Answer:
Option (e).
Explanation:
Genbank may be defined as a sequence database that can be used to identify the evolutionary relationship between an organisms. Genbank contains the nucleotide sequences and information for the translation of protein.
Original sequences can directly be submitted to the genbank. Genbank stores the large database that contains the genetic information of an organism.
Thus, the correct answer is option (e).
As you ascend from the medulla oblongata to the cerebrum, the functions of each successive level becomeA) more complex.B) simpler.C) better understood.D) more crucial to visceral functions.E) critical to reflexes
Answer:
The correct answer will be option A-more complex.
Explanation:
The brain is divided into three parts: cerebrum, cerebellum and Brainstem.
The medulla oblongata is a part of the brainstem which is involved in the response of the autonomic nervous system (ANS) like body temperature, breathing, digestion, heart rate, wake and sleep cycles, vomiting, sneezing, coughing and swallowing.
The cerebrum is the largest part of the brain which includes basal ganglia, hippocampus and olfactory bulb. This is involved in performing the higher functions of the central nervous system (CNS) like vision and hearing, speech, emotions, reasoning, learning and fine control of movement.
As we move from the medulla oblongata to cerebrum the response to stimuli changes from simple to complex as medulla oblongata is involved in simple processes of ANS whereas cerebrum is involved in the higher process of CNS like learning, speech and many more.
Thus, option A-more complex is the correct answer.
There are multiple adaptations in the digestive system that increase surface area, list three and where you will find these adaptations.
Answer:
1. Many vertebrates have teeth, and chewing (mastication) breaks up food into small particles, expanding its surface and mixes it with fluid secretions, which makes it possible to digest. Teeth are located in the mouth of animals, where the digestive process initiates.
2. The stomach, which resembles a bag-like shape, can either fold up when empty and expand like a balloon when it fills up with food. By doing this, the area of activity of the gastric juice is expanded, increasing the efficiency of the digestion. Food enters the stomach from the esophagus.
3. The villi and microvilli present in the epithelial wall of the small intestine, are fingerlike projections that greatly enhance the surface area of the small intestine. In humans, this surface area is 300 square meters and it is over this large surface that the products of digestion are absorbed.
3. Suppose I need to transport a solution containing a nucleic acid polymer from Washington DC to Chicago. Explain why I can carry a DNA sample in my shirt-pocket, whereas I would need to keep a comparable RNA sample under dry ice. Be chemically specific.
Answer:
Just incase. they need to identify you acid can burn its a very dangerous solution to move state to state.It can kill you
3. Suppose you have two traits controlled by genes on separate chromosomes. If sexual reproduction occurs between two heterozygous parents, what is the genotypic ratio of all possible gametes?
Answer:
½½
Explanation:
the ratio is gonna be like this ½½
because we have 2 trait control by genes in separate chromosomes
In sexual reproduction between two heterozygous parents, each can produce four types of gametes for the two traits, which could lead to a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio among the offspring when considering a Punnett Square for visualization.
When two heterozygous parents engage in sexual reproduction, each parent is capable of producing four different types of gametes for two traits located on separate chromosomes. If we consider parents with genotypes AaBb, then the gametes produced could be AB, Ab, aB, or ab. Using Punnett Square, we can visualize this. Each combination leads to a different genotype in the offspring. However, as the question asks about gametes specifically, there aren't different 'combinations' in gametes since they're haploid, so the question might be asking for the offspring produced—which would lead to a 9:3:3:1 phenotypic ratio in the offspring due to the independent assortment of alleles. This happens because alleles segregate during the production of gametes, ensuring that each gamete carries only one allele for each gene.
It is not possible for an airborne pathogen to travel very far. TRUE OR FALSE
Answer: False
Explanation:
Airborne pathogenic infection usually spread when viruses, bacteria or any other pathogenic agent travel over the dust particles or respiratory droplets.
The pathogens can travel to a great distance in air being on the tiny nano particles of dust particles and respiratory droplets. The pathogens of cough or sneeze travel a long distance very quickly. These pathogens travel upwards at a speed of 320 km/h. In indoors the speed of airborne pathogens increases and their potential to cause infection also increases.
Answer:
False
Explanation:
The processes of transformation and transduction are important to which kingdom and why?
Protista: Both processes are steps in the process of putting the Protista into the endospore state which provides protection from harsh conditions.
Bacteria: Both processes provide the Bacteria with new genes that might provide new ways of dealing with environmental changes.
Viruses: Both processes would help a virus strain produce flagella to move away from difficult environmental conditions.
Fungi: Both processes would allow Fungi to form physical connections to other Bacteria so they could trade genes useful for survival.
BRANLIEST ANSWER!!!!!!!!!
Answer:
Bacteria: Both processes provide the Bacteria with new genes that might provide new ways of dealing with environmental changes
Explanation:
Transformation occurs when there are dead and live bacteria in a population. If the dead bacteria bear desirable traits, the DNA will be passed onto the live bacteria via transformation. The DNA in the dead bacteria pass through the membrane of the live bacteria and provide recombinant DNA.
Transduction occurs when bacteriophages (such as viruses) introduce foreign DNA into bacteria. The foreign DNA may have desirable traits to the bacteria that could help the bacteria population survive environmental changes such as antibiotics.
Answer:
Option B
Explanation:
Bacteria: Both processes provide the Bacteria with new genes that might provide new ways of dealing with environmental changes.
Describe the position of the Insula.
Answer:
The insular cortex can be found near the centre of the brain within the lateral sulcus, as it is part of the cerebral cortex. It falls into both hemispheres (left and right halves) of the brain.
Explanation:
I have referred to "insula" as the insular cortex, since this question has been posted in biology and that was the only similar term I could think about.
Hope it helped,
BiologiaMagister
Removal of which of the following organ would least affect the body?
a. liver
b. colon
c. gall bladder
d. pancreas
e. stomach
Answer:
Gall bladder
Explanation:
Gall bladder lies on the right side of abdomen and just below the liver. This is a pear shaped organ and releases its stored product through the common bile duct.
Gall bladder removal surgery generally occurs in case of gall stone, and inflammation. Gall bladder mainly stores the bile juice produced from the liver and its removal will least affect the body.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
A student wanted to look at germination of five different seeds in vermiculite (a soil additive). He planted the seeds in identical containers and left them together in full sunlight. He gave each seed the same amount of water and charted the germination of each seed type. What is the independent variable in this experiment? (a) vermiculite (b) germination rate (c) seed type (d) light (e) amounts of water
Answer: (c) seed type
Explanation:
An independent variable is the one which can be altered or manually manipulated in an experiment. The effect of such manipulation can be examined on the dependent variable of the experiment. The dependent variable cannot be manipulated in an experiment instead it is the outcome of the experiment.
The seed type is the correct answer because the seed type can vary and the effect of which can be examined on the seed germination process and rate of seed germination.
Suppose the cells of a tumor are idealized as spheres each with a radius of 5 mum (micrometers). The number of cells has a doubling time of 35 days. Approximately how long will it take a single cell to grow into a multi-celled spherical tumor with a volume of 0.2 cmcubed (1 cmequals10,000 mum)
Answer:
1044.3 days
Explanation:
Given,
Radius of sphere shaped cells of tumor [tex]= 5[/tex] micrometer
[tex]1[/tex] centimeter [tex]= 10,000[/tex] micrometers
Thus, radius of sphere in centimeters
[tex]= \frac{5}{10,000} \\[/tex]
Volume of a sphere
[tex]= \frac{4}{3} \pi r^{3}[/tex]
Volume of one cell of tumor
[tex]\frac{4}{3} *(3.14)*(\frac{5}{10,000})^{3}\\= {5.23 * 10^{-10}[/tex] centimeter cube
As we know ,
[tex]N(t) = N(0) e^{-kt}\\\\k = \frac{ln2}{35}\\ k = 0.0198 day^{-1}\\[/tex]
Substituting all the given values in above equation, we get -
[tex]0.2 = 5.23 * 10^{-10} * e^{-0.0198*t}\\t = 1044.3[/tex] days
Final answer:
It will take approximately 649.25 days for a single cell to grow into a multi-celled spherical tumor with a volume of 0.2 cm³, considering the cell has a doubling time of 35 days and originates from cells idealized as spheres with a 5 μm radius.
Explanation:
The question involves calculating the time it will take for a single cell to grow into a multi-celled spherical tumor of 0.2 cm³ volume. Since each cell is idealized as a sphere with a radius of 5 μm (μm stands for micrometers), and the cell number doubles every 35 days, we can use the formula for the volume of a sphere (V = (4/3)πr³) to find out the volume of a single cell and then determine how many such cells would fit into a tumor of 0.2 cm³.
First, we convert the volume of the tumor from cubic centimeters to cubic micrometers. 1 cm³ = 1,000,000,000 μm³ (since 1 cm = 10,000 μm). Therefore, 0.2 cm³ = 200,000,000 μm³. The volume of one cell with a radius of 5 μm is V = (4/3)π(5³) ≈ 523.6 μm³. To find the number of cells that fit into the tumor volume, we divide the tumor volume by the volume of one cell: 200,000,000 μm³ / 523.6 μm³ ≈ 382,239 cells.
Since the number of cells doubles every 35 days, we can find the number of doubling periods required to reach 382,239 cells by solving for n in the equation 2^n = 382,239, where n is the number of doublings. Solving this equation, we find n ≈ 18.55. Therefore, it will take approximately 649.25 days (18.55 × 35 days per doubling) for a single cell to grow into a spherical tumor with a volume of 0.2 cm³.
Complete the following sentence that describe the alimentary canal and its walls:
The ____________ contains the surface epithelium that allows for absorption of nutrients, as wells as glands for secretion.
Answer:
Mucosa
Explanation:
The mucosa is the innermost layer of the wall of the digestive tract. It is a moist epithelial membrane and is rich in mucus-secreting goblet cells. The mucosa of the wall of the digestive tract contains glandular epithelial cells. The function of these cells is to secrete the digestive enzymes.
The Lamina propria of the mucosa is loose areolar connective tissue with an extensive network of capillaries. This layer of mucosa serves in the absorption of digested nutrients.
While ____ hormones can travel freely in the blood,_____ hormones require a carrier protein because they are not soluble in the aqueous plasma
Answer:
While water soluble hormones can travel freely in the blood, lipid soluble hormones require a carrier protein because they are not soluble in the aqueous plasma
Explanation:
The water-soluble hormones such as insulin are dissolved in the blood and are carried along with the blood to their target cells.
However, lipid-soluble hormones such as steroid hormones (cortisol) and thyroxine are hydrophobic in nature. These hormones are not dissolved in water-based blood plasma. So, these lipid-soluble hormones are carried through the carrier proteins.
Peptide and amino acid-derived hormones can travel freely in blood due to their water solubility, whereas steroid and thyroid hormones require carrier proteins because they are lipid-derived and not water soluble. Steroid hormones utilize intracellular receptors, while the water-soluble hormones bind to cell surface receptors.
While peptide and amino acid-derived hormones can travel freely in the blood, steroid and thyroid hormones require a carrier protein because they are not soluble in the aqueous plasma. Peptide and amino acid-derived hormones are water soluble, which allows them to circulate in the blood without being bound to any carrier proteins. In contrast, lipid-derived hormones, specifically steroid hormones and thyroid hormones, are hydrophobic and insoluble in water, thus they need to be transported by plasma proteins to ensure that they remain soluble in the bloodstream. Lipid-derived hormones, such as steroid hormones and thyroid hormone, can permeate plasma membranes and utilize intracellular receptors, while peptide and amino acid-derived hormones, being lipid insoluble, require cell surface receptors to exert their effects.
The synthesis of nucleotides requires several amino acids. Sort each amino acid as a precursor in the synthesis of purines, pyrimidines, both purines and pyrimidines, or neither purines nor pyrimidines. Note: If you answer any part of this question incorrectly, a single red X will appear indicating that one or more of the phrases are sorted incorrectly.
Purines Pyrimidines Both NeitherA. leucine B. lysine C. methionine D. glutamine E. glycine F. histidine G. aspartate H. alanine I. tryptophan
Glycine and Glutamine are precursors in the synthesis of purines while Aspartate is a precursor in the synthesis of pyrimidines. Leucine, Lysine, Methionine, Histidine, Alanine, and Tryptophan are not directly involved in the synthesis of either purines or pyrimidines.
Explanation:The synthesis of nucleotides, the building blocks of DNA and RNA, requires several amino acids. Whether an amino acid serves as a precursor in the synthesis of purines, pyrimidines, both, or neither depends on the specific pathways involved in nucleotide biosynthesis.
Purines: Glycine (E) and Glutamine (D) Pyrimidines: Aspartate (G) Both Purines and Pyrimidines: None Neither Purines nor Pyrimidines: Leucine (A), Lysine (B), Methionine (C), Histidine (F), Alanine (H), Tryptophan (I)
It is important to note that while these amino acids are not directly involved in the synthesis of purines or pyrimidines, many of them do play indirect roles in nucleotide metabolism.
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The synthesis of nucleotides requires specific amino acids. Some amino acids are precursors for the synthesis of purines, some for pyrimidines, some for both, and some are not involved in the synthesis of these nucleotides.
Explanation:The amino acids that serve as precursors in the synthesis of purines include glycine, glutamine, and aspartate.
The amino acids that serve as precursors in the synthesis of pyrimidines include aspartate and glutamine.
The amino acids that serve as precursors for both purines and pyrimidines are glycine, glutamine, and aspartate.
The amino acids that are considered neither purines nor pyrimidines are leucine, lysine, methionine, alanine, histidine, and tryptophan.
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The neuromuscular junction is a well-studied example of a chemical synapse. Which of the following statements describes a critical event that occurs at the neuromuscular junction?a) Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron.b) When the action potential reaches the end of the axon terminal, voltage-gated sodium channels open and sodium ions diffuse into the terminal.c) Acetylcholine binds to its receptor in the junctional folds of the sarcolemma. Its receptor is linked to a G protein.d) Acetylcholine is released and moves across the synaptic cleft bound to a transport protein.
Answer:
Option (A).
Explanation:
Neuromuscular junction is formed by the connection between a muscle fiber and motor neuron. This is the site at which motor neuron transmit signal to the muscle fiber and causes muscle contraction.
Neuromuscular junction involves various critical events. The most important process that occur during muscular junction is the release of acetylcholine by the axon terminals of the motor neuron. Acetylcholine is a neurotransmitter and causes the stimulation of muscle tissue.
Thus, the correct answer is option (A).
The vital event at the neuromuscular junction involves acetylcholine being released by the motor neuron's axon terminals, diffusing across the synaptic cleft, and binding to receptors on the muscle fiber, triggering muscle contraction. Hence, the correct option is A.
The critical event that occurs at the neuromuscular junction is described by option a) Acetylcholine is released by axon terminals of the motor neuron. When the action potential reaches the axon terminal of a motor neuron, it triggers the release of acetylcholine into the synaptic cleft. This neurotransmitter then diffuses across the synaptic cleft and binds to nicotinic acetylcholine receptors (nAChRs) on the sarcolemma of the muscle fiber. The binding of acetylcholine to the receptors causes the ion channels to open, allowing Na+ ions to flow into the muscle cell, leading to depolarization. This depolarization, known as the end-plate potential, initiates an action potential in the muscle fiber which eventually results in muscle contraction.
3. Suppose a person developed a mutation in a somatic cell that diminishes the performance of the body’s natural cell cycle control proteins. This mutation resulted in cancer, but was effectively treated with a cocktail of cancer-fighting techniques. Is it possible for this person’s future children to inherit this cancer-causing mutation? Be specific when you explain why or why not.
Answer: This cancer causing mutation will not be passed on to offspring.
Explanation: Cells are categorised into two, the germ cells and somatic cells. The germ cells are sex cells that produce or give rise to somatic cells called the body cells. Because somatic cells comes about secondarily from germ cells they only consist of random mutations (change in genetic make up) that maybe due to uv rays or a persons lifestyle thus these kind of somatic mutations cannot be passed down to offsprinds as they are not hereditary.
How do cells capture the energy released by cellular respiration?
Answer: by producing ATP in the cytoplasm and inside the mitochondria of the cell.
Explanation:
The complete oxidative degradation of glucose can be compartmentalized into four main biochemical steps: glycolysis, acetyl-CoA formation, Krebs (citric acid or tricarboxylic acids cycle) and the electron transport chain where oxidative phosphorylation occurs. During respiration, one Organic compound (usual sugar) is completely oxidized to form CO2 and H2O. In aerobic respiration, molecular oxygen, O2, serves as the ultimate acceptor of electrons. In anaerobic breathing, the acceptor end of electrons can be the NO3- (nitrate ion), SO42- (sulfate ion), CO2 or fumarate. If the oxidized substrate during respiration, is a protein then it also forms ammonia.
Cells utilize cellular respiration to convert the chemical energy stored in glucose into ATP, using glycolysis, the Krebs Cycle, and the electron transport chain. These stages culminate in the concentration and flow of hydrogen ions that power ATP synthase to generate ATP from ADP, securing energy for various cellular functions.
Explanation:How Cells Capture Energy Through Cellular RespirationCells capture the energy released by cellular respiration through a multi-step process involving the conversion of glucose into ATP (adenosine triphosphate), the primary energy currency of the cell. During cellular respiration, glucose is oxidized in the presence of oxygen, resulting in the production of carbon dioxide and water. The energy from glucose is transferred to ATP, which can then be used by the cell to perform various functions.
The process of cellular respiration includes several stages: glycolysis, the Krebs Cycle, and the electron transport chain. In the final stage, electron transport chains in the mitochondrial inner membrane capture high-energy electrons from reduced coenzymes NADH and FADH₂. These electrons are used to pump hydrogen ions across the mitochondrial membrane, creating an electrochemical gradient. When hydrogen ions flow back through ATP synthase, the energy is harnessed to convert ADP to ATP, effectively capturing the energy in a form that can be used by the cell for various metabolic activities.
Through this complex set of reactions, chemical energy from food is systematically transformed into an energy form readily available for the cell's use. In essence, cellular respiration allows cells to extract and utilize the energy stored in the chemical bonds of glucose, which is obtained from the organism's food intake and is originally derived from solar energy through photosynthesis.
The purpose of DNA profiling is to ______. transfer genes from one species to another species determine whether two samples of DNA came from the same individual definitively convict a suspect assess the safety concerns associated with genetically modified organisms
Answer: Determine whether the two samples of DNA came from the same individual definetively convict a suspect.
Explanation:
DNA profiling is a technique for examining the DNA composition of the organism. The DNA can be extracted from hair, skin, bodily fluids and nails. The technique involves the following steps:
1. Extraction of the DNA from the cells.
2. The DNA can be cut into fragments by using enzyme.
3. Separation of DNA fragments using a gel.
4. Transfer of DNA over the paper.
5. Adding the radioactive probe over the paper. The radioactive probe forms a complementary pair with the DNA strand.
6. Observing the strands on the X-ray film.
It is a useful technique for identification of the living being from which it has come from. It is useful in comparing the two samples that is which obtain from the crime scene and the one which comes from the suspect. Thus will help in conviction of suspect.
If the number of photosynthetic organisms on the earth decreased drastically, what would happen?
Answer: There would be no life on earth.
Explanation:
Photosynthetic organism provides life to other life forms on earth by providing food. Basic is the basic need for all the living organism on earth.
Only photosynthetic organisms have the ability to synthesize food by the help of carbon dioxide and water in presence of sunlight.
This food( glucose) is used by the consumers to sustain life on earth. This energy is used by the organism to perform various tasks of the body. All the food chains starts by photosynthetic organism.
So, ultimately all the other organism would die without photosynthetic organisms.
Which of the following animals has a heart in which oxygenated and deoxygenated blood mix?
a.human
b.fish
c.frog
d.bird
e.mammal
The function of coenzyme A in the citric acid cycle is most like: A. The function of coenzyme A in the citric acid cycle is most like a kid jumping up and down on a trampoline. B. a frog that turns into a prince. C. a limousine driver dropping off a couple at the school prom. D. throwing a baited hook into a lake and catching a fish.
Answer: A limousine driver dropping off a couple at the school prom.
Explanation: Coenzyme A is a co-factor that assists enzymes to perfom their functions of speeding up chemical reactions. They are non-proteins that can change form and be used by many different type of enzymes for assistance. Just like a driver, any other couple could have asked to be driven by the same driver for any other reasons other then school prom. Drivers are always there to assist but do not take part in the overall function of process or occasion just like coenzyme A.
Final answer:
Coenzyme A in the citric acid cycle is most akin to (option C) a limousine driver dropping off a couple at the school prom. It transfers an acetyl group to oxaloacetate to initiate the cycle, then leaves, mirroring the driver's role in facilitating arrival at an event.
Explanation:
The function of coenzyme A (CoA) in the citric acid cycle can be likened to option C: a limousine driver dropping off a couple at the school prom. Coenzyme A plays a crucial role in the citric acid cycle (also known as the TCA cycle or Kreb's cycle), which is a central part of cellular respiration taking place in the matrix of the mitochondria. In the first step of the cycle, Coenzyme A transfers its 2-carbon acetyl group to a 4-carbon compound, oxaloacetate, to form a 6-carbon molecule called citrate, thus initiating the citric acid cycle.
This transfer by Coenzyme A is comparable to a limousine driver who facilitates the arrival of a couple (the acetyl group) at the destination (the citric acid cycle), and then departs, allowing the couple to enjoy their event. The release of Coenzyme A after transferring the acetyl group mirrors the limousine driver departing after dropping off the prom attendees.
16. Mexican hairless dogs have little hair and few teeth. When a Mexican hairless is mated to another breed of dog, about half of the puppies are hairless. When two Mexican hairless dogs are mated to each other, about 1/3 of the surviving puppies have hair, and about 2/3 of the surviving puppies are hairless. However, about two out of eight puppies from this type of cross are born grossly deformed and do not survive. Explain this pattern of inheritance.
Here you can tell that it is heterozygous with a dominant allele to be a hairless dog, for example, Hh, where H is dominant.
When you cross one hairless (Hh) with a not hairless dog (hh), Punnett square will show chances are half hairless and half not hairless.
When you cross two hairless (Hh), Punnett square will show three cases: HH, Hh, and hh.
hh is not hairless.
Hh is hairless.
HH is a codominance in which both parents gave the hairless allele, and this may be the not surviving dogs.
The pattern of inheritance in Mexican hairless dogs follows classical genetics, with dominant and recessive alleles determining whether the dogs are hairless or not. When these dogs are mated, the mix of dominant and recessive alleles between the parents results in the different traits observed in the puppies. It is suggested that those puppies receiving two dominant alleles are born with severe deformities.
Explanation:The pattern of inheritance described regarding the Mexican hairless dogs can be explained through genetics. A Mexican hairless dog presumably carries a dominant allele (H) that causes hairlessness, and a recessive allele (h) responsible for hair formation. If a hairless dog (Hh) is mated to a dog with hair (hh), approximately half of the puppies will be hairless (Hh) and half will have hair (hh), as the dominant H allele is shared between them.
When two Mexican hairless dogs are mated together, both of them being Hh, the mix of genes in the puppies varies. Approximately 1/3 of the puppies receive a pair of recessive alleles (hh) and hence, have hair. About 2/3 of the puppies receive either a homozygous dominant pair (HH) or a heterozygous pair (Hh), making them hairless.
However, dogs inheriting the homozygous dominant pair (HH) are presumably born with severe deformities due to the harmful nature of two dominant alleles. This means that 1/4 of all puppies, or 2/8 are born deformed and do not survive.
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Tubulovillous adenoma with high grade dysplasia
Explanation:
Adenomatous genes are most often found among neoplastic genes and are the target of 2/3 of all colon members. The factors of risks associated with its onset include advanced age, sedentary lifestyle, male gender and increased BMI / abdominal fat. Dysplasia gives it the potential for malignancy, constituting the precursors of most, however, only 5% of adenomas evolve to carcinoma by a process that runs from 7 to 10 years, with the greater risk of progression for advanced adenomas. Adenomatous polyps can be classified into 3 subtypes based on epithelial architecture:
Tubular adenoma: represent about 80% of all adenomas and are characterized by the presence of tubular glands in at least less than 75% of the architecture.
Villous adenoma: account for 5 to 15% of all adenomas and have glands with villous projections in at least 75% of its architecture.
Tubulovillous adenoma: correspond to 5 to 15% of adenomas and has mixed histology with less than 75% of both types of architectures.
High-grade dysplasia is characterized by a complex architecture where there are grouping and glandular irregularity as well as a cribriform pattern and cytological atypia, with loss of nuclear polarity, enlarged nuclei with nucleoli, atypical mitoses, and prominent apoptosis. The high-grade dysplasia has a higher risk of developing for carcinoma
Oh, no... you dropped your study flashcards, and now they're out of order! Put them back into the correct order for a eukaryotic cell. a. "Combine the mRNA strand with a ribosome and a tRNA carrying a methionine." b. "Unwind the DNA molecule near the promoter." c. "Exit the nucleus to the cytoplasm." d. "Transcribe the complementary RNA strand."
Answer:
The correct order would be:
b. "Unwind the DNA molecule near the promoter."
d. "Transcribe the complementary RNA strand."
c. "Exit the nucleus to the cytoplasm."
a. "Combine the mRNA strand with a ribosome and a tRNA carrying a methionine."
The given order is according to the central dogma of a cell. According to central dogma DNA is first transcribed into mRNA which is then moved out of nucleus (in eukaryotic cells).
For transcription, the DNA is unwind near the promoter region where transcription factors and RNA polymerase binds the template strand. It then make mRNA which is moved out of the nucleus.
The mRNA then is translated with the help of ribosome and tRNA. The start codon in mRNA usually codes for methionine due to which tRNA carrying methionine recognises the start codon and initiate the process of translation.
How many FADH2 molecules are produced in the Krebs cycle?
A- 1
B- 2
C- 3
D- 4
Answer: B- 2
Explanation:
In aerobic respiration, the cell harvests energy from glucose molecules in a sequence of four major pathways: glycolysis, pyruvate oxidation, the Krebs cycle, and the electron transport chain. In the process of aerobic respiration, glucose is completely used. The 6-carbon glucose molecule is first cleaved into a pair of 3-carbon pyruvate molecules during glycolysis. One of the carbons of each pyruvate is then lost as CO2 in the conversion of pyruvate to acetyl-CoA; two other carbons are lost as CO2 during the oxidations of the Krebs cycle. All that is left to designate the passing of the glucose molecule into 6 CO2 molecules is its energy, some of which is preserved in 4 ATP molecules and in the reduced state of 12 electron carriers. 10 of these carriers are NADH molecules; the other 2 are FADH2.
Jeremy has Parkinson’s disease, a progressive neurodegenerative disease that affects motor skills. In addition to motor symptoms, Jeremy has noticed changes in his mood, and he feels the need to smoke more cigarettes than he used to. It is likely that Jeremy’s ________ is producing less ________ than it needs to.
Jeremy's brain, affected by Parkinson's disease, is likely producing less dopamine than it needs, leading to motor symptoms, mood changes, and an increased need to smoke.
Explanation:Jeremy's brain is probably producing less of a neurotransmitter called dopamine than it needs to. Parkinson's disease, a progressive neurodegenerative disease, primarily affects the motor skills due to degeneration of dopamine-producing cells in a region of the brain called the substantia nigra. Dopamine plays a key role in controlling movement, but also affects mood and addictive behaviors.
The shortage of dopamine may explain not only Jeremy's motor symptoms, but also his mood changes and increased need to smoke. Smoking is often used as a form of self-medication, as nicotine temporarily boosts dopamine levels, providing transient relief from symptoms.
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Action potential propagation in a skeletal muscle fiber ceases when acetylcholine is removed from the synaptic cleft. Which of the following mechanisms ensures a rapid and efficient removal of acetylcholine?
Answer:
a) Acetylcholine is degraded by acetylcholinesterase. :)
List the 5 basic elements of a reflex arc.
Answer:
Five basic element of reflex arc are receptor, sensory neuron, integration center, effector and motor neuron.
Explanation:
Reflex arc may be defined as the neural pathway of reflex action. Reflex may be defined as a response against a particular stimulus that returns the body to homeostasis.
Five basic elements of reflex arc are as follows:
Receptor: Receptor is present at the end of a sensory neuron and they respond against a stimuli.
Sensory neuron: The neuron carries nerve impulse from the receptor to the brain or spinal cord.
Integration center: This center consists of more than one synapse in brain or spinal cord.
Motor neuron: This neuron conducts nerve impulse from the central nervous system to the effector organ.
Effector: Effector respond against a nerve impulse and may contract or secrete a product depending upon the effect.
How does stress affect your musculoskeletal system
Answer:
Stress causes tension in muscles that are very painful. This is how stress affects the musculoskeletal system.
Explanation:
Stress affects the musculoskeletal system causing muscle tension. Muscles can be so tight that they lead to a painful frame of muscle spasm. The back and neck muscles are particularly more sensitive to the effects of stress.
The slightest muscle strain can be the "drop of water" in a stressed person. For example, if the spinal nerves are restricted by scar tissue or calcium deposits, they can lead to minimal muscle tension that compresses the nerves and causes pain. Another example is sciatica, which can become much greater when the person feels stressed.
5. What is the correct description of the genotype for individuals that express the trait cystic fibrosis?
heterozygous.
heterozygous recessive
homozygous recessive
heterozygous dominant
homozygous dominant
Answer:
homozygous recessive
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is a recessive genetic disorder. It means that the trait is caused due to the presence of a recessive allele. The recessive alleles are expressed only in homozygous recessive genotypes. Individuals that express the disorder cystic fibrosis should have two copies of a recessive allele of the gene, that is, the genotype should be homozygous recessive.
If "C" allele is the normal healthy allele and "c" allele is cystic fibrosis allele, the genotype of the affected individual would be "cc".
5. What is the critical distinction between allopolyploidy and autopolyploidy?
a. Allopolyploidy involves disruptive selection but autopolyploidy does not.
b. Autopolyploidy involves disruptive selection but autopolyploidy does not.
c. If speciation is allopatric rather than sympatric, the mode of speciation is allopolyploidy; if speciation is sympatric rather than allopatric, the mode of speciation is autopolyploidy.
d. In autopolyploidy, one parental species contributes to the polyploidy; in allopolyploidy, two parental species contribute to the polyploidy.
e. In allopolyploidy, one parental species contributes to the polyploidy; in autopolyploidy, two parental species contribute to the polyploidy.
Answer:
D. In autopolyploidy, one parental species contributes to the polyploidy; in allopolyploidy, two parental species contribute to the polyploidy.
Explanation:
Autopolyploidy is the polyploidy that arises when the organisms have more than two complete sets of the same genome. For example, if a diploid species is represented as "AA", its autopolyploid with four complete sets of the genome can be represented as "AAAA".
On the other hand, allopolyploidy occurs when the polyploid carries more than two complete sets of the genome from separate species. For example, if two diploid species are represented as "AA" and "BB", their allopolyploid with four complete sets of the genome can be represented as "AABB".