Your best friend eats plenty of meats and dairy products but avoids eating fruits and vegetables. She bruises easily, her sores take a long time to heal, and her gums bleed when she brushes her teeth. Based on this information, which of the following nutrients is most likely to be deficient in her diet? a. Vitamin A b. Vitamin B-6 c. Vitamin E d. Vitamin D e. Vitamin C

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

vitamin c hope this helped


Related Questions

In prokaryotes, there are no membrane-bound organelles and no nuclear membranes. In addition, there are no mitochondria. Where are the electron transport chain and the ATP synthase working? What physical place are they in a prokaryotic cells?

Answers

Answer:

Prokaryotes lack membrane-bound organelle like mitochondria and chloroplast which is used by eukaryotes to synthesize ATP but ATP synthesis also takes place in prokaryotes. The electron transport chain and ATP synthetase of prokaryotic cells are embedded in the cell's plasma membrane of the prokaryotes.

The ATP synthesis in prokaryotes is similar to eukaryotes. NADH releases electrons to the electron carriers that are embedded in the plasma membrane which causes the translocation of H+ ions to the cell membrane outer face against the concentration gradient.

Then these electrons pass through the ATP synthetase which generates ATP for prokaryotic cell. So cell membrane is the physical place where ETC and ATP synthetase are present.

In garden peas, the yellow seed trait is dominant over green seeds. Also, the round seed trait is dominant over the wrinkled-seed trait. These genes are on separate chromosomes. Suppose that two plants that are heterozygous for both traits are crossed and 720 offspring are produced. About how many progeny will be yellow with round seeds?Select one:
a. 405
b. 180
c. 360
d. 60
e. 540

Answers

Answer:

405

Explanation:

Gregor Mendel worked with pea plant and observed the inheritance of seed colour and shape in the plant. This is a dihybrid cross involving two genes; one coding for seed colour and the other for seed shape. The allele for yellow seed (Y) is dominant over green (y) in the first gene, while the allele for round seed (R) is dominant over wrinkled seed (r) in the second gene.

When Mendel crossed truebreeds i.e. homozygous parents, he got a F1 generation which is heterozygous for both traits (YyRr). He crossed two heterozygous plants, and according to the law of independent assortment, four possible chromosome combinations of gametes were produced viz: YR, Yr, yR, yr.

Mendel discovered that from a cross involving two hybrid genes, 16 variations were possible. In the genetic make-up, the kinds of F2 offsprings possible from this dihybrid cross are; Yellow round, Yellow wrinkled, Green round and Green wrinkled in a theoretical ratio 9:3:3:1 respectively.

According to the question, 720 offsprings were produced. Therefore, to get the number of progeny with yellow round seeds, the ratio will be used.

The ratio of yellow round seeds in Mendel's dihybrid cross is 9/16, hence, among 720 offsprings, we will have about- 9/16 × 720 = 405 pea plants with yellow and round seeds.

Final answer:

Approximately 405 out of 720 offspring from a dihybrid cross of heterozygous garden pea plants (for yellow and round seed traits) are expected to exhibit both dominant yellow and round seed traits, based on the 9:3:3:1 Mendelian phenotypic ratio.

Explanation:

In the scenario where garden peas that are heterozygous for both yellow seed (dominant) and round seed (dominant) traits are crossed, we are looking at a dihybrid cross. Based on the principles of Mendelian genetics, we can predict the phenotypic ratios of the offspring's traits. For such a cross, the phenotypic ratio is typically 9:3:3:1 for the combinations of the two traits when both parents are heterozygous.

When we have a dihybrid cross (RrYy × RrYy), the proportion of offspring that are expected to express both dominant traits (yellow and round seeds) is 9/16. Given that 720 offspring are produced, we calculate the number expected to have yellow and round seeds by multiplying the total number of offspring by the expected proportion:

(9/16) × 720 = 405

Thus, the correct answer is option (a), which is approximately 405 progeny with yellow and round seeds.

Which statement is true about evolutionary success? a) A successful organism can find food, escape predators, and reproduce. b) Vertebrates are the most evolutionarily successful. c) Any species that arises on earth is evolutionarily successful. d) Humans are the crowning achievement of evolution. e) Darwin said that some species are better than others.

Answers

Final answer:

A successful organism's ability to find food, escape predators, and reproduce encapsulates true evolutionary success, emphasizing survival and reproductive capabilities over any species-ranking metrics.

Explanation:

The true statement about evolutionary success is a) A successful organism can find food, escape predators, and reproduce. Evolutionary success is assessed by an organism's ability to survive and continue its lineage through reproduction.

The success of an organism is not influenced by an inherent ranking of species or the belief that humans are the peak of evolution; rather, it depends on adaptability and the ability to thrive within specific environmental conditions. Concepts such as evolvability, the struggle for existence, and inherited variations reinforce the understanding that an organism's reproductive success is the true measure of its evolutionary fitness.

In the lizard species L. vivipara, most females from the colder, mountainous part of the range live much longer than do individuals from warmer, lowland regions. Compared to the lowlands, what life-history trait is expected in lizards living in the mountains?
A. Equivalent fecundity
B. Increased fecundity
C. Decreased fecundity

Answers

Answer:

C Decreased fecundity

Explanation:

Decreased fecundity.

Fecundity is nothing but the ability to reproduce.

Lizards living in colder climates cannot reach the body size required for reproduction. As a result, they invest available energy to increase the body size as a result of which, they enter reproduction later.

Mucosae of a healthy intestinal tract _____. (Select all that apply.)
A. have a large number of activated T and B cells
B. harbor T cells bearing a very wide diversity of antigen specificities
C. contain intraepithelial lymphocytes
D. have large numbers of resident neutrophils
E. are populated with both α:β and γ:δ effector T cells.

Answers

Answer:

Option (A), (C) and (D).

Explanation:

A mucosa is the membrane that mainly lines the body cavities and covers the internal surface organ of the body. The mucosa is present in the whole intestinal tract.

This mucosa plays an important role in the immunity of the organisms. The mucosa contains both the B cells and T cells that plays an important role in humoral immunity and cell mediated immunity. The neutrophils plays an important role in the inflammation and also phagocytose the cell.

Thus, the correct answer is option (A), (C) and (D).

True / False: The peripheral receptors located under the skin are very sensitive to to temperature changes and only provide feedback on to the hypothalamus (select one word answer only please).

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

There are several specialized peripheral sensory neurons that are present beneath the skin known as nociceptors that are responsible for producing impulses whenever a dangerous stimulus such as extremely high or low temperature or pressure, chemical exposure, etc.  is felt at the skin. The impulses produced are converted to long-range electrical signals and then transmitted to the brain cells for action

Hence, the given statement is true

An advantage of gas exchange in fresh water, compared with gas exchange in air, is that _____.
a. water usually contains a higher concentration of oxygen than air
b. ventilation requires less energy in water
c. the respiratory surface does not have to be as extensive in water
d. water is easier to move over the respiratory surface
e. water loss through evaporation across the respiratory surface can be minimized

Answers

Final answer:

Water loss through evaporation is minimized during gas exchange in fresh water, which is advantageous for aquatic organisms. They use gills to facilitate the diffusion of oxygen from water to their bloodstream or coelomic fluid, ensuring efficient gas exchange even though oxygen's concentration is lower in water than in air.

Explanation:

An advantage of gas exchange in fresh water, compared with gas exchange in air, is that water loss through evaporation across the respiratory surface can be minimized. This is significant because, unlike the air environment, organisms living in water do not face the challenge of keeping their respiratory surfaces moist to facilitate diffusion. In aquatic environments, oxygen dissolves in water but at a lower concentration than in the air. Freshwater organisms like fish utilize gills, which are thin, highly branched, and folded tissue filaments that provide a large surface area for the diffusion of oxygen into the bloodstream or coelomic fluid, depending on the organism.

Gas exchange in water involves the movement of oxygen from areas of higher concentration in the water to areas of lower concentration in the blood or coelomic fluid. The water passing over the gills allows aquatic organisms to take up the dissolved oxygen needed for survival, and the gills ensure this process is efficient despite the comparatively lower concentration of oxygen in water.

What would most likely be the outcome to planar cell polarity if calcium were removed from the tissue?

Answers

Answer:

If calcium were removed from the tissue then the polarity will be established within the cell but polarity will be lost in the tissue.

Explanation:

Cell polarity is the cellular components like cytoplasm, plasma membranes and other various cell organelles in the asymmetric order. The coordinated arrangement of this cell polarity in tissue plane is called as planar cell polarity (PCP). Calcium is the major component in the tissues that helps in formation of bones and other parts of body, if it is removed then the polarity will not be seen in the tissue, but in the cell the polarity will be established.

Identify the structure that allows light to first enter the eye.

Answers

Answer:

Cornea

Explanation:

The first part of eye through which light enters into the eyes is cornea. Cornea comes in front of the pupil and iris and is made up of transparent layer. It is a curved structure just like a normal glass lenses and hence is able to focus light on retina. It also protects the eyes.  Cornea along with anterior chamber is responsible for 67 percent of the optical power of eye and sends the light towards the pupil.  

What are population dynamics?
a) Number of individuals born each year in a population.
b) Changes in populations through time.
c) Proportion of individuals at each possible age.
d) Regular fluctuations in the population size of some animals.

Answers

Answer: Changes in populations through time.

Explanation: Population dynamics is defined as the study of certain population as regards it's age composition and size and factors that influence the population such as the death and birth rate of the population.

What abiotic factors determine the type of terrestrial biome? Why is the tropical rainforest the most diverse terrestrial biome? Put the zones of freshwater lakes and ponds in order of most sunlight to least sunlight: profundal, littoral, limnetic. Why do different biomes have different plant and animal species?

Answers

The abiotic factors that determine the type of terrestrial biome are sunlight, wind, rainfall, humidity, level of pollution etc.

Tropical rainforest is the most diverse terrestrial biome because of the availability of enough rainfall and sunlight.

Littoral, limnetic, profundal.

Different biomes have  different plant and animal species because they have different abiotic factors.

Explanation:

Abiotic factors like temperature, amount of sunlight, rainfall, humidity , level of pollution etc can determine the type of biome. Tropical rainforests are located at the tropical regions which receive greater amount of sunlight and rainfall. Availability of sunlight and rainfall in plenty supports diverse life forms making the tropical rainforests the most diverse terrestrial biome.

The   zones of freshwater lakes and ponds arranged in terms of maximum sunlight availability to minimum sunlight availability is littoral, limnetic, profundal. Littoral zone is the region nearest to the shore and receives maximum amount of sunlight. Limnetic zone doesn’t receive sunlight till the bottom.

Profundal zone is underwater and covered by mud and thus receives minimal amount of sunlight.The species of plants and animals that can be found in a biome depends on the conditions of the biome. Several abiotic factors are crucial in determining the type of a biome.

Thus two different biomes will have different species types as well.

Answer:

The abiotic factors that determine a terrestrial biome are weather, climate, latitude and amount of sunlight an area receives, and nutrients available.

The amount of precipitation and the warm climate in the tropical rainforest support more organisms in that area. There are fewer limiting factors in the tropical rainforest.

The order of most to least sunlight is littoral zone, limnetic zone, and profundal zone.

Biomes are different because of their differing latitude, climate, weather, amount of sunlight, and precipitation. All organisms have a range of tolerance for the temperature, amount of sunlight, and precipitation in which they can survive.

Explanation:

Penn Foster

You have learned that the fusion of egg and sperm produces a zygote. But how does the sperm reach the egg, and how does the zygote develop into a seed, which eventually germinates and grows into a mature sporophyte? In this activity, you will demonstrate your understanding of double fertilization and seed development in angiosperms.
Drag the statements to their appropriate locations on the flowchart of pollination, fertilization, and seed development.
a. pollen tube grows down the style
b. generative, cell divides, forming 2 sperm
c. 2 sperm are discharged into the female gametophyte
d. sperm fuse with the egg & 2 polar nuclei
e. zygote forms & divides into a terminal cell & a basal cell
f. cells of the embryo differentiate into three tissue types

Answers

Answer:

Pollination: a. pollen tubes grow down the style.

Fertilization: c. 2 sperm are discharged into the female gametophyte.

                      d. sperm fuse with the egg & 2 polar nuclei

Seed development: b. generative, cell divides, forming 2 sperm.

                                e. zygote forms & divides into a terminal cell & a basal cell

                                f. cells of the embryo differentiate into three tissue types

Explanation:

Fertilization is the fusion of one or more sperm with an egg or the female gametophyte in the case of vegetables as option C and D describes.

Pollination is the process that flower plants use to reproduce with the help of insects that transport pollen from one flower to other depositing it in the pollen tubes that grow down the style in order to connect with the ovary of the flower as option A describes.

As regards seed development once that the fertilization is finished the seed starts to grow as option E and F describes. Option B describes the development of sperms, this process occurs before fertilization and through mitosis and meiosis.

Why does pulse (and breathing rate) increase during exercise? (relate to cellular respiration)

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

During exercise, the rate of breathing increases in order to fulfill the needs of oxygen required by the body for the release pf energy required.  The body activity and muscles are in movement and required more energy than at rest.  The absorbance of oxygen in to the blood increases which will increase the heart beat and also carbon dioxide starts removing from the blood.  the lungs  must provide more oxygen to the blood during the exercise.

so as the activity level increases, the demand for oxygen increase which will increase the breathing to take in more oxygen from outside in to lungs so that the lungs pump more oxygen to the hearth which will deliver to the muscles for activity.

Final answer:

Pulse and breathing rates increase during exercise to meet the higher oxygen demands of the muscles and repay the oxygen debt incurred. This heightened respiratory activity is due to several neural and chemical factors, including the immediate neural response to exercise and the need to restore cellular ATP. Breathing remains elevated post-exercise until the body's oxygen levels are normalized.

Explanation:

During exercise, the body's demand for oxygen increases to support the intensified activity of the muscles. This increased demand leads to an oxygen debt, a condition where the body needs more oxygen than what has been supplied during the exercise. To meet this demand and repay the oxygen debt, there is a rise in pulse and breathing rate.

The increased breathing rate or hyperpnea, which includes both an increased rate and depth of breathing, ensures that more oxygen is taken into the lungs and transported to the muscles, while more carbon dioxide is expelled. This response is driven by several factors, including the body's immediate neural responses to exercise involving psychological stimuli, activation of motor neurons, and stimulation of proprioceptors, as well as the need to restore ATP and creatine phosphate levels, convert lactic acid to pyruvic acid, and maintain appropriate blood pH levels.

Feather color in budgies is determined by two different genes, Y and B, one for pigment on the outside and one for the inside of the feather. YYBB, YyBB, YYBb or YyBb is green; yyBB or yyBb is blue; YYbb or Yybb is yellow; and yybb is white.
A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie. Which of the following results is possible?

A) Green offspring only
B) Yellow offspring only
C) Blue offspring only
D) Green and yellow offspring
E) a 9:3:3:1 ratio

Answers

Answer:

Blue offspring only

Explanation:

If A blue budgie is crossed with a white budgie.

i.e yyBB or yyBb × yybb

let use yyBb for blue budgie,so we have; yB, yb, yB, yb representing the columns on the horizontal rows of the punnet square.

on the other hand, in white budgie yybb, we will have yb, yb, yb, yb representing the rows on the vertical column of the punnet square.

if a dihybrid cross occurs among these representative, all progeny in the punnet square will be yyBb, showing that they are all Blue offspring only.

Option D) Green and yellow offspring

The possible outcome of crossing a blue budgie (genotype yybb) with a white budgie (genotype yybb) is green and yellow offspring.

When a blue budgie (yybb) is crossed with a white budgie (yybb), all the offspring will have the genotype Yybb, resulting in a green feather color.

However, when a blue budgie (yybb) is crossed with a white budgie (yybb), there is a possibility of producing offspring with the genotype YYbb or Yybb, resulting in a yellow feather color.

Therefore, the possible outcomes are green and yellow offspring, represented by option D.

Displacement of brain tissue under the falx cerebri or through the tentorial notch of the tentorium cerebelli is termed ____, and occurs with elevated ICP in one brain compartment with displacement of cerebral tissue toward an area of ___ pressure.

Answers

Brain herniation is displacement of brain tissue under the falx cerebri under the area of less pressure.

Brain herniation

Less

Explanation:

Brain herniation is disorder it occur due to the displacement of the cerebra in the brain.  It is potentially deathly disorder when brain affected by high temperature or squeezing of the brain across the structure.

The tentorium is the dual fold in the brain, then it  is an extension of the dura matter that separates cerebellum from cerebrum. There are two major types of herniation in the brain; that is supratentorial and infratentorial. The supretentorial is seen above the Tentorial notch.

Desmosomes connects keratinocytes to each other. Why is this important?

Answers

Answer:

Desmosomes as structured are two adjacent attached cells formed in the cell membranes from protein plaques while connected by filaments. The function of separating an organism from its environment is performed by epithelial keratinocytes.

To protect the organism, the keratinocytes are connected by the desmosome filaments through adherence. The adhered keratinocyte / desmosome connection produces prekeratin, a fibrous protein that adds to the epidermis a soluble structure

A news article discussing the evolution of domestic dogs from wolves included this statement: "On its way from pack-hunting carnivore to fireside companion, dogs learned to love or at least live on wheat, rice, barley, corn, and potatoes." What is a more scientifically accurate way to state what happened with dogs?

Answers

Answer:

The answer is evolutionary purpose.

Explanation:

Some wolves may have had variants in their digestion that allowed them to eat wheat, rice, barley, corn, and potatoes, and so they were able to survive with humans.

Match the following. 1. the condition of having gametes similar in shape, but different in size gymnosperm 2. the condition of having anisogametes gonad 3. the part of the stamen of a flower that bears the pollen antheridium 4. an organ in simpler plants that produces sperm cells isogamete 5. an organ in lower vascular plants, gymnosperms, mosses, and liverworts which produces an egg cell motile 6. a reproductive organ of gymnosperms having a central axis with radiate scales and bracts; can either produce pollen or ovules anisogamy 7. an act of fertilization involving the transfer of cell contents to another cell; usually occurs in simpler organisms flagellum 8. a large gamete with stored food anther 9. a long, whip-like structure extending from a cell used for locomotion cone 10. an organ of lower plants, some protists and some fungi that produces gametes gametangium 11. gamete producing organs in animals anisogamete 12. cone-bearing plant; often called evergreen conjugation 13. incapable of independent movement immotile 14. gametes that are the same in size and shape aronium 15. capable of independent movement

Answers

Answer:

The correct match is given below:

Explanation:

The condition of having gametes similar in shape, but different in size – anisogametes.The condition of having anisogametes - anisogamyThe part of the stamen of a flower that bears the pollen – antherAn organ in simpler plants that produces sperm cells – antheridium An organ in lower vascular plants, gymnosperms, mosses, and liverworts which produces an egg cell - archegonium A reproductive organ of gymnosperms having a central axis with radiate scales and bracts; can either produce pollen or ovules – cone An act of fertilization involving the transfer of cell contents to another cell; usually occurs in simpler organisms – conjugation A large gamete with stored food - Egg A long, whip-like structure extending from a cell used for locomotion-  Flagellum An organ of lower plants, some protists and some fungi that produces gametes - gametangium Gamete producing organs in animals – gonads Cone-bearing plant; often called evergreen – GymnospersIncapable of independent movement - immotile  Gametes that are the same in size and shape - isogametes Capable of independent movement- motile

Final answer:

In biology, isogamy involves identical gametes, whereas anisogamy features distinct male and female gametes, typically larger eggs and smaller sperm. A gametophyte is a life stage that produces gametes, and a sporophyte produces spores leading to gametophyte development in plants.

Explanation:

The terms provided are fundamental to understanding plant reproduction and life cycles in biology. Isogamy refers to the production of gametes that are equal in size and shape, while anisogamy, also known as oogamy, involves gametes of different sizes and shapes, typically a larger non-motile egg and smaller motile sperm. The gametophyte is the plant or phase in the plant's life cycle that produces gametes.

Gametangium is the structure within which gametes are produced, commonly found in multicellular protists, algae, fungi, and the gametophytes of plants. The sporophyte is the diploid phase that bears a sporangium, which produces spores that will develop into gametophytes, leading to sexual reproduction through the production of male and female gametes.

Phytoplankton use sunlight to gain energy through photosynthesis. As a result of the Law of Conservation of Energy, phytoplankton cannot gain more energy than it consumes. A closed system consisting of an aquarium, phytoplankton, and sunlight is set up. Which of the following methods would best demonstrate the Law of Conservation of Energy? (3 points)
A) Measure the mass and temperature of the water. Then cover the aquarium to block the sunlight and measure the mass of the phytoplankton.
B) Change the closed system to isolated, so that energy can move out of it. Then measure the amount of energy that leaves.
C) Measure the mass of the phytoplankton before and after photosynthesis. Add the mass of the water.
D) Measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton and the amount of light entering the aquarium. Then measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton after exposure to the light and determine the difference.
E) Measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton and the amount of light entering the aquarium. Then measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton after exposure to the light and determine the difference.

Answers

Measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton and the amount of light entering the aquarium. Then measure the amount of energy in the phytoplankton after exposure to the light and determine the difference.

Explanation:

Phytoplanktons like most of the plants use chlorophyll, sunlight and carbon di-oxide for photosynthesis but it depends on other organisms to consume extra energy as they are unable to gain enough energy from their consumption of light. This differs among the different species of planktons.

It can be observed in an aquarium that a phytoplankton is gaining less energy than the energy they have absorbed by the light and this can be done by measuring the energy before and after the photosynthesis.



How did the lab activities help you answer the lesson question: How does human activity affect Earth’s freshwater resources? What did you learn from conducting this lab?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

In the lab, I observed how pollutants affect the pH of lakes and groundwater. Pollutants that result from human activity such as using soap and citric acid can change the pH of water. If the pH of the water changes, it might not be safe for people to drink that water or for organisms to live in it. I also learned that the pollution in a lake can end up in groundwater. Even though the soil can filter some pollutants and the water may look clean, its quality may not be good.

Answer:

      In the l learned three main three main things that influence the freshwater available on earth: PH, pollutants and factory usage.

Explanation:

     The first thing, PH, is really influenced by the way the pollutants are discarded, for example, if a factory decides to throw their pollutants inside a very good and not polluted river, this river will change how it chemically works, and through that, the PH will change, it can turn into a more acid or basic river, depending on the components that were thrown there.

      I learned from conducting this lab that every act of the human race affects the environment as a whole, and the main thing to pay attention to in this experiment is that, everything is linked to one another in some way.

Homologous structures (Group of answer choices):

A. are also called analogous structures.
B. have identical functions.
C. are shared by organisms of the same genus.
D. have fully divergent functions.
E. are often shared by organisms in the same line of descent.

Answers

A are also called analogous structures

Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) and acetylcholinesterase degrades ACh in the synapse. If a neurophysiologist applies onchidal (a naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor produced by the mollusk Onchidella binneyi) to a synapse, what would you expect to happen?

Answers

The question is incomplete. The complete question is:

Motor neurons release the neurotransmitter acetylcholine (ACh) and acetylcholinesterase degrades ACh in the synapse. If a neurophysiologist applies onchidal (a naturally occurring acetylcholinesterase inhibitor produced by the mollusk Onchidella binneyi) to a synapse, what would you expect to happen?

A) paralysis of muscle tissue

B) convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation

C) decrease in the frequency of action potentials

D) no effect

Answer:

B. convulsions due to constant muscle stimulation

Explanation:

In response to an action potential, acetylcholine released at the neuromuscular junction or synapse. The release of acetylcholine is followed by its binding to the receptors in the motor endplate and finally triggering a muscle action potential which in turn leads to muscle contraction. Termination of activity of acetylcholine (Ach) is mediated by acetylcholinesterase which destroys ACh and thereby prevents firing of another muscle action potential.

If acetylcholinesterase inhibitor is administered to a synapse, acetylcholine will keep on triggering the muscle action potential causing continuous muscle contraction and irregular body movements (convulsions).

"Outline the process of_________.a. in vitro fertilisation including down-regulation.b. superovulation".c. harvesting.d. fertilization.e. implantation.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is letter A.

Explanation:

In virto fertilisation is a reproductive process, in which, embryos are produced after the extraction of the egg and the sperm from the childless couple.

First the woman is submited to a threatment to stop her menstrual cycle, then the doctor puts her under hormones threatment to estimulate her ovaries to develop follicles. After this step, a HCG is injected at her, so that the doctor can collect the eggs.

The man provide his semen after ejaculating in a dispenser. The physicians mix the egg and the semen and check if the fertilisation has been successful.

If the result is positive, the embryos are implanted inside of the woman's uterus.

After a few weeks the woman should take a pregancy test to confirm the pregnancy.

1. A _____ is placed at the beginning of the word (applies always).2. A _____ is placed at the end of the word (applies always).3. The _____ plane divides the body into front and back portions.4. Adip/o means _____ .5. The main shaft-like portion of a long bone is known as the _____ .6. The prefix ecto- means _____ .7. A medical scientist who specializes in the study of tissues is a _____ .8. The prefix hydro- means _____ .9. The outer layer of the skin that contains no blood or nerve supply is the _____ .10. The suffix that means blood condition is _____ .11. The suffix that means pregnancy is _____ .12. The three layers of protective membranes that surround the brain and spinal cord are known as the _____ .13. The middle, muscular layer of the heart is the _____ .14. The _____ is a pear-shaped, hollow, muscular organ that houses the fertilized implanted ovum as it develops throughout pregnancy.15. Another name for fever is _____ .

Answers

Answer:Answer:

1.prefix

2. Suffix.

3. The coronal plane.

4. Adipo means fatty tissues.

5. Diaphysis.

6. Ecto means external.

7. Pathologist.

8. Prefix hydro means water.

9. The dermis.

10. emia.

11. Cyesis.

12. The dura mater, arachnoid mater and the pia mater.

13. The myocardium.

14. Uterus or womb.

15. Pyrexia

Explanation:

1. Prefix is added at the beginning of the word.

2. Suffix is placed at the end of the word.

2. Coronal plane is the plane that divides the body into dorsal and ventral portion(front and back).

4. Adipo means fat or fatty tissues.

5. Diaphysis is the shaft of long bone. It is made of cortical tissues and contains bone marrow and adipose tissues.

6. Ecto means external or outside.

7. Pathologist is a scientist that specialized in the study of body tissues. Histopathology is the study of diseased tissues.

8. Hydro means water.

9. The dermis is the outer layer of the skin that contains blood and nerve supply. It is water proof and is a defence against infection.

10. Emia is a suffix that means blood condition. Anaemia means absence of blood and hypervolemia means too much of blood.

11. Cyesis means pregnancy and its a stage between fertilization and birth.

12. The meninges is the layer that surrounds the brain and the spinal cord. It consist of three layers which are dura mater, arachnoid mater and pia mater.

13. The myocardium is the external muscular layer of the heart that contains the cardiac muscle tissues. It also take part in pumping of blood.

14. The uterus or womb is a peer shaped muscular organ of female reproductive system that house the implant ovum as its develop through out the pregnancy period.

15. Pyrexia or febile response is when the temperature of the body is higher than the normal body temperature due to increased body temperature.

The fossil record resembles the living species in the same geographic area. How does this pattern support the theory of evolution by natural selection?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be- species can change over time (assuming options are present)

Explanation:

The theory of evolution by natural selection by Charles Darwin suggests that species adapt to the changing environment and as a result changes over time.

The remnants of the organism that lived on the Earth gets buried under the earth and gets preserved. These preserved remnants of the organism are called the fossils which are collected and studied to understand the history of life on earth.

If the fossils collected on earth in a geographic area resembles the living species of the same geographic area provides a clue to the theory of natural selection suggesting that species can change over time as a result of natural selection.

The brain area that regulates activities that control the state of wakefulness or alertness of the cerebral cortex is the :a. reticular formationb. pyramidsc. limbic systemd. thalamus

Answers

Answer:

a. reticular formation

Explanation:

The reticular formation is the functional system that spans the brain stem. It is composed of loosely clustered neurons present in white matter. The function of reticular formation is to regulate sensory input to the cerebral cortex and cortical arousal. It is also involved in the control of motor behavior.

Some of the neurons of the part of the reticular formation are known as the reticular activating system (RAS). These neurons send a continuous stream of impulses to the cerebral cortex and thereby keep the cortex alert and conscious. The impulses from RAS of reticular formation enhance the excitability of the cerebral cortex.

The impulses coming from all the great ascending sensory tracts also synapse with RAS neurons and serve to keep them active and enhance their stimulating effect on the cerebral cortex.

Brian often interrupts his teacher while she is speaking and frequently forgets to complete his homework assignments. He also has difficulty taking turns in playground games with classmates. Brian most clearly exhibits symptoms of

Answers

Answer:

ADHD (attention deficit hyperactivity disorder)

Explanation:

ADHD is a neurodevelopmental disorder in which a person often acts inappropriately with regards to his age, has difficulty paying attention to things and often acts without taking into consideration the consequences of his/her actions. A person suffering from this syndrome exhibits symptoms that are often noticed in the school, home or during recreational activities such as playground games and mostly before 12 years of age. The child also shows restlessnesss and hyperactive behavior. Since Brain exhibits all these symptoms - hyperactivity (interrupts the teacher), forgets homework (lack of attention) and difficulty taking turns in playground games, he is most probably suffering from ADHD.

A scientist is using a ­computer model to predict changes to a population of ­rabbits in a meadow. Identify the information about the rabbit population that should be included in the computer model.

Answers

Answer:

In the mentioned case, the intrinsic and environmental factors influencing the size of the population should also be included in the computer model. The population size is primarily predicted by environmental and intrinsic factors.  

The size of the population of any species is monitored by the factors like birth rate, death rate, limiting factors, and their accessibility, carrying capacity of the system, rate of migration, and others. All these elements should be taken into consideration in order to determine the changes observed in the population of rabbits in a meadow.  

New biosensors, applied like a temporary tattoo to the skin, can alert serious athletes that they are about to "hit the wall" and find it difficult to continue exercising. These biosensors monitor lactate, a form of lactic acid, released in sweat during strenuous exercise.
Which of the statements below is the best explanation of why athletes would need to monitor lactate levels?
A. During anaerobic respiration, lactate levels increase when muscles cells need more energy, however muscles cells eventually fatigue, thus athletes should modify their activities to increase aerobic respiration.
B. During aerobic respiration, muscles cells produce too much lactate which causes a rise in the pH of the muscle cells, thus athletes must consume increased amounts of sports drinks, high in electrolytes, to buffer the pH.
C. During anaerobic respiration, muscle cells receive too little oxygen and begin to convert lactate to pyruvate (pyruvic acid), thus athletes experience cramping and fatigue
D. During aerobic respiration, muscle cells cannot produce enough lactate to fuel muscle cell contractions and muscles begin to cramp, thus athletic performance suffers.

Answers

Answer:

The answer is letter A.

Explanation:

During anaerobic respiration, lactate levels increase when muscles cells need more energy, however muscles cells eventually fatigue, thus athletes should modify their activities to increase aerobic respiration.

A patient who was on chemotherapy is taking a new medication, which is available in a pre-filled syringe and is given subcutaneously.
Which statement by the patient during an assessment helps the nurse individualize the teaching plan?
"I used to administer subcutaneous injection to my father."
"I was instructed to take this medication the very next day after chemotherapy."
"I learned that this medication helps me reduce the risk of decreased immunity."
"A friend of mine who is undergoing chemotherapy was also prescribed this.

Answers

Answer:

"A friend of mine who is undergoing chemotherapy was also prescribed this.

Explanation:

it is a supporting statement

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