Except when used by the originator of the psychotherapy notes, they can't be used without the individual's authorization.
The true statements is except when used by the originator of the psychotherapy notes, they can't be used without the individual's authorization because, while it is true that psychotherapy notes should be held with considerable attention, and they cannot be used without the individual’s authorization, they can be used in specific situation if they are used by the originator of the notes.
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C. every patient a doctor treats.
A notice of use and disclosure is required for every patient a doctor treats. No matter what info or disease the doctor may cure, the notice must be done in every case, because health data are confidential and personal data that are important to keep private in the best way possible.
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A. declarant must be deceased.
One requirement of the business records exception to the hearsay rule is that the declarant must be deceased. The business records exception to the U.S. hearsay rule is based on Rule 803(6) of the Federal Rules of Evidence (FRE). It is sometimes referred to as the business entry rule.
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D. Some HIV tests can provide results in as little as 20 minutes.
The statements about HIV testing that is true is that some HIV tests can provide results in as little as 20 minutes. Rapid tests are available, but at the moment there is still the possibilities of a false positive, so it is possible that a positive test result could be confirmed by a lab using the western blot.
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C. Invoking the work product doctrine
Invoking the work product doctrine is one step that could shield against discovery of an incident report. The work product doctrine it is also known as the work-product rule, the work-product immunity, and the work-product exception. It is sometimes mistakenly called the work-product privilege.
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D. biometrics.
The technology that identifies people through body characteristics is known as biometrics. It refers to metrics related to human characteristics. Biometrics authentication is used in computer science as a form of identification and access control and in groups that are under surveillance.
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C. health care operations
As a part of her recruitment efforts, Margarets needs to review the competence and qualifications of 10 outpatient medical coders who will work from home as part of the assignment. This responsibility would fall under the heading of health care operations for purposes of the HIPAA Privacy Rule. This is what heath operation have as a meaning given such term in section 164.501 of title 45, Code of Federal Regulations.
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B. Limited data sets can contain some identifiers.
A limited data set is a limited set of identifiable patient information. This is the definition given in the Privacy Regulations issued under the Health Insurance Portability and Accountability (HIPAA). These set could be disclosed to an outside party without a patient’s authorization under specific circumstances.
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D. person who creates the data in the record
The person who creates the data in the record is the only person who can authenticate the information in a patient's medical record, because this person has such responsibility under the HIPAA regulation. The person have also other responsibilities under the same code.
John cut chicken to prepare on the stovetop. What should John do next?
put on gloves
prepare serving platters to save time
set the table to make serving time easy
wash his hands
Answer:
wash his hands
Explanation:
When John cut the chicken to prepare it, he used his hands to hold the raw meat and use the necessary spices to prepare it. It all got John's hands dirty. John should not get his hands dirty to get on with his task, because that would mess up so many things and contaminate food. For this reason, John should wash his hands before starting to continue his activities.
Which of the following is not an effective way to prevent heat stress and stroke? A. Wear a minimum of SPF 15 sunscreen. B. Take a 10-minute rest for every 45 minutes of activity. C. Wear loose-fitting clothing that allows sweat to evaporate. D. Drink water before, during, and after a workout.
Answer:
A. Wear a minimum of SPF 15 sunscreen.
Explanation:
One of the main problems that can be caused by heat is thermal stress, which occurs when the body's internal temperature is overloaded and unable to maintain the ideal temperature. In general, any environment or circumstance that exposes the body to heat sources above 35 ° C can cause physical and mental changes in the worker and may even cause stroke.
Some ways to avoid heat stress and stroke are to rest 10 minutes for every 45 minutes of activity, wear loose clothing that allows sweat to evaporate and drink water before, during and after a workout. The use of sunscreens and sunblocks is not effective in avoiding heat stress and stroke, because these products have the sole function of protecting the skin from solar radiation.
"A. Wear a minimum of SPF 15 sunscreen" is not an effective way to prevent heat stress and stroke.
Heat stress often leads to heat stroke. When the body is exposed to too much heat than it can regulate, dehydration sets in and the body temperature goes above the normal body temperature. This results to heat stress.
As a result of heat stress and the inability of the body to control its temperature, organs of the body begin to shut down. When this occurs, heat stroke sets in.
Effective ways to prevent heat stress and stroke includes:
Taking rest at intervals to avoid burnouts.Drinking water often when before, during and after working out to prevent dehydration.Wearing cloths that allows sweat to evaporate which cools the body.All these aims at ensuring the body temperature is kept at favorable limits and also ensure the body is not dehydrate to prevent heat stress and stroke.
However, "A. Wear a minimum of SPF 15 sunscreen" is not an effective way to prevent heat stress and stroke.
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___________ are muscle contusions, meaning damage to soft tissue and blood vessels that cause bleeding underneath the skin. A. Puncture wounds B. Abrasions C. Lacerations D.
Hello. This question is incomplete. The complete question would be:
"___________ are muscle contusions, meaning damage to soft tissue and blood vessels that cause bleeding underneath the skin. A. Puncture wounds B. Abrasions C. Lacerations D. bruise"
Answer:
D. bruise
Explanation:
Hematoma is the accumulation of extravasated blood in a traumatized area, either in an accident or in surgery. That is, a bruise is characterized as muscle bruising, meaning damage to soft tissues and blood vessels that cause bleeding under the skin.
When we strike a part of the body, the superficial blood vessels rupture and the blood spreads under the skin, leaving a purplish trail.
In addition to swelling, the area becomes sore and hot, typical symptoms of the inflammatory process, which is a reaction of the body to stimulate the regeneration of the affected region.
The duration varies from a few days to weeks, depending on the area affected and the proportion, as well as the individual response of each. As it heals, the color changes to a green and yellow tone.
if you can't take your heart rate a good way to recognize that you're exercising effectively is whether or not
(B) If you can't take your heart rate, a good way to recognize that you're exercising efficiently is whether or not it's difficult to have a conversation.
This method relates to the concept of the "talk test," which suggests that during moderate-intensity exercise, you should be able to speak in short sentences but not maintain a full conversation.
Here's why the other options are incorrect:
A. Huffing and puffing is a normal response to exercise, but it doesn't necessarily indicate efficient exercise intensity.
C. Gasping for breath indicates that you're working too hard and may need to slow down.
D. Muscle burn can be a sign of intense exercise, but it's not a reliable indicator of efficient exercise intensity.
Full Question:
If you can't take your heart rate, a good way to recognize that you're exercising efficiently is whether or not
A. you're experiencing a little bit of huffing and puffing.
B. it's difficult to have a conversation.
C. you're gasping for breath.
D. your muscles are burning.
Avoiding high-pressure situations is an abstinence skill. Which of the following is a high-pressure situation?
bringing your date on family outings
spending time with friends who share your values
spending time in public places
being at an unsupervised party
Happens when humans greatly accelerate the input of plant nutrients to a lake.
Which of the following is the correct definition of vitamins?
A. Chemical substances in food that have specific functions in the body, such as providing energy and helping to fight off infections.
B. Nutrients that help the body use proteins, carbohydrates, and fats.
C. The body's primary source of energy.
D. The building blocks of proteins.
The correct definition of vitamins is "Nutrients that help the body use proteins, carbohydrates, and fats.".
What are vitamins?The nutrient that is required by the body in minute amounts to function as well as maintains health Foods made from plants and animals, as well as dietary supplements, have become sources of vitamins. The human body can produce some vitamins from foods.
What are Nutrients?The body requires nutrients including energy, building blocks, and the regulation of bodily functions. In genetic and biochemical characteristics, there will be many six main categories of nutrients carbs, proteins, fats, water, vitamins, but also minerals.
Therefore, the correct definition of vitamins is "Nutrients that help the body use proteins, carbohydrates, and fats.".
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If a person goes unconscious while you are helping him, what should you do?
What are some points to consider when you begin to plan an exercise program? Why is the principle of progression essential to increasing fitness? Name two ways progression can be applied to a fitness program. List the four principles of building fitness. Why is being well-educated in fitness fads so important to your overall health?
When beginning an exercise program, it is important to consider factors such as medical records, if necessary, and clearly define goals to guide the schedule and timing of the program.
The principle of progression is vital for muscle growth as it prompts adaptation to the intensity of exercise. By following this principle, the muscles continuously adapt and new muscle mass can be developed. Without progression, the muscles may plateau, and growth stagnates.
Two ways to apply progression in fitness programs are through arbitrary progression, where a predetermined amount of weight is added regularly, and autoregulatory progressive resistance exercise, which adjusts the load based on performance.
The four principles of fitness are the overload principle, specificity principle, individuality principle, and reversibility principle ("Use it or lose it"). Adhering to these principles maximizes the benefits of an exercise plan.
Being well-educated in fitness principles is essential for health as it helps individuals exercise safely and effectively, avoiding potential injuries. This knowledge enables people to make informed decisions and optimize their overall well-being.
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Infrequent urination, dry skin, and dizziness are all symptoms of __________. A. dehydration B. food poisoning C. heat stroke D. sunburn
Answer: A) dehydration
Explanation: Dehydration is severe health situation in which the lack of fluid is faced by human body due to fluids e.g- water goes out of body quickly after consumption.Body has low fluid level which induces weakness in body while doing normal body functions.
The skin becomes dry due to dehydrated body, eyes become shrunken, feeling of dizziness, low energy, decrease in urination level etc are the indication of dehydration.
Other options are incorrect because food poisoning induces stomach ache,diarrhea due to contaminated and stale food. Heat stroke and sun burn are caused due to long exposure of heat and sun that results in sickness , headache , dizziness and burnt skin, redness ,rashes etc respectively.
Thus, the correct option is option(A).
If someone shows visible signs of body sweat without much exertion she may have overactive ____.
A- sebaceous glands
B- sensory receptors
C- apocrine glands
D- bladder
If your doctor asked you if they take our mosquito has bitten you recently what might she be trying to figure out
Answer:
A. If you have contracted a vector-borne pathogen
Explanation:
Choose all the answers that apply. Recessive genes are _____.
represented by a lower case letter
always masked by dominant genes
only expressed in the absence of a dominant gene
mutated genes
usually harmful traits
When a skeletal muscle contracts, which site undergoes the greatest movement?
A. Origin of the muscle
B. Insertion of the muscle
C. Head of the muscle
D. Belly of the muscle
Final answer:
The greatest movement during a skeletal muscle contraction occurs at the muscle's insertion, as opposed to the origin, which is fixed to a bone and generally does not move. Option B
Explanation:
When a skeletal muscle contracts, the site that undergoes the greatest movement is the muscle's insertion. The insertion is the end of the muscle that is attached to the bone that moves during contraction. In contrast, the origin is the end of the muscle attached to a fixed or stabilized bone and generally does not move as much or at all during contraction. Therefore, the correct answer to the question is B. Insertion of the muscle.
The location of a muscle's insertion and origin can determine various factors such as action (what movement it produces), the force of contraction, muscle name (often based on the origin and insertion points), and the load a muscle can carry.
money in a bank account earning compound interest at an annual percentage rate 3% is an example of exponential growth
Exponential growth is a pattern of data that shows greater increases with passing time. It is growth that increases at a consistent rate. Money in a bank account earning compound interest at an annual percentage rate 3% is an example of exponential growth because each year the feedback from the bank will be higher than the previous.
As you get older, it will become harder to eat whatever you want and maintain a healthy weight. This is because your basal metabolic rate, or BMR, ________ as you age. A. increases B. decreases C. stays the same D. disappears
As you age, your basal metabolic rate (BMR), which is the number of calories your body needs when at rest, decreases. This is because of the natural loss of lean body mass. If calorie consumption remains the same but BMR decreases, this can lead to weight gain.
Explanation:Your basal metabolic rate (BMR) is essentially the number of calories your body needs to perform basic functions while at rest. This includes breathing, circulating blood, and regulating body temperature. As you grow older, your BMR decreases. This is primarily due to a natural loss of lean body mass as you age. When your BMR is lower, your body needs fewer calories to perform these essential functions. Therefore, if you continue to eat the same amount of food as you age without increasing physical activity, you are likely to gain weight as your metabolic rate has slowed.
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Thirty years ago, there were only two common and easily treated STIs.
Please select the best answer from the choices provided.
T
F
Answer:
The answer is True hope it help's :)
Explanation:
Thirty years ago, there were only two common and easily treated STIs. So, this is a True statement.
What is STIs?STI's stands for Sexually transmitted infection. It is transmitted from one person to another through any physical activity . STDs are group of bacteria or viruses which is most common transmitted by physical activity.
There are some symptoms of STI which include:
An unusual discharge from the private partsPain when peeingLumps or skin growths around the private parts or bottomItchy private parts, etc.Some STIs are bacterial and some are from viruses or parasitic. The bacterial are chlamydia, gonorrhoea and syphilis and one parasitic is trichomoniasis. These are generally curable with existing single-dose regimens of antibiotics
Thus, thirty years ago, there were only two common and easily treated STIs. So, this is a True statement.
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Jessie is baking a batch of popovers. Which leavening agent should she use?
A) Baking soda
B) Steam
C) Yeast
D) Sourdough starter
Answer:
Steam
Explanation:
I got it right on my Plato test
What is the purpose of creating federal laws and policies for tobacco use? Check all that apply.
help people stop using tobacco products
limit the health effects linked to tobacco use
prevent youth from starting to use tobacco products
implement health promotion events to fight tobacco use
monitor the trends in tobacco use across demographics
Lee is sound asleep but awakens easily when his dog begins to whine at the first sign of smoke. Which part of the brain is responsible for waking Lee?
The part of the brain that is responsible for waking Lee is the reticular activating system.
The reticular activating system is the network of neurons which runs from the spinal cord to the thalamus. Its function is to make us alert. It enables us focus and is responsible for our fight-flight and wakefulness. It controls our consciousness.In conclusion, the reticular activating system is responsible for waking Lee.
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What diseases have increased public awareness of infection control over the past few years
Which are internal barriers to seeking help with mental problems? Check all that apply. lack of parent permission embarrassment and shame unaware of the need for help difficulty paying for services cultural and religious conflicts
Final answer:
Internal barriers to seeking help with mental problems include lack of parent permission, embarrassment and shame, unawareness of the need for help, difficulty paying for services, and cultural and religious conflicts.
Explanation:
Internal barriers to seeking help with mental problems include lack of parent permission, embarrassment and shame, unawareness of the need for help, difficulty paying for services, and cultural and religious conflicts. These barriers can often prevent individuals from reaching out for the support and treatment they need. For example, someone may feel embarrassed or ashamed about their mental health struggles and therefore hesitate to seek help. Additionally, cultural and religious beliefs may discourage seeking professional assistance for mental health issues.
The correct options are B & C. Internal barriers to seeking help with mental problems include embarrassment and shame, and being unaware of the need for help.
Internal barriers to seeking help with mental problems often involve embarrassment and shame, which can make individuals reluctant to open up.
People might feel self-conscious about their issues or fear judgment from others. Being unaware of the need for help can prevent individuals from seeking support. They might not recognize the severity of their symptoms or may not understand that professional help is available and necessary. These internal obstacles can significantly impede the decision to seek mental health support, impacting the effectiveness of addressing and treating mental health issues.The other options are incorrect because:
Option A. Lack of parent permission: This is an external barrier, not an internal one.Option D. Difficulty paying for services: This is a financial barrier, not an internal psychological barrier.Option E. Cultural and religious conflicts: These are external barriers related to societal and cultural contexts, not internal psychological factors.The correct question is:
Which are internal barriers to seeking help with mental problems? Check all that apply.
A. lack of parent permission
B. embarrassment and shame
C. unaware of the need for help
D. difficulty paying for services
E. cultural and religious conflicts
Kieth performs 30 modified push-ups at least 2 times per week to condition his chest muscles, but is finding this to be easier and easier as his body grows stronger. How could Kieth increase the frequency of his workouts?
Answer:
Perform the same workout four times per week.
Explanation:
Because he is comfortable with doing the workout two times per week, he should increase it to four times a week.
How can regular participation in physical activity improve an individual's overall health?
A.
Regular participation in physical activity reduces the risk of developing various diseases.
B.
Regular participation in physical activity allows an individual to function on less sleep.
C.
Regular participation in physical activity reduces the need for a balanced diet.
D.
Regular participation in physical activity prevents an individual from developing certain diseases.
brenda studies frequently for her class in hopes of earning an A in the class. She is trying to keep her grade point average as high as possible. She is motivated by:
Which of these individuals has sedentary lifestyle?
Individuals with a sedentary lifestyle are characterized by prolonged periods of sitting, driving, or using digital devices, leading to health risks such as heart disease and increased mortality rates. Active attempts to introduce moderate-intensity physical activities can mitigate these risks.
Explanation:A person with a sedentary lifestyle is someone who engages in activities that do not meet the physical activity guidelines set by the US Surgeon General's Report, thus increasing their risk of heart disease. This lifestyle often includes prolonged periods of sitting, reclining, or lying down during waking hours. Examples of sedentary behavior include desk-based office work, driving a car, watching television, playing video games, and checking social media.
Sedentary behavior can lead to numerous health risks, including increased risk of overall mortality, cardiovascular disease, and certain types of cancer. Communities that lack walkable or bikeable infrastructure contribute to this issue, as residents are forced to drive, thus increasing sedentarism. Increasing physical activity by incorporating moderate-intensity activities can reduce health risks associated with a sedentary lifestyle.
No matter how much time those with sedentary lifestyles spend in light-intensity activity, it is the moderate-intensity physical activity that counts towards improving health. Hence, those who do not engage in moderate- or vigorous-intensity physical activities are considered inactive.
Essay:early school starts can turn teens into zombies i need to write an essay please help me
The rise or fall in the price of an item is an example of which of the following?
A doctor detects an irregularity in the second part of the heartbeat. Where would the abnormality occur that would cause this irregularity
Final answer:
An irregularity in the second part of the heartbeat detected by a doctor could be due to issues with the heart's electrical conduction system, often related to an ectopic focus or arrhythmia such as a second-degree block. These abnormalities can be seen on an ECG and addressed with medical intervention if necessary.
Explanation:
When a doctor detects an irregularity in the second part of the heartbeat, the abnormality could be occurring in the electrical conduction system of the heart, typically involving either an ectopic focus or ectopic pacemaker, or be a manifestation of arrhythmia. If the irregularity is in the second part of the heartbeat, it likely involves the ventricles, as they are responsible for the latter phases of the heart cycle, specifically the contraction represented by the QRS complex and the T wave in an ECG (electrocardiogram).
An ectopic focus can be stimulated by various factors such as ischemia, certain drugs including caffeine and digitalis, changes in autonomic nervous system stimulation, or disease conditions. If an ectopic focus becomes chronic, it may lead to arrhythmia or fibrillation. As for arrhythmias, these irregular heart rhythms may be too slow (bradycardia), too fast (tachycardia), or simply irregular, and they can have various symptoms or possibly lead to serious complications such as stroke or heart failure if not managed properly. In the context of ECG abnormalities, a second-degree block or partial block might cause a missed QRS complex after a P wave, which could be one example of an irregularity during the second part of the heartbeat.
What are the differences in reimbursement from the insurance depending on which modifiers are appended to the anesthesia service?
All anesthesia services are reported with Current Procedural Terminology (CPT) containing five-digit anesthesia procedure code from 00100 through 01999 and the addition of a physical status modifier. The addition of physical status modifier indicates that the service or procedure has been changed by some specific circumstance, but has not been altered in definition or code.
Moreover, modifier 47 indicates variety of levels of anesthesia, ranging from local through general anesthesia and it is often use by the insurance company on how much they are going to reimburse.