Answer:b) Blood vessels supplying the retina become weak and bleeding occurs.
Explanation:
Diabetes milletus affects the blood vessels of the light sensitive cells of the retina. Thus the blood supply to retina stops. This leads to the loss of vision and blindness in adults. This is because of the uncontrolled blood sugar levels in case of diabetes milletus.
Amid Haq, a 33-year-old Muslim male, and his wife have been visiting Amid's brother in the United States for the past 2 months. Amid has been having trouble walking and has fallen several times because his legs have become weak. He is also having difficulty talking and has experienced some choking episodes. Amid's brother takes Amid to the brother's healthcare provider (HCP), who admits him into the hospital with a diagnosis of rule out Guillain-Barré syndrome?
Answer:
The diagnosis is correct.
Explanation:
Guillain-Barré syndrome, also known as acute idiopathic polyradiculoneuropathy or immunomediated acute polyradiculopathy, is an acquired nervous system disease (neuropathy), probably of an autoimmune nature, marked by loss of myelin sheath and tendon reflexes. It manifests as acute inflammation of these nerves and sometimes nerve roots, and can affect people of any age, especially older adults.
The predominant symptom of Guillain-Barré syndrome is progressive and ascending muscle weakness, accompanied or not by paresthesias (changes in sensitivity such as itching, burning, numbness, etc.), which initially manifests in the legs and may cause motor and flaccid paralysis. As the disease progresses, weakness can affect the trunk, arms, neck, and affect the muscles of the face, oropharynx, breathing, and swallowing. We can see that Amid Haq has similar symptoms, so we can conclude that after a test, Amid Haq would be diagnosed with Guillain-Barre syndrome.
Aaron complains to his parents that he is experiencing significant pain in his right leg, and he does not have much of an appetite. Aaron's father takes him to the doctor for a thorough exam. After getting lab results, the doctor reports, "The pain is his leg is likely due to the presence of misshapen red blood cells." Of the following disorders, which is the most likely diagnosis of Aaron's condition?
A) Sickle-cell anemia
B) Down syndrome
C) Tay-Sachs disease
D) Klinefelter's syndrome
Answer:
A) Sickle-cell anemia
Explanation: People with this disorder have atypical hemoglobin molecules called hemoglobin S, which can distort red blood cells into a sickle, or crescent, shape.
The most likely diagnosis of Aaron's condition is A) Sickle-cell anemia.
Sickle-cell anemia is a genetic disorder characterized by the presence of misshapen red blood cells, which can lead to pain in various parts of the body, including the legs. This condition is caused by a mutation in the hemoglobin gene, which results in abnormal hemoglobin known as hemoglobin S. The red blood cells become rigid and sickle-shaped, leading to a variety of complications, including pain crises, anemia (due to the rapid breakdown of the abnormal red blood cells), and increased susceptibility to infections. The symptoms Aaron is experiencing, such as significant pain in his leg and a decreased appetite, are consistent with the vaso-occlusive crises that occur in sickle-cell anemia, where the sickle-shaped cells can block blood flow to certain areas of the body.
The other options listed do not directly relate to the symptoms described:
B) Down syndrome is a genetic disorder caused by the presence of an extra chromosome 21 (trisomy 21). It is associated with a range of physical and intellectual disabilities, but it does not typically cause misshapen red blood cells or leg pain as seen in Aaron's case.
C) Tay-Sachs disease is a rare genetic disorder that results in the destruction of nerve cells in the brain and spinal cord. It is characterized by progressive neurological deterioration, but it does not cause misshapen red blood cells.
D) Klinefelter's syndrome is a condition that occurs in males when they have an extra X chromosome. It can lead to a variety of developmental and physical abnormalities, but it is not associated with the presence of misshapen red blood cells.
Therefore, based on the symptoms of leg pain and the lab results indicating misshapen red blood cells, sickle-cell anemia is the most likely diagnosis for Aaron's condition.
Kyle, a 5-year-old boy, has been growing by leaps and bounds; his height is 100% above normal for his age. He has been complaining of headaches and vision problems. A CT scan reveals a large pituitary tumor.
A) Which hormone is being secreted in excess?
B) Which condition will Kyle exhibit if corrective measures are not taken?
C) What is the probable cause of the headaches and visual problems?
Answer:
The human body thrives on the balance of all its factors, including hormones that mediate the responses that our bodies give in different circumstances. During childhood development, these balances are vital for normal functioning. In Kyle´s case, this balance has been disrupted completely by the appearance of a pituitary tumor, which is clearly affecting the secretion of hormones, especially those who make his body enlarge and grow. Given this small background, the answers to your questions, are:
1. The hormone that is being affected by being secreted in excess by the pituitary is the hGH, human growth hormone, also known as somatotropin. It is the one responsible to signal all cells of the body to allow growth and development.
2. The condition that Kyle will exhibit if the corrective measures are not taken in time, is known as gigantism, or giantism. A condition in which the body enlarges beyond what is expected and there is disbalance in the height, and size of certain parts of the body.
3. The probable cause of the headaches and also the visual problems that Kyle is displaying is that the tumor in the pituitary is growing to protrude inferiorly from the gland and it is probably pressing on the optic chiasma of the child.
While performing a primary assessment on an unresponsive adult who has been rescued from the water, you find that they have only occasional gasps, no pulse and no severe life- threatening bleeding. Which of the following should you do next?a. Immediately begin CPR, starting with chest compressions.
b. Give 5 abdominal thrusts.
c. Place the victim in the recovery position.
d. Give 2 ventilations and begin CPR.
Answer:
A)Begin CPR. start chest compressions
During functional movement patterns, a client demonstrates excessive spinal motion. Which core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual?
Answer:
The answer to the question: Which core exercises should the trainer recognize as being most appropriate for this individual, would be: two-leg floor bridge, also known as gluteal bridge.
Explanation:
When talking about core strength, and core muscles, we are talking about some of the most powerful, and central, muscles of the body. Their task is not just to protect the soft internal organs of the abdomen, but also help stabilize the spinal column and the pelvis itself. They are central for correct posture and when worked well, they prevent damages to the back and the spinal column. One of the most potent ways to work these core muscles and stabilize posture, is the gluteal bridge, or two-leg floor bridge, where the gluteal, and other abdominal and back muscles must colaborate to raise the core upwards, without the help of the limbs, whose only job is to serve as anchors.
Clinical epidemiology focuses on the application of epidemiologic methods to assess all of the following except:
a. Diagnosis.
b. Prognosis.
c. Treatment in clinical settings.
d. All of the above.
Answer: b. Prognosis
Explanation:
Clinical epidemiology applies the knowledge of epidemiologic methods to find the assess the diagnosis, treatment in clinical settings and screening of the disease.
Prognosis is not involved in the discipline of clinical epidemiology. As in this duration, description, function and course of disease are included. Also the intermittent crises and unpredictable crises are also included in this.
To achieve a more accurate result, the formula for calculating blood alcohol content for a particular person should be adjusted to reflect which of the following?
a) Weight
b) Tolerance
c) Environment
d) Time
Answer:
a) Weight
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various medical professionals, I can say that based on the information provided within the question this test should be adjusted based on the persons weight. This is because a bigger person would have more quarts of blood in their body and thus be less affected by a certain amount of alcohol as a person that weighs less. It is said that the amount of blood in a persons body is about 7% of the individuals body weight.
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A patient was climbing a ladder, slipped on a rung, and fell on the right side of the chest. X-ray studies reveal three rib fractures, and the patient is complaining of pain with inspiration. What is the anticipated treatment for this patient?a. Chest strappingb. Mechanical ventilationc. Coughing and deep breathing with pillow splintingd. Thoracentesis
Answer:
The correct answer for the question: What is the anticipated treatment for this patient, when talking about a patient who fell from a ladder, fell on the right side of the chest, was shown to have three ribs fractured and is now having pain at inspiration, would be: Coughing and deep breathing with pillow splinting.
Explanation:
This type of procedure can be done by healthcare professionals and it can also be done by the patient, and it will help with the pain as it will protect the injured area when using the pillow, retain the excessive expansion of the chest while inspiring, and the coughing will help with relaxation of the muscles, while deep breathing will allow the chest cavity to function but without much mechanical injury, caused by rapid breathing, or excessive expansion. The point is to use a pillow as a splint, and ask the patient to hold it against the chest, while inspiring. The coughing will help the muscles relax, and increase oxygenation, the deep breathing will further enhance oxygenation, without overexerting the chest cavity, and thus the ribs, and the pillow splint will further protect the injury site by becoming almost a limit to the expansion of the chest. In the case of this patient, given his injury, it is the most effective treatment to use.
From the list below, select all of the diseases that are strongly related to bad eating habits. anorexia nervosa bulimia cancer diabetes emphysema cardiovascular disease
Answer:
The Last Three Options
Explanation:
The diseases that are strongly related to bad eating habits are anorexia nervosa.
What is anorexia nervosa?Anorexia nervosa, also known as just "anorexia," would be an eating condition that makes sufferers obsessive about food as well as weight.
What is eating habits?A balanced diet that limits salt, sugar, saturated fats, as well as trans fats from industrial production is crucial for good health.
Therefore, the diseases that are strongly related to bad eating habits are anorexia nervosa.
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A client is to undergo surgery to repair a ruptured Achilles tendon and application of a brace. The client demonstrates understanding of his activity limitations when he states that he will need to wear the brace for which length of time?2 to 4 weeks6 to 8 weeks10 to 12 weeks14 to 16 weeks
Answer: 6 to 8 weeks
Explanation:
Achilles tendon rupture involves the complete may be partial tear that happens when the tendon is stretched beyond its flexibility. This can occur due to forceful jumping, pivoting, and running. An injury to the tendon can also occur due to falling or tripping.
The ruptured Achilles tendon can be repaired through surgery. Post surgery requires the application of a brace which is required to be worn for a period of 6 to 8 weeks.
Early recognition of cardiac arrest and activation of an emergency response protocol; immediate high-quality CPR; rapid defibrillation; effective BLS and ALS care and transportation; and effective post-cardiac arrest care at a hospital are the links in which chain of survival?
Answer:
Improving survival from sudden cardiac arrest
Explanation:
The American Hearth Association, in 1991, release this publication, in which is mention all the steps to be done in case of a cardiac arrest. Since this incident occurs suddenly, any person from the community can act to help a person in case of cardiac arrest. Al least until the EMS personnel are in the place of the incident.
Twelve-year-old Ella will be in middle school next year. She will be going through many developmental changes in the next several years. Define one of the developmental stages of each of the researchers below, and describe how it might apply to Ella.
a. Piaget's stages of cognitive development
b. Erikson's stages of social development
c. Kohlberg's stages of moral development
Answer:
b. Erikson's stages of social development
Explanation:
personally I think in middle school almost every pre teen will go through a lot of social developments, I believe that once they get to high school that's when they're developing more of moral than social development cause they're getting older and growing into adulthood. Meanwhile middle schoolers are still oblivious and just wanna hang out with friends and have a good time
A client is being admitted to the medical unit after being seen in the emergency department. Which statement by the nurse indicates an understanding of the importance of the appropriate timing of a health assessment?
Answer:
"I'm going to assess the client now so that I can begin formulating the care plan."
Explanation:
Whenever a patient needs to be interned, it is important for the medical staff to create a care plan specific to that patient's problem. Only in this way will the patient have the chance to improve his health and leave the hospital as soon as possible. This care plan can only be formulated after a nurse assesses the patient's condition. For this reason, the best statement that the nurse can make in the case of the patient exposed in the question is "I'm going to assist the client now that I can begin formulating the care plan."
A scientist, Dr. Sigma, states that a chemical taken internally once a day will prevent the common cold. However, no other scientist is able to duplicate the results. The statement by Dr. Sigma is ___.a. a lawb. a hypothesisc. a theoryd. not valid
Answer:
d. not valid
Explanation:
In the scientific method an experiment is a set of actions about phenomena. The experiment is fundamental in the empirical approach to the acquisition of a deeper knowledge about the physical world. Depending on the philosophical perspective an experience can lead to objective and complete understanding of the physical world or just an aid in improving subjective knowledge through fallibilism. Dr. Sigma's statement about a chemical that if taken internally once a day will prevent the common cold, must have come about through a scientific experiment. However, Dr Sigma's conclusions cannot be considered valid.
This is because, for the conclusions made through an experiment to be considered valid and correct, other scientists must be able to duplicate the results. No scientist has been able to duplicate the results found by Dr. Sigma, so we can conclude that Dr. Sigma's statement is invalid.
n order to achieve maximum results from aerobic exercise, one should maintain one's heart rate at a certain level. A 45-yr-old woman with a resting heart rate of 75 beats per minute should keep her heart rate between 135 and 155 beats per minute while exercising. She checks her pulse for 10 sec while exercising. What should the number of beats be?
Answer:
between 22 an 25 beats
Explanation:
If this lady need to present a heart rate between 135 and 155 beats per minute while she is exercising.
To calculate the beats in 10 sec, is with a simple rule of 3:
If in 60 sec = 135 beats
10 sec = x X= (10 x 135)/60 = 22 beats
And then calculate the higher range
If in 60 sec = 155 beats
10 sec = x x = (10 x 155)/60 = 25 beats
The nurse as a leader is teaching about the Organizational Behavior Modification (OB Mod) theory of leadership to a group of student nurses. Which statement made by the student nurse indicates effective learning?1. Renewing
2. Explaining Correct3. Developing trust4. Affirming values
Answer:
3. Developing trust
Explanation:
Organizational Behavior Modification or OB mod is a theory or lesson given to the employees in business in order to learn and develop the employees to behave and follow good manners and practices to remain optimistic.
It encourages good behaviour and develop mutual trust and bonding among the people. A sense of positive environment is focused and people learn to work together and help each other to accomplish work. Thus trust develops and people cooperate with each other.
Thus the answer is 3. Developing trust
78 Y/O female was admitted with heart failure to the ICU from home. By day 3 of hospitalization, she had improved and was transferred to the medical cardiac unit. The pressure injury survey was conducted on day 4 of hospitalization and the survey team saw a Stage 1 area of persistent, nonblanchable redness on her right heel. Review of her hospital admission assessment record revealed that she had 4+ lower right leg edema and brown discoloration of the lower calf and ankle skin. A 2 cm by 4 cm wound with serous drainage also was also documented over her medial lower leg midpoint between her calf and ankle. The skin assessment documented on arrival to the medical cardiac unit noted a Stage 1 pressure injury at this site in addition to the wound, edema, and brown discoloration on her left lower leg as noted on the admission assessment. For the pressure injury survey, this would be reported as:
Answer:
A Hospital Acquired Pressure Injury Only
Freddy has been sucking his thumb for a few weeks. His parents would prefer him to use a pacifier, so they begin to offer one, but Freddy rejects it and continues to suck his thumb. Freddy is most clearly in stage _____ of Piaget's theory of sensorimotor development.a) four b) two c) one d) three
Answer:
c) one
Explanation:
Piaget theory states that a child can modify it reflections. In this stage the child starts to search or experiment certain like using it senses like the fingers, the smell, the suck. This is also associated with the security of the mother, because is a natural reflex of how the sucking is an automatic reflex to cover the security and the need of the child.
Freddy is in stage three of Piaget's sensorimotor development, where he can act on his own preference, demonstrated by his continued thumb sucking despite being offered a pacifier.
Explanation:Freddy is demonstrating behaviors aligned with stage three of Piaget's theory of sensorimotor development. In this stage, which happens typically between 4-8 months of age, babies start to act on objects outside them. They can protrude objections, including their own body parts, not only due to reflexes but because they have learned to do so.
This is exhibited in Freddy's proclivity to continue to suck his thumb even when offered a pacifier. He has reached a stage in his development in which he can express an independent preference and choice, indicating a disconnect between his desired action (thumb sucking) and the option presented by his parents (using a pacifier).
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Question 1 (3 points): Mike wants to improve his endurance because he wants to try out for the cross country running team in the fall. He works out at the local gym a few days each week and does a variety of activities, but he still feels like his cardiovascular fitness needs improvement. What would be the best thing for Mike to do next?
Answer:
He should reevaluate his workout to see if he needs to add more aerobic exercise or adjust the frequency of his workouts.
Explanation:
Physical exercise is very important for health, we all know that, however, exercise can bring some beneficial modifications to our body such as improving our endurance. Mike, for example, wants to improve his endurance and improve his cardiovascular fitness, so Mike needs to know which exercise is most appropriate for him to achieve these goals. What Mike should do then is reevaluate his workout to see if he needs to add more aerobic exercise or adjust the frequency of his exercise.
In which of the following domains is the central focus on why and how the government regulates private individuals and corporations in the name of protecting the health, safety, and welfare of the general public?
a) Healthcare policy and law
b) Public health policy and law
c) Bioethics
d) Police powers of the state.
Answer:
b) Public health policy and law
Explanation:
Health laws and public policies are programs and actions made by the government that have the function of putting into practice the health services that are provided by law. The right to health for all citizens is guaranteed in the Federal Constitution as a fundamental social right. It is through public health policies that this right is put into practice through the provision of health services to the population. In addition, public health laws and policies are the governmental sphere responsible for regulating private individuals and companies in the name of protecting the health, safety and well-being of the general public.
You are completing an assessment of a client with end stage liver disease. Which of the following findings is most important to notify to the physician?
A. Expanding ecchymosis
B. Ascites and a serum albumin of 3.2g/dl
C. HCT of 37% and a HGB of 12g/dl
D. Occasional disorientation and forgetfulness
Answer:
A. Expanding ecchymosis
Explanation:
Terminal liver disease occurs when the liver cannot effectively participate in the body's detoxification process and all other metabolism functions and can cause signs and symptoms such as jaundice, swelling or even brain damage. This disease is the most serious consequence of chronic liver disease and can lead to death if a transplant is not performed.
Some situations may aggravate the patient's condition and therefore should be notified to the attending physician promptly. One such situation is the expansion of bruise. Bruise is a subcutaneous bleeding that can cause a major problem in patients with end-stage liver disease.
Juliana's uncle was diagnosed with gallbladder disease. Eventually he had to have his gallbladder removed. Juliana, a biology major, knew that the gallbladder is necessary for fat digestion and worried about her uncle's long-term health. How does his body digest fat without this accessory organ?A. His body cannot digest fat and he needs to avoid all fat for the rest of his life.B. His liver continues to produce bile for fat metabolism, but the bile is secreted directly into the duodenum.C. Since his body cannot store bile, he must take bile in the form of a supplement with meals.D. His body does not produce gastric lipase, and he must take a gastric lipase supplement with meals.
Answer:
Option (B).
Explanation:
Bile is an important digestive juice that helps in the emulsification of fat. Bile is produced in the liver and stored in the gall bladder before releasing into the intestine.
Any injury in gallbladder may results in the removal of the gallbladder of the organism. After removal of bladder, the bile is produced by liver but can not be stored in the organ. The bile is directly passed into the duodenum and helps in the digestion of lipids.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
The liver continues to produce bile for fat digestion after gallbladder removal, secreting it directly into the duodenum. The body can still digest fats without the gallbladder, although dietary adjustments might be necessary.
Explanation:Juliana's concern about her uncle's ability to digest fat after gallbladder removal is common. However, the liver continues to produce bile, which is necessary for fat metabolism. After gallbladder removal, bile is no longer stored and concentrated but is instead secreted directly into the duodenum.
Even without a gallbladder, the liver still aids in digestion by continuously secreting a more dilute bile into the duodenum, where it emulsifies fats, making them easier for digestive enzymes to break down. Surgical removal of the gallbladder doesn't seriously affect digestion for this reason, although some patients may need to adjust their diets to smaller, more frequent meals to accommodate the more constant flow of bile into the intestines.
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Which of the following statements about the top ten great public health achievements of the 20th century is TRUE?
a. Deaths from infectious diseases have been eliminated Injury deaths have greatly increased.
b. Deaths from heart disease and stroke have been greatly reduced.
c. There have been no changes in maternal and child health.
Answer:
b. Deaths from heart disease and stroke have been greatly reduced.
Explanation:
Since the 50's, there has been a more than half reduction in death rates from cardiovascular disease. Fighting these diseases was a priority because they were the leading cause of death at the time.
Dietary changes, reduced tobacco use and improvements in health care systems (for faster detection and more effective treatment) were key factors in reducing the risk of death from heart disease.
The true statement about the top ten great public health achievements of the 20th century is that deaths from heart disease and stroke have been greatly reduced.
Explanation:The true statement about the top ten great public health achievements of the 20th century is: Deaths from heart disease and stroke have been greatly reduced.
These achievements are a result of various factors, such as the development of immunizations, improvements in sanitation and public health practices, and advancements in medical treatments. The rise in life expectancy can be attributed to clean water systems, behavioral changes like handwashing and smoking reduction, and the availability of drugs that reduce the risks of high blood pressure.
Overall, these achievements have had a significant impact on public health, contributing to decreased mortality rates from heart disease and stroke and improving the overall well-being of the population.
A group of nursing students are studying information about childhood cancers in preparation for a class examination. They are reviewing how childhood cancers differ from adult cancers. The group demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify what location as an unlikely site for childhood cancer?
1) Brain
2) Kidney
3) Lymph
4) Bladder
Answer:
The best answer for the statement: The group demonstrates understanding of the information when they identify what location as an unlikely site for childhood cancer, would be, 4) Bladder.
Explanation:
Talking about cancer in children is already hard enough. Their bodies, which are so new, should not be undergoing a condition that was once thought to be an attribution of old age. However, statistis show a rise in the prevalence of cancer in children, as well as adults. Incidence of cancer, and locations of such a condition, differ between adults and children, with children having, unfortunately a high incidence of lukemias, followed by tumors in the brain, lymphatic system, kidneys, muscles and bones. However, one cancer type that is not prevalent in children, is bladder cancer. This is a type that is most prevalent in adults, though it cannot be said that it will never appear. However, it is not common.
Mrs. Walters is enrolled in her state’s Medicaid program in addition to Medicare. What should she be aware of when considering enrollment in a Medicare Advantage plan?
Answer:
Medicaid will coordinate benefits only with Medicaid participating providers
Explanation:
Medicaid is a program funded and administered by federal and state governments. Firstly, it is a law program, different from Medicare, in that it is a social care program based on basic needs. Eligibility for Medicaid depends on the person's age (over 65) or a physical or mental disability that requires them to seek medical attention. Financial criteria based on income and assets are then evaluated. Regarding Medicaid, a client considering enrolling in the Medicare Advantage plan should be aware that Medicaid will only coordinate benefits with participating Medicaid providers.
Final answer:
Mrs. Walters, enrolled in both Medicare and Medicaid, should understand the network restrictions and additional benefits of Medicare Advantage plans, as well as how these plans may interact with her Medicaid coverage. She should thoroughly review plan details for any potential impacts on her current health care services and provider availability.
Explanation:
Mrs. Walters, who is enrolled in both Medicare and Medicaid, should be informed about the implications of enrolling in a Medicare Advantage plan. It is important to note that Medicare is a federally funded health insurance program primarily for individuals 65 or older, certain younger people with disabilities, and people with End-Stage Renal Disease (ESRD) or ALS. Medicaid is a joint federal and state program that assists eligible low-income individuals and those with disabilities in accessing health care. A crucial aspect Mrs. Walters must consider is that fewer health care providers may accept Medicaid due to lower payments compared to Medicare; this is a factor when choosing a Medicare Advantage plan as it can limit the network of available providers.
Medicare Advantage plans, also known as Part C, are an alternative to original Medicare (Part A and Part B) and typically offer additional benefits, potentially including prescription drug coverage (Part D), dental, vision, and wellness programs. However, these plans often come with specific network restrictions, requiring care to be provided through in-network doctors and hospitals. Since Mrs. Walters also receives Medicaid benefits, she should review the compatibility of her Medicaid coverage with any Medicare Advantage plan she is considering to ensure she doesn't lose access to her current doctors or health services provided by Medicaid.
It is essential for beneficiaries like Mrs. Walters to understand the coverage details and cost implications of enrolling in a Medicare Advantage plan while on Medicaid. These include weighing the additional benefits against potential network limitations and costs associated with the Advantage plan. Detailed plan comparisons and discussions with Medicare representatives or healthcare advisors can provide clarity on the best options for her specific situation.
A nurse is educating a client on the basal body temperature method as a form of contraception. Which statement by the client indicates and understanding of when she can expect to see a rise in her temperature?
Answer:
"Immediately following ovulation my temperature will increase."
Explanation:
One type of contraceptive method is basal temperature, which is based on body temperature analysis to detect the fertile period. This measurement should be done daily, for graphing, and with the body at rest (after at least six hours of sleep). The temperature should always be measured with the same thermometer to avoid variations. In case of breakage, the material change should be noted on the chart. The place to check the temperature can be oral, rectal or vaginal and should be the same for the entire cycle.
During the woman's cycle, at the time of ovulation, the yellow body, which secretes estrogen and progesterone, forms. The latter is related to the rise in temperature by a few tenths of a degree due to its thermogenic effect. To confirm that this phase has begun, it is important for the woman to understand if there was a difference of at least 0.2ºC between one temperature and another. For this reason, the client exposed in the question, shows that she understood everything about this contraceptive method when she says "Immediately after ovulation, my temperature will rise."
Behavioral science includes anthropology, microbiology, and psychology. True False
Answer:
True it includes those because they check how u behave and act
the answer would be true i had a test with the same question.
While you are returning from lunch, a frantic woman flags you down and states that she just found a young child on the roadside who appears to have been hit by a car. She is not sure if the child is breathing. You should immediately:A) inform the woman that she will need to calm down.B) advise dispatch that you have been flagged down for a possible emergency.C) grab equipment and get to the child's location.D) call for paramedic assistance and await their arrival.
Answer:
The answer to the question: You should immediately... while talking about a woman who flagged you after lunch to inform you that she has found a young child by the roadside, who seems not to be breathing, and who seems to have been hit by a car, would be, B: Advise dispatch that you have been flagged down for a possible emergency.
Explanation:
The reason for this being the correct answer, instead of simply calling for assistance, calming the woman down, or grabbing your equipment and getting to the child´s location is that you have been informed of a possible emergency, but you are not yet sure of what exactly has happened, and if everything the woman has related, is accurate. As such, the first thing you need to do is inform dispatch that you have been informed of a possible situation so that they ready the necessary support in case the emergency is real, and it is all that was made out to be. Then, you must go and assess the situation.
In this situation, the correct action to take is to grab equipment and get to the child's location. Assess the child's condition and provide immediate assistance. Time is of the essence, so acting quickly is important.
Explanation:In this situation, the correct action to take is option C: grab the equipment and get to the child's location. As a first responder, it is important to act quickly and provide immediate assistance to the child.
Once you reach the child, you should assess the situation and check their breathing and pulse. If the child is not breathing, you should perform CPR while waiting for paramedic assistance to arrive.
It is crucial to remember that time is of the essence in emergency situations, and taking prompt action can greatly increase the chances of saving a life.
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George was in an automobile accident several years ago in which he suffered severe head injuries. Since the mishap, he has been unable to form new memories. He can remember everything he did before the accident but he cannot remember what he just said five minutes ago. The part of George’s brain that was injured was probably the __________
Answer:
hippocampus
Explanation:
According to my research on studies conducted by various neurologists, I can say that based on the information provided within the question the part of George’s brain that was injured was probably the hippocampus. This is the part of the brain that is involved in the formation of new memories as well as learning and emotions. Since George is having difficulty forming new memories, then we can say that the hippocampus was most likely damages.
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Emily has brittle fingernails that crack and split easily. Emily's mother advises her daughter to take gelatin pills 3 times/day, because she has heard the practice strengthens fingernails. The mother's nutrition-related advice about the benefit of taking gelatin pills is an example of a(n)
Answer: The mother's nutrition-related advice about the benefit of taking the gelatin pills is an example of an anecdote.
Explanation:
In medicine, an anecdote is when a person uses something that may of worked for them previously. In this case, it was gelatin pills 3 times a day. There is no scientific research that shows that this will really help fingernails, but people will use it because of others success with it.
Final answer:
Emily's mother advises her to take gelatin pills to strengthen her brittle fingernails, based on the belief that gelatin can improve nail health due to its collagen content. Fingernails are made of keratin, which makes them tough but flexible. However, the effectiveness of gelatin supplements for this purpose has mixed scientific support.
Explanation:
Emily has brittle fingernails that frequently crack and split. Her mother's advice to take gelatin pills three times a day is based on the belief that gelatin can strengthen fingernails. This advice is an example of a dietary recommendation based on the component keratin, which is crucial for the strength and health of nails. Nails consist of dead keratinocytes filled with keratin, making them tough yet flexible.
Keratin is a structural protein that plays a key role in the health of nails, skin, and hair. While some believe that consuming gelatin (which is a form of collagen and a source of amino acids) can help improve nail strength, scientific evidence on the efficacy of gelatin supplements for nail health is mixed.
Fingernails serve important functions, such as protecting the fingertips and enhancing sensation, by acting as a counterforce when objects are handled. They are made up of a nail plate, nail matrix, and nail bed below it. The advice given by Emily's mother is rooted in the nutritional approach to improving nail health, although it's important for individuals to also consider other factors that could influence nail health, including overall diet, health conditions, and external factors that may cause damage to the nails.