5.
What happens in a condensation reaction?

cross-linking of monomers

head-to-tail joining of monomers

side-by-side joining of monomers

substitution of a halogen on monomers

Final answer:

An electron releases energy by dropping to a lower energy level that is closer to the nucleus. So the correct option is C.

Explanation:

When an electron releases energy, it moves to an energy level that is closer to the atomic nucleus. The correct answer is C: The electron moves to a lower energy level. According to Bohr's Model, as electrons absorb energy, they are able to move to higher energy levels which are further from the nucleus. Conversely, when electrons release energy, they fall back to lower energy levels, which are closer to the nucleus. This is because electrons are attracted to the positive protons in the nucleus, and it takes energy to move them away from the nucleus. When they drop back to a lower energy level, they release energy, often in the form of light, as seen in atomic emission spectra.

Final answer:

A 200.0 g sample of hydrogen sulfide gas would occupy a volume of 133.5 liters at STP.

Explanation:

To calculate the volume that a 200.0 g sample of hydrogen sulfide gas would occupy at STP, we need to use the ideal gas law equation: PV = nRT.

First, we need to convert the mass of hydrogen sulfide (H2S) into moles. The molar mass of H2S is 34.08 g/mol. So, 200.0 g of H2S is equal to 200.0 g / 34.08 g/mol = 5.86 mol.

At STP conditions, the pressure (P) is 1 atm and the temperature (T) is 273 K. We can substitute these values along with the molar amount of hydrogen sulfide (n) into the ideal gas law equation to solve for the volume (V).

V = nRT / P = (5.86 mol)(0.0821 L·atm/mol·K)(273 K) / (1 atm) = 133.5 L

Therefore, a 200.0 g sample of hydrogen sulfide gas would occupy a volume of 133.5 liters at STP.

When you apply for jobs, companies typically require that applicants provide their work history, either on their resume or on a job application, or both.

The job application may ask for information on your most recent jobs, typically two to five positions. Or, the employer may ask for a number of years of experience, typically five to ten years of experience.

Employers generally want information on the company you worked for, your job title, and the dates you were employed there. However, sometimes the employer will ask for a more detailed employment history and more information on the jobs you have held as part of the hiring process. For example, he or she might ask for the name and contact information for your previous supervisors.

Your academic standing is calculated at the end of each term based upon your current and cumulative UCSC GPA. If both your current and cumulative UCSC GPAs are 2.0 or greater, then you are in good academic standing. If either your current or cumulative GPA is less than 2.0, then you are on academic probation. In that event, you should consult with your college academic preceptor about what you need to do to return to good standing. If your current UCSC GPA falls below 1.5 in any term, or if you are already on academic probation and your cumulative UCSC GPA falls below 2.0, then you are subject to disqualification from further enrollment in the university.

Answer:

The correct answer is option A.

Explanation:

Brownian motion is a random motion of particles present in the fluid such as air or liquid.This motion of the particles  is due to collision with fast moving molecules in a fluid.

In colloids , molecules of dispersed phase are in motion due to the fast motion of dispersion medium's particle which imparts motion to these particles of dispersed phase by means of collision.

An incandescent bulb becomes hotter than a fluorescent bulb when turned on because in a regular incandescent bulb, there is tungsten wire where electricity is converts into heat. A regular incandescent light bulb requires 4 times more energy than a fluorescent bulb in order to produce the same amount of light. The conversion is such that for a 75-watt bulb, temperature get raised to approximately 2000 K. For such a high temperature, the radiating energy from the wire have some visible light. In such bulbs, 90% of the electricity get consumed in producing heat and only 10% produces light thus, they are not much efficient source of light.

On the other hand, fluorescent bulbs produce light with less amount of heat. In them, 40% of electricity is consumed in producing light and 60% in heat which is very less as compared to heat produced by a incandescent bulb. This is because when it get turned on, mercury atoms inside the bulb collides with electrons and produce UV light  which is then converted into visible light using thin layer of phosphor power present inside the bulb. This produces low amount of heat thus, the bulb stays cooler, the bigger size of bulb also helps in dispersing heat.

Therefore, a fluorescent light bulb is not as hot as an incandescent light bulb.

Particles in plasmas collide more often, but that does not necessarily give them higher temperature.

Plasma particles have high kinetic energy (they move quickly).

Plasma particles are far apart.

The plasma in a fluorescent bulb has a low density.

The true statement about the periodic table is that metals are found on the left side of the periodic table, and nonmetals are located on the upper right, with a diagonal band of semimetals separating them.

The correct answer to the question "Which sentence about the periodic table of elements is true?" is that metals are found on the left side of the periodic table. This is because the elements can be categorized generally into metals, nonmetals, and semimetals, and it is known that metals occupy the left side of the periodic table. Nonmetals are found primarily on the upper right side, and they are divided from metals by a diagonal band of semimetals. Specifically, Group 1 contains the alkali metals, and Group 2 houses the alkaline earth metals, while Group 17 has the halogens and Group 18 has the noble gases, which are nonmetals.

Answer:

Node

Explanation:

Other examples of nodes include servers, personal computers, hubs switches, modems, and etcetera. These devices must be connected together in a  network such as an Ethernet or WiFi. These nodes are given addresses depending on the communications layer they operate on the network.

A network device is anything that is connected to a network, such as a computer, printer, or gaming console. These devices communicate with each other and the wider world via various networks, with a prime example being a wireless WiFi router.

A network device is any device connected to a network such as a computer, printer, or game console. This refers to any device that can send, receive, or forward information across network segments. Examples of network devices include everything from the personal devices we use every day—like smartphones and laptops—to the high-tech servers that power large-scale internet operations.

Each of these devices, whether it's a state-of-the-art gaming console or a simple printer, is a key part of the wider network it's connected to. These networks enable communication between devices, facilitating the transfer of data and information. Part of what makes these smart technologies attractive is their ability to connect us to one another and to the wider world.

A wireless WiFi router is an example of a network device that uses microwaves to exchange data wirelessly with devices such as cell phones and computers. This signifies how interconnected our devices are, not just to each other, but also to the internet at large.

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True The tiny particles that make up elements are called atoms

Answer: The correct answer is Option A.

Explanation:

Gibbs Free energy is defined as amount of useful work that can be done in the system. It is equal to the enthalpy of the reaction minus the product of entropy of the reaction and absolute temperature.

Mathematically,

[tex]\Delta G=\Delta H-T\Delta S[/tex]

Where,

[tex]\Delta G[/tex] = Gibbs free energy

[tex]\Delta H[/tex] = Enthalpy of the reaction

[tex]\Delta S[/tex] = Entropy of the reaction

T = Absolute temperature

Sign Convention for Gibbs Free energy:

If [tex]\Delta G<0[/tex], it is considered as a Spontaneous reaction.

If [tex]\Delta G>0[/tex], it is considered as a Non-Spontaneous reaction.

If [tex]\Delta G=0[/tex], reaction is in equilibrium.

Hence, the correct answer is Option A.

Final answer:

The change in Gibbs free energy for a spontaneous reaction is ΔG < 0, signaling that the process occurs naturally without external forces, and equilibrium is characterized by ΔG = 0 (Option C).

Explanation:

The change in Gibbs free energy (ΔG) of a spontaneous reaction is described by a negative value, which is option A: ΔG < 0. This negative change indicates a spontaneous process in which a system naturally evolves without external intervention. At equilibrium, ΔG is equal to zero, signifying no net change in the system's state. If ΔG is positive, the reaction is not spontaneous and may only proceed with an input of energy.

These concepts are fundamental in understanding chemical thermodynamics, where ΔG combines enthalpy and entropy changes within a system to determine the spontaneity of reactions under constant temperature and pressure. A spontaneous chemical reaction will have its Gibbs free energy decreasing, typically indicative of exothermic reactions or those that increase the total entropy.

i think it is D) because,

The forces on the wheelbarrow are balanced. Therefore, it cannot accelerate, but it doesn't have to be still.

HOPE THIS HELPS

(T_T)

Answer: a. The pressure will increase.

Explanation:

Boyle's Law: This law states that pressure is inversely proportional to the volume of the gas at constant temperature and number of moles.

[tex]P\propto \frac{1}{V}[/tex]     (At constant temperature and number of moles)

[tex]{P_1V_1}={P_2V_2}[/tex]

where,

[tex]P_1[/tex] = initial pressure of gas

[tex]P_2[/tex] = final pressure of gas

[tex]V_1[/tex] = initial volume of gas

[tex]V_2[/tex] = final volume of gas

Thus as volume of the container will be reduced, the pressure would increase.

Answer:

a. The pressure will increase.

Explanation:

To determine if a molecule is polar, ascertain if it contains polar bonds, draw the Lewis structure to visualize molecular geometry, and confirm if the polar bonds sum up to a net dipole moment. Molecules with a net dipole moment are polar. Geometry of the molecule also plays a key role; polar molecules can turn nonpolar if the geometry causes bond dipoles to cancel each other out.

There are a few steps to determine whether a molecule is polar. Firstly, it is important to determine whether the molecule contains polar bonds, which include ions and atoms with differing electronegativities resulting in a bond dipole moment. A polar bond has a partially positive charge on one atom and a partially negative charge on the other.

Drawing the Lewis structure for the molecule can help to visualize the molecular geometry. According to VSEPR theory, a molecule can be nonpolar if its geometry is structured in a way that the bond dipoles cancel each other out, such as in the case of CO₂ which is linear in shape. The opposite side bonds, even though polar, cancel each other out due to their antiparallel arrangement, making the molecule nonpolar. Nevertheless, in contrast, H2O has a bent shape due to lone pairs on the Oxygen atom, leading to an overall dipole moment therefore making the molecule polar.

Lastly, if polar bonds in the molecule add up to form a net dipole moment, the molecule is polar. The dipole moment measures the extent of net charge separation in the molecule and is calculated by summing the bond moments in three-dimensional space.

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The effect of Earth's gravity on objects on the surface of Earth is to pull them toward the center of the planet, creating a downward force known as weight.

Gravity is the force of attraction between two objects with mass, and it is directly proportional to the mass of the objects and inversely proportional to the square of the distance between them. On Earth's surface, all objects experience the gravitational pull of the planet, causing them to be pulled toward the center of the Earth.

The strength of this gravitational force depends on two factors: the mass of the Earth and the distance from the object to the center of the Earth. Earth's mass is constant, so the force of gravity primarily varies with an object's distance from the center of the planet. Objects closer to the Earth's surface experience a stronger gravitational force, while those at higher altitudes experience a weaker force.

This gravitational force gives objects weight, which is a measure of the force of gravity acting on them. Weight is commonly measured in units such as pounds or kilograms. When an object is at rest on the surface of the Earth, it experiences a gravitational force equal to its weight, which is directed toward the center of the Earth.

In summary, Earth's gravity exerts a downward force on objects on its surface, giving them weight and keeping them anchored to the planet. This force is responsible for objects falling when dropped, and it plays a fundamental role in the physics of everyday life.

To learn more about gravity, here

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Answer:

All the above

Explanation:

Answer:

Heat has shorter wavelengths than visible light.

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Answer:

c: object 3

Explanation:

c: object 3

Explanation:

Answer: The number of ammonium ions in given moles of ammonium sulfide are [tex]6.022\times 10^{24}[/tex]  

Explanation:

We are given:

A chemical compound having chemical formula of [tex](NH_4)_2S[/tex]

In 1 mole of ammonium sulfide, 2 moles of ammonium ions and 1 mole of sulfide ions are present.

According to mole concept:  

1 mole of compound contains [tex]6.022\times 10^{23}[/tex] number of atoms

So, 5 moles of ammonium sulfide molecule will contain = [tex]5\times 2\times 6.022\times 10^{23}=6.022\times 10^{24}[/tex] number of ammonium ions.

Hence, the number of ammonium ions in given moles of ammonium sulfide are [tex]6.022\times 10^{24}[/tex]

The statement is false; hydrogen bonds form between adenine and thymine, and between cytosine and guanine based on the principle of base pairing.

According to the principle of base pairing, hydrogen bonds form specifically between adenine (A) and thymine (T), and between cytosine (C) and guanine (G). Adenine forms two hydrogen bonds with thymine, while cytosine forms three hydrogen bonds with guanine. This specific pairing is crucial for the stability and structure of the DNA double helix.