes are much greater in species number than any other taxa on Earth.
Answer:
B. Microbes may produce unique proteins useful in genetic research
Explanation:
Biodiversity refers to the diversity of living beings present on Earth. The biodiversity is a very important component of the ecosystem as these living organisms are interlinked with each other. Therefore, the loss of biodiversity will affect the ecosystem.
When we look at the biodiversity a layman considers the living organisms which can be seen with eyes but the diversity also exists at the level of the micro-organisms.
The man-made activities are not only harming the macroscopic but also microscopic organisms. The microbes play an important role in our life like these days they are used by the scientific community to study the genetic and related fields like molecular biology. The microbes produce proteins that are consumed by humans.
Thus, Option-B is correct.
An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n) An agent used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet would most accurately be called a(n) disinfectant. fungicide. aseptic. virucide. antiseptic.
Answer:
disinfectant
Explanation:
Disinfectant are chemical substances that are applied on non living surfaces, which are used to inactivate or kill microorganisms such as fungi and bacteria. examples of chemical disinfectants include bleach, thymol, alcohols, formaldehyde etc. Also, there are non-chemical disinfectant, such as UV light.
Disinfectant are antimicrobial in action, and can be used to reduce the number of bacteria on a toilet. It is almost similar with antiseptic, however, antiseptic are mostly applied on the body to prevent growth of microorganisms, while disinfectant are commonly applied on inert or non living surfaces, to reduce and destroy microorganisms.
Which of the following correctly lists, in increasing order, the resistance of microorganisms to chemical biocides? View Available Hint(s) Which of the following correctly lists, in increasing order, the resistance of microorganisms to chemical biocides? gram-positive bacteria, endospores, prions prions, gram-negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria mycobacteria, gram-positive bacteria, gram-negative bacteria, prions gram-negative bacteria, gram-positive bacteria, mycobacteria
Answer:
Gram-positive bacteria, fungi, endospores, prions
Explanation:
The above mentioned answer is in increasing order which are resistant to chemical biocides.
Gram positive bacterias are the easiest to destroy, then fungi is difficult than bacteria, endospore is more difficult to remove or destroy by chemical biocides and prions are the most resistant protein particles to the chemical biocides.
Prions are very difficult to kill by standard sterilization and disinfection procedures.
The correct order of increasing resistance of microorganisms to chemical biocides is: prions, gram-positive bacteria, gram-negative bacteria, and mycobacteria.
Explanation:The correct order of increasing resistance of microorganisms to chemical biocides is:
PrionsGram-positive bacteriaGram-negative bacteriaMycobacteriaPrions are the most resistant, followed by gram-positive bacteria, gram-negative bacteria, and then mycobacteria.
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do viruses have the ability to adapt
no i don't think they can
Answer:
. A virus can live in two different phases – the lytic phase (where the virus actively replicates in a host cell) and the lysogenic phase (where the viral DNA incorporate itself into the cell’s DNA and multiples whenever the cell multiplies). Sometimes a host does not have enough energy or supplies to support the virus to actively replicate, so it will switch to the lysogenic phase. The virus can eventually reenter the lytic phase when conditions are right.
Explanation:
What is the difference between a heterozygous and homozygous set of alleles?
Homozygous mean that both copies of a gene or locus match.
Heterozygous mean that both copies of a gone do not match.
An anatomy and physiology instructor scratches chalk across the blackboard causing a screeching sound. Several students get a feeling like their "hair is standing on end." This response is part of the sympathetic stress reaction and is called what?
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system directs the body's rapid involuntary response to dangerous or stressful situations
The feeling of "hair is standing on end" gives goosebumps or technically we one can say pilorection
Pilorection is defined as erection of the hair of skin due to contraction of the tiny arrectores pilorum muscles that elevate the hair follicles above the rest of the skin and move the hair vertically, so the hair seems to stand on end
What change (or transition) in habitat did whales’ ancestors make?
Answer:
To first started living on land and that is where the traits and transitions moved to water instead of land
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A 6-week-old infant presents to your office for a check-up. The baby was born full-term by NSVD to a 29-year-old G1P0 mother with no complications. Mother states the baby was feeding well until a week ago, when he developed increased sleepiness, prolonged feeding, and greater duration between feeds. His mother notes he stops to take breaks during feeds because he seems to be trying to catch his breath. He has four to six wet diapers per day and stools three or four times per day. Vital signs: Temperature is 37.6 C (99.7F), respiratory rate is 68 breaths/minute, pulse is 138 beats/minute, blood pressure is 88/58 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is 98%. The physical examination is notable for increased respiratory effort and retractions, and, upon cardiac examination, a murmur with a hyperactive precordium and no cyanosis. Abdominal exam reveals a liver edge palpable to 4 cm below the right costal margin.
Which condition would be LEAST LIKELY to be the cause of the infant's symptoms?
A) Aortic stenosis
B) Coarctation of the aorta
C) Ventricular septal defect
D) Patent ductus arteriosus
E) Atrial septal defect
Answer:
E) Atrial septal defect
Explanation:
A 6-week-old infant presents to your office for a check-up. The baby was born full-term by NSVD to a 29-year-old G1P0 mother with no complications. Mother states the baby was feeding well until a week ago, when he developed increased sleepiness, prolonged feeding, and greater duration between feeds. His mother notes he stops to take breaks during feeds because he seems to be trying to catch his breath. He has four to six wet diapers per day and stools three or four times per day. Vital signs: Temperature is 37.6 C (99.7F), respiratory rate is 68 breaths/minute, pulse is 138 beats/minute, blood pressure is 88/58 mmHg, and oxygen saturation is 98%. The physical examination is notable for increased respiratory effort and retractions, and, upon cardiac examination, a murmur with a hyperactive precordium and no cyanosis. Abdominal exam reveals a liver edge palpable to 4 cm below the right costal margin.
Atrial septal defect do not cause CHF; an ASD malformation is a left to right shunt, and depending on the size of the defect the patient may or may not present with symptoms and ASDs often go undiagnosed for decades due to subtle physical examination findings and/or a lack of appreciable symptoms. If the defect is large enough, pediatric patients may present with easy fatigability, recurrent respiratory infections, or exertional dyspnea.
Answer:
\rE) Atrial septal defect
Explanation:
The least likely condition for the cause of these symptoms in the infant is Atrial septal defect .
An ASD malformation is a left-to-right shunt, and—depending on the size of the defect—the patient may or may not present with symptoms. ASDs often go undiagnosed for decades due to subtle physical examination findings and/or a lack of appreciable symptoms.
If the defect is large enough, pediatric patients may present with easy fatigability, recurrent respiratory infections, or exertional dyspnea.
What are intertidal communities so stressful on their inhabitants
Explanation:
Intertidal communities are found within the shoreline area reached by waters of the highest high tide and uncovered at the lowest low tide
Stressful environment due to interaction of physical factors, e.g., wind, waves, sunlight Organisms must be able to withstand desiccation, searing heat and freezingOrganisms on rocky shores are faced with challenges not encountered by organisms in the deeper ocean alternately submerged by incoming tide and exposed to air by ebbing tide exposed to salinity fluctuations due to rain and evaporation pounded by high energy wavesOrganisms attached to high intertidal locations face greatest challenge to maintain suitable body temperature and avoid water loss and their adaptations include: large body exposes less surface area, light color reduces heat gain , special adaptations of kidneys , aggregate in large clumps , close shells at low tide, e.g., barnacles Organisms in high latitudes produce anti-freezing type compounds during winter, these compounds are proteins located in their bloodThe greatest preventable risk factor for cardiovascular disease is
Answer:
Raised blood pressure
Explanation:
People have the ability to change there diet, take medication, or exercise
why does the heart need to have such an abundant supply of blood?
(pig anatomy)
Answer:
Explanation:
The heart needs an abundant supply of blood to offer oxygen exchange for carbon dioxide and nutrition as well as take away waste products like carbon dioxide.
What are the overriding problem with both theories of muscle growth
Answer:
The overriding problem with both theories of muscle growth, hypertrophy and hyperplasia, is that: neither can be accepted as correct because muscles growth is difficult to study in humans.
Explanation:
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Select the one statement that is false: a) All species of Plasmodium can cause relapses. b) Merozoites are the form of Plasmodium that invades red blood cells.c) Plasmodium sexual reproduction involves fusion of a male and female cell to produce a zygote.d) The "knobs" on infected red blood cells increase P. falciparum mortality by reducing immune system clearance of Plasmodium-infected red blood cells. e) Plasmodium has an organelle that specializes in taking up and using hemoglobin as a nutrient .f) Nearly all malaria deaths are caused by P. falciparum.
ANSWER: (A) All species of Plasmodium can cause relapses.
EXPLANATION: All species of Plasmodium can cause relapses is FALSE.
Based on series of research on malarial parasites, only two species of Plasmodium can cause relapses (P. vivax and P. ovale.).
These species of plasmodium are known for causing relapses i.e the reappearance of parasitemia after treatment of affected individuals.
However, it is assumed that the subset of the parasites that caused the primary infection caused the relapses.
Furthermore, individuals who are cured of their blood stage may have a subsequent infection without reinfection (relapses). This is caused by the presence of the latent (exo-erythrocytic) stage, which exhibit dormancy in the body.
Answer:
Select the one statement that is false: a) All species of Plasmodium can cause relapses
Explanation:
This statement "All species of plasmodium can cause relapses" is false, because only two species of Plasmodium can cause relapses. These two are Plasmodium vivax and Plasmodium ovale. These species can cause malaria, people can develop symptoms even years after the initial infection due to activation of a dormant hypnozoite in the liver.
Jeff has been drinking a lot over the past few months,including frequent binges.His friends are concerned that this behavior puts him at risk for a condition that involves a potentially lethal blood alcohol concentration.Which condition is this?
A) coronary artery disease
B) alcohol poisoning
C) cirrhosis
D) alcoholic hepatitis
Answer:
B) alcohol poisoning
Explanation:
Alcohol poisoning is a serious, sometimes deadly condition as a result of consuming dangerous amounts of alcohol. Alcohol poisoning most often occurs as a result of drinking too many alcohol beverages over a short period of time. Alcohol poisoning can also occur by:
Ethanol Isopropyl alcoholMethyl alcoholIt may result in a condition that involves a potentially lethal blood alcohol concentration.
Hence, B) alcohol poisoning is the right answer
Answer:
D) alcoholic hepatitis
Explanation:
Alcoholic hepatitis is a disease which occurs due to the excessive consumption of alcohol for a long period of time. This disease damage your liver very badly and continuation of alcohol leads to death of the patient. This disease cannot be cured but it can be stop from further damage. The damage liver cannot be fully repaired and scarring of live occurs. In scarring of liver, hard scar tissue replaces soft healthy tissue of the liver.
Based on the general trend of your data, what happened to the heart rate and pulse amplitude immediately after exercise and then during recovery from exercise? What is the physiological advantage of these changes?
Exercise is very vital to the body,it a form of physical activity.the sole aim of excercise is to maintain stamina, flexibility,keep fit and be overly healthy and well.
When we excercise, our heart rate increases and then it returns to the normal rate when with rest,when we take a break.there is reflection of vasoconstriction in the fingers as the blood is shunted to only the exercising muscles because it is noted that the pulse amplitude of the heart is always small after excercise and and increases slowly during recovery.
The amount of blood the heart pumps in a minute,that is the amount of blood ejected by the contraction of the left ventricle into systemic circulation increases when we are exercising and resistance to blood flow by skeletal muscles decreases.the blood vessels will try to adapt to the condition (exercise) inorder to control blood flow and as well meet energy demands.
When we finish exercising,our body temperature increases which will inturn cause increase in the pulse rate and the blood in our body makes way to our skin,hands and legs inorder to clear off the energy that was generated by the body(muscles) during exercise
The statements below compare the similarities of ultraviolet light and microwaves.
Which choice does NOT belong in this list?
A Neither can be seen by the human eye.
B Scientists use both to study the structure of galaxies.
C They both have wavelengths that are longer than visible light.
D They are both types of radiation emitted by the Sun.
The choice which does not belong in this list is that they both have wavelengths that are longer than visible light.
What is Wavelength?This can be defined s the distance between corresponding points of two consecutive waves.
Ultraviolet light and microwaves can't be seen with the eyes because the wavelength is short. It is however shorter than visible light which is why visible light can be seen and they can't which makes option C the most appropriate choice.
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The incorrect statement is C, saying both ultraviolet light and microwaves have wavelengths longer than visible light, which is not true as ultraviolet light has shorter wavelengths compared to visible light.
Explanation:This statement is incorrect because ultraviolet light has wavelengths that are shorter than visible light, while microwaves have wavelengths that are longer than visible light. Electromagnetic spectrum knowledge indicates that as the wavelength decreases, the frequency increases, and vice versa, leading to different energies associated with different types of radiation such as ultraviolet light, visible light, and microwaves. While both ultraviolet light and microwaves are indeed forms of electromagnetic radiation emitted by the Sun and neither can be seen by the human eye, scientists also use both to study the structure of galaxies.
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A client has been diagnosed with right-sided heart failure based on symptomology. The cardiologist will confirm this suspicion through diagnostics. Which diagnostics are used to reveal right ventricular enlargement?A. electrocardiogramB. chest radiographC. echocardiography
Answer:
A. electrocardiogram and C. echocardiography.
Explanation:
The two diagnostics used to confirm if a person has ventricular enlargement are electrocardiogram and echocardiography. Electrocardiograms mostly detect the electrical activity of the left ventricle, and if there is a problem on the right ventricle, it might be hard to confirm it with this procedure, so the best option is to complement it with echocardiography since it gives an image of the right ventricle walls.
Answer: The correct answer to the question is option A
ELECTROCARDIOGRAM
Explanation: Right sided heart failure is otherwise known as pulmonary heart disease or cor pulmonale.
In a healthy heart,deoxygenated blood enters the right atrium through the superior and inferior vena cava,the right atrium contracts opening the tricuspid valve and making way for the blood to empty into the right ventricle.the right ventricle further contracts and the pulmonary valve opens,the deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle goes into the pulmonary trunk and into the right and left pulmonary artery,the right and left pulmonary artery empties the deoxygenated blood into the right and left lungs for gaseous exchange.(oxygenation)
When the right side of the heart is diseased,there will be a failure in carrying out the above stated functions.
Right sided heart failure is simply defined as the inability of the right side of the heart to take-up or pump deoxygenated blood into the lungs for oxygenation.
The sign and symptoms if right sided heart failure are mainly lethergy, dyspnea, fatigue and oedema.
Electrocardiogram is one of the diagnostic procedure for right sided heart failure,it will reveal an impairment in the heart rate and rythym and also an impairment in pulmonary artery pressure.