Answer:
c
Explanation:
the answer is in the question. anyways i graduated from med school trust me
What is not one of the five most common causes of bacterial meningitis?
Answer:
Explanation:
Viral infections are the most common cause of meningitis, followed by bacterial infections and, rarely, fungal infections.
Viral meningitis
Viral meningitis is usually mild and often clears on its own. Most cases in the United States are caused by a group of viruses known as enteroviruses, which are most common in late summer and early fall. Viruses such as herpes simplex virus, HIV, mumps, West Nile virus, and others also can cause viral meningitis.
Answer:
Explanation:
Viral infections are the most common cause of meningitis, followed by opportunistic or non-organism bacteria, and lastly, fungi, which would be the fungal microorganisms that rarely generate disease in the meninges, since for this to happen, the person has to be immunosuppressed or immunosuppressed.
Viral meningitis is usually mild and often goes away on its own (without taking into account the patient's immune factor and considering that he is a patient with adequate defenses). Most cases in the United States are caused by a group of viruses known as enteroviruses, which are most common in late summer and early fall. Viruses like herpes simplex virus, HIV, mumps, West Nile virus and others can also cause viral meningitis. (It is important to clarify that these viruses usually attack the brain organ when there is no predominant immune defense, for example in the cases of people who take chronic treatments with corticosteroids or immunomodulators)
Explanation:
Meningitis is so called referring to the inflammation of the meninges, in case this table does not resolve, it can even cause death of the patient.
In many clinical cases, meningitis revealed HIV infection in adults because these patients presented complicated pictures of meningitis that required hospitalization, which is extremely strange since it is a pathology that usually affects more children than adults.
For several months, Reba has kept her weight 10 to 15 pounds below what would be considerednormal for her age and height. She uses laxatives after her meals as a purging behavior. She hasbecome concerned because she has recently stopped menstruating. According to the DSM-5, withwhich of the following feeding and eating disorders will Reba most likely be diagnosed?A) Binge-eating disorderB) Bulimia nervosa, purging typeC) Anorexia nervosa, binge/purge typeD) Anorexia nervosa, restricting type
Answer:
I believe B)
Explanation:
It specified the bulimia
Inflammation of the mucous membrane lining of the cervix is a symptom of
Answer:Endocervicitis
Explanation:
Endocervicitis occurs when the neck and outlet of the cervix is inflammaed which is caused by a vaginal infection, gonorrhea, chlamydia, or genital herpes or injuries from childbirth etc.
Endocervicitis can be acute presenting in most cases no symptoms and only discovered by accident in a routine checkup while Chronic endocervicitis presents symptoms of abnormal blood vaginal discharge, pain during sexual intercourse, vaginal bleeding abdominal pain, backache, fever, painful urination etc
Answer:
Endocervitis
Explanation:
Cervicitis is an inflammation of the cervix, the lower end, and the narrow of the uterus that communicates with the vagina.
Possible symptoms of cervicitis identified bleeding between menstrual changes, pain during a cervical exam or during sexual intercourse, and abnormal vaginal discharge. However, it is also possible to have cervicitis and not have any signs or symptoms.
Cervicitis is often the result of a sexually transmitted infection, such as chlamydiosis or gonorrhea. Cervicitis can also manifest itself from non-infectious causes. Successful treatment of cervicitis involves treating the underlying cause of the inflammation.
Bill recorded his food intake for a week and then used a computerized dietary analysis program to analyze his diet record. According to the results of the analysis, his average fat intake was _____ of total calories each day, which is within the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range. A. 15%B. 10%C. 5%D.25%
Answer:
D.25%
Explanation:
Lipids are food compounds which is the highest source of energy in the body system.
The dietary reference intake for fat in adults is 20-35 percent of total calories from fat. It is advisable to eat more of some types of fats because they provide health benefits such as protection of vital organs , body insulation etc.
25percent is in the range of 20-35percent which makes Option D correct.
Answer:
D. 25%
Explanation:
The acceptable macronutrient distribution range (AMDR) for fat intake is between 20% - 35% of total calories each day. The AMDR is a already determined range for intake of specic macronutrient in our diet. It includes percentages in fats, proteins and other macronutrient. The macronutrients are useful for growths, metabolism, energy amongst other functions needed by the body for optimum operations. In this case, given what Bill calculated is within the acceptable macronutrient distribution range for fat, it must be 25%.
a what is not the same as a universal theme
Answer:
Subject
Explanation:
What are foods that are high in simple carbohydrates and four food s that are high in complex carbohydrates
Answer:
Carbohydrates are a major macronutrient and one of your body’s primary sources of energy. Some weight loss programs discourage eating them, but the key is finding the right carbs — not avoiding them completely.
You may have heard that eating complex carbs is better than simple carbs. But nutrition labels don’t always tell you if the carbohydrate content is simple or complex.
Understanding how these foods are classified and how they work in your body can help you choose the right carbs.
Understanding carbohydrates
Carbohydrates are an important nutrient found in numerous types of foods.
Most of us equate carbs with bread and pasta, but you can also find them in:
dairy products
fruits
vegetables
grains
nuts
legumes
seeds
sugary foods and sweets
Carbohydrates are made up of three components: fiber, starch, and sugar.
Fiber and starch are complex carbs, while sugar is a simple carb. Depending on how much of each of these is found in a food determines its nutrient quality.
Simple carbs equal simplistic nutrition
Simple carbs are sugars. While some of these occur naturally in milk, most of the simple carbs in the American diet are added to foods.
Common simple carbs added to foods include:
raw sugar
brown sugar
corn syrup and high-fructose corn syrup
glucose, fructose, and sucrose
fruit juice concentrate
Simple carb foods to avoid
Try to avoid some of the most common refined sources of simple carbs and look for alternatives to satisfy those sweet cravings:
1. Soda
Sugary soda is bad for your health in several ways. You can try water flavored with lemon instead.
2. Baked treats
Satisfy your sweet tooth with fruit, rather than baked goods full of simple carbs and added sugars.
3. Packaged cookies
Bake your own goods using substitutes like applesauce or sweeteners, or look for other mixes that contain more complex carbs.
4. Fruit juice concentrate
An easy way to avoid fruit concentrate is to look closely at nutrition labels. Always choose 100 percent fruit juice or make your own at home.
Try our recipe for kiwi strawberry juice.
5. Breakfast cereal
Breakfast cereals tend to be loaded with simple carbohydrates. If you just can’t kick the habit, check out our rundown of breakfast cereals, from the best to the worst for your health.
The more complex the carb, the better
Complex carbs pack in more nutrients than simple carbs. They’re higher in fiber and digest more slowly. This also makes them more filling, which means they’re a good option for weight control.
They’re also ideal for people with type 2 diabetes because they help manage blood sugar spikes after meals.
Fiber and starch are the two types of complex carbohydrates. Fiber is especially important because it promotes bowel regularity and helps to control cholesterol.
The main sources of dietary fiber include:
fruits
vegetables
nuts
beans
whole grains
Starch is also found in some of the same foods as fiber. The difference is certain foods are considered more starchy than fibrous, such as potatoes.
Other high-starch foods are:
whole wheat bread
cereal
corn
oats
peas
rice
Complex carbohydrates are key to long-term health. They make it easier to maintain a healthy weight and can even help guard against type 2 diabetes and cardiovascular problems in the future.
Complex carbs you should eat more of
Be sure to include the following complex carbohydrates as a regular part of your diet:
1. Whole grains
Whole grains are good sources of fiber, as well as potassium, magnesium, and selenium. Choose less processed whole grains such as quinoa, buckwheat, and whole-wheat pasta.
2. Fiber-rich fruits
Some of these are apples, berries, and bananas. Avoid canned fruit since it usually contains added syrup.
3. Fiber-rich vegetables
Eat more of all your veggies, including broccoli, leafy greens, and carrots.
4. Beans
Aside from fiber, these are good sources of folate, iron, and potassium.
Choosing the right carbs can take time and practice. With a little bit of research and a keen eye for nutrition labels, you can start making healthier choices to energize your body and protect it from long-term complications.
WHAT’S IN A CARB?
Carbs are made up of fiber, starch, and sugars. The American Diabetes Association recommends getting 25 to 35 grams of fiber per day.
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4 sourcescollapsed
Medically reviewed by Katherine Marengo, LDN, RD, specialty in nutrition, on December 13, 2018 — Written by Kristeen Cherney
Explanation:
Simple carbohydrates are high in sugar content and include foods like soda, candy, cookies, and fruit juices. Complex carbohydrates, on the other hand, contain starch and fiber, and include foods like whole grains, legumes, potatoes, and vegetables.
Explanation:Simple carbohydrates are found in foods that have a high sugar content. Examples include soda, candy, cookies, and fruit juices. These foods are quickly digested and result in a rapid rise in blood sugar levels.
Complex carbohydrates are found in foods that contain starch and fiber. Examples include whole grains, legumes, potatoes, and vegetables. These foods take longer to digest and provide a more sustained release of energy.
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A diabetic client who also suffers from urinary incontinence knows the importance of maintaining her blood glucose levels. This is doubly important for this type of client in regards to her incontinence because of which factor?
Answer: Abnormal glucose levels can cause polyuria.
Explanation:
Polyuria is a condition in diabetes in which the excess levels of sugar is excreted out from the blood. Usually the kidneys, when filter the blood, reabsorbs the sugars and allow them to be absorbed into the bloodstream. But in case of type 1 diabetes, the excess glucose is released along with the urine. The sugar is likely to pull more amount of water to be excreted out from the body as component of urine.
Urinary incontinence is a condition in which the involuntary release of urine occurs. The control over the sphincter is lost during the urinary incontinence. This leads to urination when the person does not want to. The urinary incontinence is one of the symptom of polyuria.
According to the given situation, the urinary incontinence is because of the increased glucose level in the body of the client.
what needs to be in place for natural selection to happen?
Monica lives in a residence hall suite with three friends. After breakfast, she developed a sudden fever, a severe headache, and a stiff neck. Which of the following infections is most likely causing Monica's symptoms?
Answer:
meningitis. Meningitis can occur when fluid surrounding the meninges becomes infected. The most common causes of meningitis are viral and bacterial infections
Explanation:
What is the Paleo diet?
Answer :
A paleo diet is a dietary plan based on foods similar to what might have been eaten during the Paleolithic era, which dates from approximately 2.5 million to 10,000 years ago.
A paleo diet typically includes lean meats, fish, fruits, vegetables, nuts and seeds — foods that in the past could be obtained by hunting and gathering. A paleo diet limits foods that became common when farming emerged about 10,000 years ago. These foods include dairy products, legumes and grains.
Other names for a paleo diet include Paleolithic diet, Stone Age diet, hunter-gatherer diet and caveman diet.
Explain (in terms of blood chemistry and respiratory physiology) why the victims in the manure pit did not realize that they were suffocating. What would be the expected blood pH values of the individuals involved (high, low, normal)? What mechanism accounts for this?
Answer:
Carbon dioxide levels in their blood did not reach a high level to be able to process the Oxygen.It takes a high Carbon dioxide level and low blood pH to feel like you are suffocating. The people in the pit didn’t realize they were suffocating due to these factors.
In the real sense, they were suffocating as there was no oxygen in the pit but their carbon dioxide and pH chemoreceptors indicated that everything was alright.
I would expect their pH levels to be normal.
Researchers in Taiwan have found that use of birth control was strongly positively correlated to the number of electrical appliances (i.e., toaster, fans, etc.) in the home. What is the best explanation for this result?
Answer:
The number of electrical appliances is inversely proportional to the number of kids that a couple has. It is a variable that is related to the number of electrical appliances and kids.
Explanation:
As the couple does not have children or is not trying fo more of them, the money that would have been used to raise a kid is instead used to buy electrical appliances. We can see that there is a variable, in this case, the income of the family, that connects the number of electrical appliances and the use of birth control.
A nurse is teaching a group of nursing students about the two most common forms of malaria, Plasmodium vivax malaria and Plasmodium falciparum malaria. Which statement by a student indicates a need for further teaching?
A) "Once erythrocyte forms of P. falciparum are eliminated, relapse will not occur."B) "Patients with P. vivax malaria experience relapse with increased frequency over time."C) "Patients with P. falciparum malaria experience symptoms at irregular intervals."D) "Patients with P. vivax malaria rarely encounter drug resistance."
Answer: B) "Patients with P. vivax malaria experience relapse with increased frequency over time."
Explanation:
The relapse is likely to occur in P. vivax malaria. The P.vivax is the dormant parasite remain in the liver. As the time passes the relapse with this parasite becomes less frequent and stops entirely. The relapse does not occur with the strain of P. falciparum malaria. This is because the P. falciparum does not produce hypnozoites that can become dormant. Thus the symptoms of P. falciparum appear at irregular intervals as compared to the P. vivax whose symptoms remain at peak at every 48 hours. The drug resistance for P. vivax is also uncommon.
You hear a news report about a new asthma treatment. What information is NOT something you would want to know before asking your doctor if this treatment was right for you? Was the drug tested in a randomized clinical trial? How many participants were in the trial? In what populations were the clinical trials conducted? Was there a statistically significant difference between the effect of the new drug and the treatment used in the control group? Is asthma a genetic disorder?
Answer:
Is asthma a genetic disorder
Explanation:
Because if you have asthma and you need/want to get the treatment then why does it really matter if it’s genetic or not. So, you don’t need to know that.
To assess if a new asthma treatment is right for you, details about the clinical trials, such as randomization, participant number, demographics, and treatment efficacy, are vital. However, the question of whether asthma is a genetic disorder is not pertinent to the immediate consideration of a treatment's appropriateness.
When considering whether a new asthma treatment reported in the news might be right for you, there are several pieces of information you would want to know. However, the question of whether asthma is a genetic disorder is not directly relevant to the efficacy or appropriateness of the specific treatment in question. Instead, you should be concerned about the clinical trials that tested the new treatment's efficacy.
Information about whether the drug was tested in a randomized clinical trial, the number of participants, the populations in which the clinical trials were conducted, and whether there was a statistically significant difference between the effect of the new drug and the treatment used in the control group is crucial. This data can give insight into the reliability and applicability of the treatment outcomes to you as a potential user of the medication.
Randomized clinical trials ensure that the treatment groups are randomly assigned and often employ a double-blind method to provide unbiased and accurate results. These trials might range from a few dozen participants in early-phase trials to hundreds or even thousands in the later stages before a drug reaches the market. The responses and side effects are closely monitored to establish a treatment's safety and efficacy.
Which of the following would likely be absorbed in the stomach?
A.) a piece of candy
B.) a serving of alcohol
C.) a serving of lean chicken breast
D.) a serving of pasta
Absorption is mainly done in intestine. Very few substances can be absorbed in stomach which includes, alcohol, asprin, non-steroid drugs and other lipid soluble substances.
What is the site of absorption?The main site of absorption is intestine. Intestine has finger like projections called villi, which helps in absorption.
Only few substances can be absorbed in stomach, these substances are lipid soluble, including, alcohol.
Thus, B is correct option.
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The nurse is reviewing the health record of a client who developed posttraumatic stress disorder (PTSD) following a spouse's cardiac arrest and death. The health record states that the client experienced derealization during the traumatic event. What assessment finding would substantiate this statement?a. The client reports that the client cannot drive down the street where the event occurred
b. The client states that the client cannot remember what happened during and immediately after the event
c. The client reports that the client has become "obsessed" with monitoring the client's own heart rate and blood pressure
d. The client states that the client no longer has any hope for the future
Answer:
b. The client states that the client cannot remember what happened during and immediately after the event.
Explanation:
Post-traumatic stress disorder (PTSD) is a mental condition that is caused after a person witnesses a terrifying or traumatic event. People who suffer from post-traumatic stress disorder always seem to be afraid when they are not in any form of danger, and this occurs due to flashbacks or even nightmares of the terrifying event.
Derealization is a situation where a person feels a traumatic event he experienced isn't real, which often leads to loss of memories.
Since the client developed PTSD, and the client's health record states the client experienced derealization during the traumatic event, the best statement from the client to substantiate this assessment is option (b).
Children's writing experiences are important because they
A. represent their daily experiences.
B. instill school habits.
-C. teach manual dexterity.
D. show mastery of the alphabet.
Answer:C
Explanation:
Melanie's therapist suggests that when she feels anxious, Melanie should attribute her arousal to her highly reactive nervous system and shift her attention to playing a game with her preschool child. This suggestion best illustrates ___________.
Answer:
Melanie's therapist suggests that when she feels anxious, Melanie should attribute her arousal to her highly reactive nervous system and shift her attention to playing a game with her preschool child. This suggestion best illustrates cognitive-behavior therapy.
Explanation:
Cognitive-behavioral therapy is based on the relationship between thoughts, emotions, physical sensations and behaviors. It is used for many anxiety disorders, such as obsessive compulsive disorder (OCD), panic attacks, and post-traumatic stress disorder. Cognitive behavioral therapy often focuses on specific problems, using a goal-oriented approach, that is, to help recognize the patterns of thinking and behavior that might be contributing to the person's problems. The cognitive-behavioral treatment for anxiety then consists of learning to interpret situations more objectively and understand and decrease physical sensations.
A mother comes running toward you screaming that something is wrong with her son. After sizing up the scene and obtaining consent, you perform an initial assessment and find that the child has a pulse, but is not moving or breathing. You perform rescue breathing at a rate of 1 rescue breath about once every:_________.
Answer:
every 5 seconds.
Explanation:
This question wants to test out knowledge on Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation(CPR) and Automated external defibrillator(AED). When a person's heart is no more functioning the way it should there is a need to perform a Cardio-Pulmonary Resuscitation(CPR) for that person and the procedure during such emergency is given below;
(1). Always remember to size the scene that is one should make sure that the environment is safe for the patient.
(2). Assess the patient for the first time before calling for ambulance.
(3). Then, perform the second assessment of the patient which involves you to perform a "rescue breathing at a rate of 1 rescue breath about once every" 5 seconds.
Answer:
A mother comes running toward you screaming that something is wrong with her son. After sizing up the scene and obtaining consent, you perform an initial assessment and find that the child has a pulse, but is not moving or breathing. You perform rescue breathing at a rate of 1 rescue breath about once every: 3 to 5 seconds.
Explanation:
Rescue breathing is a technique that introduces air in the lungs of someone that can no breath on its own. The air goes to the patient by a pumping mask, a machine, or mouth to mouth. The recommended rescue breath for children is 1 every 3 to 5 seconds. This is very important because performing excessive rescue breaths or a few of them can be dangerous.
Until very recently, it was thought that peptic ulcers were caused by stress, spicy foods, alcohol consumption, and excess stomach acid production. Why was it controversial to suggest that a bacterium could be a root cause for peptic ulcers
Answer: Until recently, scientists did not believe that bacteria could survive and reproduce in the harsh, acidic environment of the stomach.
Explanation:
The main fact that was associated with the survival of the bacteria in this harsh environment. Peptic ulcer is caused due to stress, alcohol consumption, and excess acid production from the stomach.
Basically the pH of the stomach is highly acidic due to the production of hydrochloric acid. So the scientist believed that none of the bacterial species could survive in such environment but now after studies it has been proven that there are some disease causing bacteria that can survive in stomach and cause peptic ulcer.
The map above shows air release, or emissions, sites across the United States. These sites include locations such as smokestacks, factories, and high vehicle traffic areas. Which of the following statements demonstrates how these data relate to potential externalities?
Answer:
b
Explanation:
yes
The data in the map show potential negative externalities for people living in industrial areas.
The displayed data on the map highlights potential negative externalities affecting residents in industrial zones. These externalities represent unintended adverse effects stemming from industrial activities, such as pollution, noise, and decreased air quality.
The concentration of industries in these areas can lead to health risks, reduced quality of life, and environmental degradation for nearby inhabitants. This emphasizes the importance of regulatory measures and urban planning to mitigate these externalities, ensuring the well-being of individuals living in proximity to industrial sites while promoting sustainable development and healthier living conditions.
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------------The given question is incomplete, the complete question is:
"The map shows air release, or emissions, sites across the United States. These sites include locations such as smokestacks, factories, and high vehicle traffic areas. Which of the following statements best reflects the content in the map?
The data show potential negative externalities for people living in industrial areas.
The data show potential negative externalities for loss of public transportation.
The data show potential positive externalities for job growth.
The data show potential positive externalities for urban development"-------------
impaired drivers __________
• should drive only in daylight hours
• rarely affect others in vehicle or vehicles on the road with them
•may experience emotional, societal, financial, legal and physical consequences that last a lifetime
• rarely suffer consequences
Answer:Impaired drivers _____________________________. May experience emotional, societal, financial, legal, and physical consequences that last a lifetime. Rarely suffer consequences. Rarely affect others in the vehicle or vehicles on the road with them. Should drive only in the daylight hours
Explanation:
eat cramps are caused by
heavy sweating
sun exposure
discomfort
flavored water
George, a 22-year-old mechanic, always seems to have a cloud over his head. For the past three years, he has had problems sleeping and he has little appetite or enjoyment of food. While he may sometimes seem to be relatively content for short periods of time, this happens very rarely and it never lasts for more than a week. If George were to seek help for his negative mood state, which of the following diagnoses would he most likely receive?
a. Adjustment disorder with depressed moodb. Chronic adjustment disorder with depressed moodc. Bipolar IId. Major depressive disorder
Answer:Major depressive disorder--- D
Explanation: Major depressive disorder is a common clinical depression disorder that affect how an individual thinks, feels and performs his or her daily activities in all areas of their lives due to accumulation of different thoughts in their head leading to distortion in mood and behavior affecting their sleeping pattern and can cause loss of appetite.
George, a 22-year-old mechanic, who always seems to have seem to have such sleeping and appetite problems combined with accumulation of thoughts in his head should see help and would likely be diagnosed with MDD, Major Depressive Disorder.
Nolan, a 10-year-old, is the envy of his classmates because he doesn't have a set bedtime and is free to stay up as late as he wants. Nolan is a well-adjusted child who feels that his parents love him. Based on this description, his parents are MOST likely:
a. permissive.b. authoritative.c. authoritarian.d. rejecting-neglecting.
Answer: a. permissive
Explanation:
A permissive behavior is a behavior which is characterized by excessive freedom. This kind of behavior is allowed by some people but may not be tolerated by other people of the society. This kind of behavior can be disapproved by the people.
According to the given situation, the Nolan is allowed remain free to stay late this is a kind of freedom privileged he is associated with. His behavior is permissive to the parent but may not be similar to the schedule and lifestyle of fellow classmates.
What are the three diet or products you should beware of?
Answer:
Explanation:
certainproducts or programs beware of high costs, pressure to buy special foods or pills
A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. When you arrive at the scene, the child is conscious, crying, and clinging to her mother. Her skin is hot and moist. The mother tells you that the seizure lasted approximately 5 minutes. She further tells you that her daughter has no history of seizures, but has had a recent ear infection. You should:A. cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital.B. suspect that the child has meningitis and transport at once.C. place the child in cold water to attempt to reduce her fever.D. allow the mother to drive her daughter to the hospital.
Answer:
I would say A.
Explanation:
I think this because this drops the temperature so the fever will be gone. Then I would take the child to a hospital once the fever has dropped. Hope this helps! : )
A 2-year-old female has experienced a seizure. You should A. Cool the child with tepid water and transport to the hospital.
Based on the information provided, the 2-year-old female had a seizure that lasted approximately 5 minutes and has no history of seizures but recently had an ear infection. Her skin is hot and moist, indicating that she may have a fever. In this situation, it is important to lower the child's body temperature as a high fever can sometimes trigger seizures in young children.
The best course of action is to cool the child with tepid water, not cold water, as cold water can cause shock or discomfort. Tepid water will help to lower the child's body temperature gradually and safely. However, it is essential to avoid extreme temperature changes, as they can be harmful.
After cooling the child, she should be transported to the hospital for further evaluation and treatment. Since the child has had a seizure and has no history of seizures, it is crucial to have her assessed by a healthcare professional to determine the cause and provide appropriate care. It is not recommended to allow the mother to drive the child to the hospital, as the child's condition needs medical attention.
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Spencer is a 42-year-old elementary teacher and maintains a physically active lifestyle. He needs 2,800 kilocalories daily to maintain a healthy weight. Given the Acceptable Macronutrient Distribution Range (AMDR), what is the maximum daily kilocalories from fat that Spencer should consume?
Your answer should be 980 kcal
Controls are needed in a case-control study to evaluate whether the frequency of a factor or past exposure among the cases is different from that among comparable persons who do not have the disease under investigation True False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
A study that compares two groups of people: those who have the sickness or condition being examined (cases) and a group of people who don't have it but are quite similar to the cases (controls).Thus, it is true.
What Controls are needed in a case-control study?The control group is used to estimate the proportion of the source population that is exposed and not exposed.
It is necessary to sample the “controls” in a way that is independent of the exposure, which means that choosing them should not be more (or less) likely if they have the relevant exposure. The comparison group, or “controls,” ought to reflect the population from which the cases were drawn.
Therefore, it is true that among the cases is different from that among comparable persons who do not have the disease under investigation.
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An action potential moves along an axon due to the sequential opening of voltage-gated Na+ channels. The diagram below shows voltage-gated Na+ channels separated by a short distance in the plasma membrane of an axon. Initially (left panel), only channel (a) is open. Within a very short time (right panel), channel (b) also opens. A diagram of two panels with an arrow between them showing Na plus ions outside a cell and inside a cell, separated by a plasma membrane with two Na plus channels labeled (a) and (b). In the first panel, the (a) channel is open and ions flow from outside to inside the cell. In the second panel, both channels are open. Which statement correctly describes what causes the second voltage-gated Na+ channel to open?
Answer:
What causes the second voltage-gated Na+ to open is the charge changes caused by the flow of ions through the first channel.
Explanation:
The second channel is a voltage-gated Na+ channel, we know that voltage-gated channels open their gates when there is a change in the voltage of the cell, by opening the first ion channel, there is a rush of ions to the inside of the cell that modifies the cell's voltage due to the new charges. The second channel is affected by this, and as a consequence, it opens its gates.
Answer:
When depolarization occurs Na+ ion voltage gated Channels opens.And under normal procedures, there is influx of sodium ions into the axonplasm. A brief refractive period must occur so that, there is a short period of tentative rest where the Gated Sodium channels remains short.
However, if this period is not present as in this scenario, as Na+ move in and out of A, continuously, the ionic distribution in A, causes changes in charge distribution in B, which leads to opening of Na+ channels in B.
Explanation: