Answer:
15 m.u.
Explanation:
The genes for fruit and flower color are located in the same chromosome and we have to determine the distance between them.
The initial cross between two homozygous individuals with different traits resulted in an homogeneous F1 with red fruit and yellow flowers. Because of Mendel's Law of Uniformity, we know that the red fruits and yellow flowers are the dominant alelles.
I will call:
R_ = red fruit
rr = golden fruit
Y_ = yellow flowers
yy = white flowers
Initial cross:P RY/RY x ry/ryF1 RY/ry
All F1 tomato plants have red fruit and yellow flowers because they have the R and Y alelle.
Test cross:RY/ry x ry/ryThe gametes produced by the homozygous individual can only be ry.
The gametes produced by the heterozygous individual can be:
RY - Parental
ry - Parental
Ry - Crossover
rY - Crossover
F2 progeny:
41 RY/ry (Parental, Red fruit and yellow flowers)
44 ry/ry (Parental, Golden fruit and white flowers)
7 Ry/ry (CO, Red fruit and white flowers)
8 rY/ry (CO, Golden fruit and yellow flowers)
Total= 100.
The formula to calculate genetic distance is:
Genetic Distance (m.u.)= Recombination Frequency X 100.
The recombination frequency is calculated as the number of crossover individuals divided by the total number of individuals.
Replacing the results in the formula, we have=
Distance = (7 + 8)/100 x 100
Distance = 15 map units.
The two genes - for fruit color and flower color in the tomato plant - are 15 map units apart. This is calculated based on the recombination frequency of the observed traits in the offspring.
Explanation:To determine the distance between genes, or the number of map units, we can use Morgan's law, which states that 1% recombinance equals 1 map unit (also termed a centimorgan). A recombinant is defined as an offspring whose combination of traits does not match either parent in the cross and is the result of cross-over events (recombination) during meiosis.
To find the recombination frequency, we total the number of recombinant offspring and divide it by the total number of offspring. In this case, we have 7 red fruit and white flowers and 8 golden fruit and yellow flowers which are recombinants, that makes 15 recombinant offspring. We have a total of 100 offspring. Therefore, the recombination frequency is 15/100 = 0.15, or 15%.
Therefore, these two genes (for fruit color and flower color) are 15 map units apart based on the recombination frequency.
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Which of the following statements regarding biopolymers is false?
a. Different sequences of the monomers can lead to different functions.
b. Only soluble polymers can be created from soluble monomers.
c. A wide, almost uncountable variety of polymers can be created from just a few monomers.
d. Different linkages between the monomers can lead to different functions.
e. Biopolymers can fold up into complex shapes.
Answer:
b. Only soluble polymers can be created from soluble monomers.
Explanation:
The properties of the biopolymers are not exactly the same as that of their respective monomers. The solubility of a biopolymer depends on its final three-dimensional packing and the type of the monomers present on the surface.
For example, cellulose is a polysaccharide of D-glucose. Glucose is a simple sugar and is water-soluble. However, cellulose is water-insoluble.
The false statement about biopolymers is that only soluble polymers can be created from soluble monomers. Biopolymers like cellulose are insoluble despite being made of soluble glucose monomers, and proteins showcase the diversity in function due to their complex shapes and sequences.
Explanation:The statement among those provided regarding biopolymers that is false is option (b): Only soluble polymers can be created from soluble monomers. This statement is not true because biopolymers can be formed from both soluble and insoluble monomers. For instance, cellulose is an insoluble polymer that is made up of glucose monomers, which are soluble.
Different sequences of monomers can indeed lead to different functions in biopolymers, and different linkages between monomers can also influence function (options a and d). It is also accurate that a wide variety of polymers can be created from a few monomers (option c) and that biopolymers can fold up into complex shapes (option e), affecting their biological roles. Proteins, for example, can act as enzymes, which serve as catalysts in biological reactions, highlighting the importance of their structure to their function.
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Lance Armstrong just finished third (by about 5 minutes) in the 2009 Tour de France cycling race. This was an incredible feat for the 37-year-old father of 4. First and second-place winners, Alberto Contador (age 27) and Andy Schleck (age 24), respectively, have no children. Which of these three men shows the greatest evolutionary fitness?
Answer:
Lance Armstrong showed the greatest evolutionary fitness.
Explanation:
Because of this age and his 4 kids. It requires a really fit body to achieve that goal.
QUESTION 4
A substance that produces OH– ions in solution is a(n)_____.
A)acid
B)salt
C)base
D)alcohol
Answer: acid
Explanation:
In this reaction, sodium hydroxide (NaOH) disassociates into sodium (Na+) and hydroxide (OH-) ions when dissolved in water, thereby releasing OH- ions into solution.
Bases are the chemical compounds which give out [tex]\bold{OH^-}[/tex] ions when dissolved in aqueous solution or water.
Explanation:In science, bases are substances that show the following characteristic:
In watery arrangement, discharge hydroxide [tex]\bold{(OH^-)}[/tex] particles.It is elusive/slippery to the touch.It has bitter taste.It changes the shade of litmus paper (e.g., turn red litmus paper blue).It responds with acids to shape salts.It advances certain compound responses (base catalysis).It receives protons from any proton contributor or contain totally or halfway displaceable [tex]OH^-[/tex] particles.Meiosis reduces chromosome number and rearranges genetic information.
a.Explain how the reduction and rearrangement are accomplished in meiosis
b.Several human disorders occur as a result of defects in the meiotic process.Identify ONE such chromosomal abnormality; what effects does it have on the phenotype of people with the disorder?Describe how this abnormality could result from a defect in meiosis.
c.Production of offspring by parthenogenesis or cloning bypasses the typical meiotic process. Describe either parthenogenesis or cloning and compare the genomes of the offspring with those of the parents.
Answer:
a- Rearrangement occurs during meiosis as the chromosomes line up in pairs during meta phase 1 & 2. Then afterwards in anaphase 1 & 2 these chromosomes are separated and each gamete receives one of each type of chromosome.
b- Examples of chromosomal abnormality include Down syndrome which is identified by a third copy of chromosome 21 and Turner syndrome which is characterized by the presence of only one X chromosome in women instead of two. Down syndrome cause phenotypic variability including cognitive impairment,muscle hypotonia at birth.
c- Parthenogenesis is a reproductive strategy that involves development of a female (rarely a male) gamete without fertilization. It can occur in plant and animals without invertebrate and rarely among higher vertebrates.
Meiosis is a unique type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half and rearranges genetic information to ensure genetic diversity. Abnormalities such as Down Syndrome can occur due to errors in this process. Parthenogenesis or cloning bypass meiosis, resulting in offspring identical to the parent.
Explanation:Meiosis is the process by which cells divide to produce sex cells, or gametes. This process is unique because it results in four daughter cells, each with half the number of chromosomes as the parent cell. This reduction in chromosome number is accomplished through two rounds of cell division, known as Meiosis I and Meiosis II.
During Meiosis I, homologous chromosomes pair up and exchange genetic material, a process known as crossing over. This 'rearrangement' ensures genetic diversity in offspring. Also, an error in this phase can lead to chromosomal abnormalities. One such abnormality is Down Syndrome, where an individual has an extra 21st chromosome. This abnormality can result from nondisjunction, a defect in meiosis where chromosomes fail to separate properly.
The production of offspring bypassing meiosis can be seen in cloning or parthenogenesis. Parthenogenesis, for instance, is a form of asexual reproduction that involves the development of a female gamete without fertilization. The offspring's genomes in these cases would be identical to the parent's genome, lacking the genetic diversity provided by meiosis.
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Which of the choices below does NOT involve tissue perfusion?
A. absorption of nutrients from the digestive tract
B. blood clotting
C. gas exchange in the lungs
D. delivery of oxygen and nutrients to, and removal of wastes from, tissue cells 4 points
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. Blood clotting.
Explanation:
Tissue profusion is the path of blood flow or the lymphatic fluid with the help of the lymphatic system or the circulatory system to a tissue area or organ. It is helpful to transport nutrients or eliminating waste from the blood so the adequate tissue profusion is required to maintain.
All three options except blood clotting are related to the transport of nutrients, oxygen of removal of waste with the help of a circulatory system of the lymphatic system. Blood clotting is a region specific event and does not involve profusion.
Thus, the correct answer is option - b. Blood clotting.
Final answer:
Blood clotting (B) does not involve tissue perfusion, as it is a biochemical process rather than one involving the flow of blood to tissues for nourishment or waste removal.
Explanation:
Non-Involved Tissue Perfusion Process
The process that does NOT involve tissue perfusion is B. blood clotting. Tissue perfusion refers to the passage of blood through the circulatory system to an organ or a tissue. It involves the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to the tissue cells and the removal of waste products. Processes such as absorption of nutrients from the digestive tract (A), gas exchange in the lungs (C), and the delivery of oxygen and nutrients to tissue cells (D) all involve tissue perfusion. However, blood clotting is a biochemical process that leads to the formation of a clot to stop bleeding and does not directly involve the flow of blood to tissues for nourishment or waste removal.
A mutation occurs in a germ cell of a pure-breeding, wild-type male mouse prior to DNA replication. The mutation is not corrected, and the cell undergoes DNA replication and a normal meiosis produces four gametes. How many of these gametes will carry the mutation?
Answer: 2
Explanation:
A germ cell is a cell that gives rise to gametes. This is through meiosis, a type of cell division that reduces the chromosome number by half. In this way, four haploid cells are created, each genetically different from the parent cell.
During meiosis I, crossing over takes place. It consists on the exchange of genetic material between two homologous chromosomes to create recombinant chromosomes. Then, if there is a mutation not corrected, it would end up only in one of those two chromosomes. At the end of meiosis I, these homologous chromosomes are separated into two daughter cells. During meiosis I, the sister chromatids of each chromosome within the two daughter cells are separated, creating four daughter gametes.
So, the mutation that was only on one chromosome ended up in one of the two cells created in meiosis I. Then that cell with the mutation divided again during meiosis II, creating two more cells. So, here we have two gametes with one mutation each. On the other hand, the cell that did not receive the mutation also created two daughter cells in meiosis I but with their normal genes. And that same one created two other cells during meiosis II, also normal. The total is 4 cells, only 2 affected by the mutation.
Final answer:
All four gametes produced by meiosis from the mutated germ cell in a male mouse will carry the mutation, as germ-line mutations are passed on to every gamete formed post-mutation.
Explanation:
The question revolves around the consequences of a mutation in the germ cell of a wild-type male mouse, specifically how many gametes will carry the mutation if it occurs prior to DNA replication and is not corrected. Germinal or germ-line mutations, like the one described, occur in reproductive cells (gametes) and are significant because they can be passed to offspring, with every future somatic and germ-line cell of the offspring containing this mutation.
Given that mutations in germ cells are transmitted to all gametes formed from that cell post-DNA replication and subsequent meiosis, and considering that meiosis typically produces four gametes from each germ cell, all four gametes from the mutated germ cell would carry the mutation.
Eddie has been feeling very lethargic lately and the doctors think he may have a thyroid problem. They told him the problem could be originating in his brain or at the gland. If it is beginning in his brain, it is coming from his _____ nervous system, and if it is beginning in his gland, it is coming from his _____ nervous system.
The answers are central and peripheral
Final answer:
Eddie's lethargy may be related to a problem with the central nervous system (brain-based) or the endocrine system (thyroid gland issue). Thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) deficiency can cause weight gain and fatigue because it leads to insufficient thyroid hormone production, which slows metabolism.
Explanation:
If the issue with Eddie's energy levels is originating in his brain, it would be related to the central nervous system (CNS), which includes the brain and spinal cord and is responsible for integrating sensory information and responding accordingly. The CNS regulates the activity of all parts of the body and is where the production of thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) is controlled, specifically by the pituitary gland in response to signals from the hypothalamus. If the problem originates in his gland, it is related to the endocrine system, which is composed of glands that produce and secrete hormones. The thyroid gland is a part of this system and would be where the hormonal issue would be present if it's not a problem with CNS signaling.
Terry's recent weight gain and fatigue might be due to a deficiency of TSH because this hormone stimulates the thyroid gland to produce thyroxine (T4) and triiodothyronine (T3), which regulate the body's metabolism. If his body does not produce enough TSH, the thyroid may not release sufficient levels of thyroid hormones, leading to a slower metabolism, which can result in weight gain and feelings of lethargy.
identify the process used to form the covalent peptide bonds that join amino acids into a polypeptide.
A peptide bond is the covalent bond that joins amino acids together into a polypeptide through dehydration synthesis.
Explanation:A peptide bond is the covalent bond that joins amino acids together into a polypeptide. This bond is formed through a process called dehydration synthesis, where two amino acids combine and a molecule of water is released. The carboxyl group of one amino acid reacts with the amino group of the incoming amino acid, resulting in the formation of a peptide bond.
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Amino acids form polypeptides through a process called dehydration synthesis, creating a peptide bond, a type of covalent bond. The chain formed is known as the polypeptide. The sequence and number of these amino acids can influence the protein's final characteristics.
Explanation:Amino acids come together to form polypeptides through the formation of peptide bonds, a type of covalent bond. This process is known as dehydration synthesis. Here, the carboxyl group (COOH) of one amino acid and the amino group (NH2) of another amino acid combine. This combination leads to the release of a water molecule, forming the peptide bond.
The resulting chain of amino acids is known as a polypeptide. If the chain contains fewer than 100 amino acids, it is referred to as a polypeptide rather than a protein. The sequence and number of amino acids in the polypeptide can dictate the protein's shape, size, and function.
It's worth noting that after the process of protein synthesis, there may be post-translational modifications to make the protein fully functional. These modifications could include cleavage, phosphorylation, or the addition of other chemical groups to the polypeptide.
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A car travels 10 meters north, then 25 meters south, then 30 meters north. The trip takes 15 seconds.
A- what is its average speed?
B-what is its average velocity?
Why is your question in Biology section, it should be in mathematics or in physics but that's OK
The answer of A is - 21.6666666666 or 21.7
The answer of B is - 21.6666666666 or 21.7
the answer of A and B are equal because speed and velocity is the same thing
Select one FALSE statement regarding diffusion: Diffusion is the movement of particles from high to low concentration Substance A (molecular weight 120) will diffuse faster than substance B (molecular weight 240) Solute in solution will diffuse faster if the solution is heated The source of energy for diffusion comes from cellular ATP All of the above are true
Answer:
The source of energy for diffusion comes from cellular ATP
Explanation:
Diffusion is the net movement of particles against concentration gradient. Particles move from higher concentration to lower concentration on their own without requirement of external energy source. Hence no ATP is required for the process. ATP provides energy for movement of particles against the concentration gradient.
Rate of diffusion increases with increase in temperature as kinetic energy of particles increases; also lighter the particles, faster they will move. Hence, a substance with less molecular weight will diffuse faster than heavier substance.
Some bacterial pathogens only cause disease when injected into tissue and are not able to grow or cause disease on skin or other surface-exposed regions. One example is Clostridium tetani (tetanus). Which type of metabolism would you expect these pathogens to use?
Answer:
Anaerobic chemoorganotrophy.
Explanation:
Anaerobic chemoorganotrophs may be defined as the organisms that has the ability to prepare their food with the help of organic chemicals in the basence of oxygen. The microorganism uses this metabolism to cause disease in other organism.
The pathogens like Clostridium tetani use the anaerobic chemoorganotrophs bacteria as they injected into the tissue and do metabolism without the presence of oxygen. They can not cause disease on skin surface as abundant oxygen is present on the body surface.
Thus, the answer is anaerobic chemoorganotrophy.
When the size of a cell increases, the surface area/volume ratio:
- decreases initially and then begins to increase.
- remains the same.
- increases.
- decreases.
- increases initially and then begins to decrease.
Answer: B membrane bonded nucleus
Explanation:
A nursing instructor is explaining the stages of fetal development to a group of nursing students. The instructor determines the session is successful after the students correctly choose which time period as representing the pre-embyonic stage?
a. From fertilization and to the end of the second week .
b. Approximately 2 weeks after fertilization and to the end of the eighth week.
c. Approximately 9 weeks after fertilization and to birth.
d. Approximately 6 weeks after fertilization and to the end of 8 weeks.
The correct answer is A. From fertilization and to the end of the second week
Explanation:
Fetal or embryonic development includes different stages from fertilization to birth. The first stage is the pre-embryonic stage, this occurs after fertilization and lasts the two first weeks of pregnancy, it is called pre-embryonic stage because during this there is no an embryo but the zygote implants and later different processes of cell division occur. Additionally, the pre-embryonic stage is followed by the embryonic stage (week 3 to 8) and finally the fetus stage (week 9 to birth). According to this, if students have correctly learned about fetal development they should choose "from fertilization and to the end of the second week" as the period for the pre-embryonic stage.
Proteins
- consist solely of polymerized amino acids.
- can, by definition, consist of no more than 2000 amino acid residues.
- all have similar amino acid compositions.
- can consist of more than one polypeptide chain.
Answer: Option D.
Explanation:
Protein are large biomolecules which contains one or more long chains of amino acid residues and plays important functions in living organism.
Proteins consist of one or more than one polypeptide chains.
If proteins consist of only one polypeptide chain they form primary structure, secondary, and tertiary structures while if a protein consist of more than one polypeptide chain it forms Quaternary structure.
Proteins with multiple polypeptide chains called subunits and these subunits attach together to give Quaternary structure. Multiple polypeptides chains are arranged in folded protein subunits and allows formation of simple dimers and large complexes with different numbers of subunits. Examples of Quaternary structure d proteins are DNA polymerase, hemoglobin, and ion channels.
Hence, the correct option is D.
Proteins are mainly composed of amino acids linked together. They can be any size, and their amino acid compositions can vary significantly. Moreover, proteins can consist of more than one polypeptide chain.
Explanation:Proteins are biologically significant molecules composed mainly of amino acids linked in a polypeptide chain. The statement that proteins consist solely of polymerized amino acids, however, is partially incorrect. While amino acids are the building blocks of proteins, proteins also undergo various levels of structural organization and may also contain other non-amino acid entities attached to them.
The notion that a protein can consist of no more than 2000 amino acid residues is not universally true. Proteins can be any size, depending on their function in the organism. The statement that proteins have similar amino acid compositions is also not completely accurate as proteins differ significantly in their amino acid compositions based upon their function and the organisms where they are found. It is correct, however, that proteins can consist of more than one polypeptide chain. These are referred to as quaternary structures.
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Proteins are made up of long chains of which of these building blocks?
a. saccharides
b. nucleotides
c. fatty acids
d. amino acids
Answer:
amino acids
Explanation:
Saccharides are for polysaccharides
Nucleotides are for DNA
Fatty acids are for lipids
Amino acids line up in a chain during translation into a protein.
Proteins are made up of long chains of building blocks called amino acids. There are 20 different amino acids that can be combined to create a protein. The sequence of these amino acids determines the protein's structure and function.
Explanation:Proteins, which are integral to bodily processes, are composed of long chains of building blocks known as amino acids. There are 20 different types of amino acids that can be combined to make a protein. The sequence of the amino acids determines the structure and function of each protein. Unlike saccharides, which make up carbohydrates, nucleotides that build up nucleic acids, and fatty acids which are the building blocks of lipids; amino acids are unique in their role as the building blocks of proteins.
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Chitin is a long-chain polymer derived from glucose. It strengthens cell walls of fungi and the outer covering (exoskeleton) of arthropods (including crabs, shrimps, and insects). The presence of chitin in these groups is likely due to ________.
Answer:
The correct answer is: convergent evolution
Explanation:
Convergent evolution is a type of evolution, in which analogous traits or analogous structures are formed in organisms that are not closely related, due to their exposure to similar environmental conditions.
It is a type of independent evolution in which the species of different ancestry evolve analogous traits or structures in order to adapt to similar environmental conditions.
Therefore, the presence of chitin in the cell walls of fungi and the exoskeletons of arthropods is most likely due to convergent evolution.
Wind is considered to be an abiotic becomes it
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Question 15
How many half-lives does it take for a radioactive substance to decay until only one quarter of the original substance remains?
A
one
B
two
C
three
D
four
Two half-lives it takes for a radioactive substance to decay until only one quarter of the original substance remains, hence option B is correct.
What is the half-life of a radioactive substance?A radionuclide's half-life is the amount of time it takes for half of its radioactive atoms to decay. A good rule of thumb is that you will have less radiation than 1% of the original amount after seven half-lives.
A substance's half-life is the length of time it takes for half of it to decompose. The remaining half will, however, decompose after two half-lives, leaving you with only 25% of the original chemical.
Therefore, two half-lives it takes for a radioactive substance to decay until only one quarter of the original substance remains.
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If a cell culture contains 400 cells/ml at time = 0 and it has a generation time of 30 minutes, how many cells (cells/ml) will be present after 2 hours of incubation?
2400 cells/ml
1600 cells/ml
1200 cells/ml
6400 cells/ml
3200 cells/ml
Answer:
The answer to your question is: after two hours there will be 6400 cell/ ml
Explanation:
Data
Bacteria t = 0; 400 cells/ml
generation time = 30 minutes
# cells after two hours = ?
# of bacteria time
400 0
800 30 min
1600 60 min
3200 90 min
6400 120 min
In a cross between two strains that are true breeding for purple and white flowers, the F2 phenotypic ration would be 1/4 purple 1/4 white, and 1/2 lavender if the flower color phentotype exhibits incomplete dominance.True / False.
Answer:
Only if one of individual has incomplete dominance.
Explanation:
Using a Punnet square, only if one individual has incomplete dominance could have this ration. Otherwise, if the 2 individuals had a homozygous phenotype, whit one individual for dominant and the other for recessive, the ratio would be all purple.
The statement in the question is true. In incomplete dominance, neither allele is dominant, resulting in a blend in the phenotype. Hence, in the F2 generation, there would be a 1:2:1 ratio of purple, lavender, and white flowers.
Explanation:The question posed is whether, in a cross between two strains that are true breeding for purple and white flowers, the F2 phenotypic ratio would be 1/4 purple, 1/4 white, and 1/2 lavender if the flower color phenotype exhibits incomplete dominance. This statement is true.
In the event of incomplete dominance, neither allele is completely dominant over the other, and thus, the phenotype of the heterozygous genotype is somewhere in between the phenotypes of the homozygous genotypes. Therefore, when the F1 generation (which will all have lavender flowers) self-fertilizes, the probability of their offspring having purple, white, or lavender flowers will be in the 1:2:1 ratio (purple:lavender:white).
Taking Mendel's experiments as an example, true-breeding plants for violet and white flowers were crossed. The F1 generation all had violet flowers, demonstrating dominance. In the F2 generation, though, there was a 3:1 ratio of violet to white flowers, which is characteristic of dominant and recessive patterns, not incomplete dominance. If incomplete dominance was in effect, a blend of the parent phenotypes would happen, making for lavender flowers in the F1 generation, and a 1:2:1 ratio in the F2 generation.
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Why isn’t the Gram stain used on Acid fast bacteria? If you did Gram stain acid-fast bacteria, what would their Gram reaction be? What is the Gram reaction of non-acid-fast bacteria?
Answer:
Acid fast bacteria are stain by the gram process but it retains the red color like the gram negative. The result will show a false positive to a negative gram bacteria.
Explanation:
The acid fast bacteria are 4 groups of bacteria ( Mycobacterium, Nocardia, Corynebacterium, Clostridium) that have the characteristic that they posses a high concentration of micolic acid. This characteristic is sensible to be dye by the gramm process, because the chemicals are not attract among them. To be dye, this kind of bacteria, is necessary used heat and the presence of phenol.
The Gram stain is not used on acid-fast bacteria due to their unique cell wall structure with a layer of waxy mycolic acids, making them retain the acid-fast stain instead. Non-acid-fast bacteria can be identified by Gram stain procedure, showing up as either gram-positive or gram-negative.
Explanation:The Gram stain isn't used on acid-fast bacteria because it wouldn't accurately identify them due to their unique cell wall structure. Acid-fast bacteria, such as members of the Mycobacteriaceae family, have an extra layer of waxy mycolic acids in their cell walls, which resists the decolorizing process of the Gram stain procedure.
If you attempted to Gram stain acid-fast bacteria, the result would be inconclusive as they may not properly retain the stain due to their special cell wall structure. Therefore, the acid-fast staining protocol, which uses carbolfuchsin as the primary stain, is necessary. In this process, acid-fast cells retain the carbolfuchsin dye even after a decolorizing agent is applied.
Normal (non-acid-fast) bacteria do not have the waxy mycolic acid layer. They can be correctly identified by the Gram stain procedure. These could show gram-positive or gram-negative reaction based on their cell wall structure. Gram-positive bacteria have a thicker peptidoglycan layer which retains the purple crystal-violet stain, while Gram-negative bacteria have a thinner peptidoglycan layer and do not retain the crystal-violet stain but take up the red counterstain, safranin.
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Simple epithelia have more layers for protection, whereas stratified epithelia allow materials to move across them and are less protective. True False
Answer: False.
Explanation:
Epithelial tissue is found in the linings of many structures throughout the body. There are two kinds of epithelial tissue: simple and stratified. And they perform different functions and are structured differently.
The simple epithelium consists of one single layer of cells. In this way, all cells are in direct contact with the basement membrane and are separated from the connective tissue. The main function of this epithelium is absorption and filtration.
The stratified epithelium is composed of many layers of cells that are stacked together. In this way, this epithelium has the function of protecting against physical and chemical damage.
Listening to classical music increases heart rate variability, a measure of cardiac autonomic balance (in which increased levels reflect less stress and greater resilience), whereas listening to noise or rock music decreases heart rate variability (reflecting greater stress). True or false?
Answer:
True
Explanation:
The heart rate is under the control of the autonomous nervous system. The sympathetic division of the autonomous nervous system serves to exhibit the flight or fight response by increasing the heart rate during stress conditions. The parasympathetic division of the autonomous nervous system has an antagonistic effect and serves to lower down the heart rate to restore the resting stage of the body.
Heart rate variability reflects the balance of effect of these two divisions of the autonomous nervous system on the heart rate. Constant intervals between the successive heartbeats reflect lower heart rate variability. It is a measure of higher stress and reduced ability of the body to withstand the stress conditions (the resilience).
External factors affect heart rate variability. For example, listening to the calm and peaceful classical music reduces the activity of sympathetic division and thereby increases the heart rate variability and resilience by allowing the person to stay calm in the stress conditions.
On the other hand, noise and rock music increases the control of sympathetic division on the heart rate and thereby decreases the heart rate variability.
You are setting up your own lab, where you plan to study proteobacteria. You have narrowed your research focus and decided that you are most interested in the role of proteobacteria in the global nitrogen cycle. Which species of proteobacteria should your researchers study?
Check all that apply.
a. Alphab. Betac. Epsilond. Deltae. Gamma
Answer:
-Alphaproteobacteria
-Betaproteobacteria
Explanation:
Proteobacteria are gram-negative bacteria that can either be pathogenic or free-living parasitic in nature. Several classes fall under the category of proteobacteria, and two of them are alphaproteobacteria and beta proteobacteria. Both Alphaproteobacteria and Betaproteobacteriaare are the ones that play an important role in nitrogen fixation and since according to the question the research is focused studying the role of proteobacteria in the global nitrogen cycle, it is wise to choose these two bacterial classes.Final answer:
For studying the role of proteobacteria in the global nitrogen cycle, Beta Proteobacteria is the correct option to focus on, as they play a significant role in this biochemical process.
Explanation:
If you are setting up your own lab to study the role of proteobacteria in the global nitrogen cycle, focusing on specific classes within the proteobacteria phylum is crucial. Based on the information provided, Beta Proteobacteria play a significant role in the nitrogen cycle. These bacteria are diverse and include species fundamentally involved in nitrogen transformations. Therefore, your research should include studying Beta Proteobacteria.
While other classes of proteobacteria, such as Delta and Epsilon, have notable roles in other environmental or health-related aspects, they are not primarily noted for their involvement in the nitrogen cycle in the provided context. Thus, the correct option for your research focus should be:
Beta Proteobacteria
An experimental forest ecosystem is enclosed in a sealed greenhouse. The entire ecosystem, including the air and soil, is treated with an extremely potent fungicide that kills all fungal life stages including spores. What will probably happen next?
Answer: The forest would eventually die.
Explanation:
Fungi (along with bacteria) are responsible for "recycling" all the nutrients in an ecosystem.
For example when an animal or a plant dies, fungi consume all the organic matter and they break it down into Carbon, Nitrogen, Oxygen, Phosphorus and other essential elements, and then release it into que soil or the atmosphere.
If they are removed from an ecosystem, plants wouldn't be able to get these elements, because they would all be "trapped" in complex molecules. As a result, the plants and every organism they act as food to, would die.
Inability to absorb digested nutrients and secrete mucus might indicate a disorder in which epithelial tissue?
Answer:
The answer is Simple Columnar epithelium.
Explanation:
The simple columnar epithelium may be found at the digestive tract and respiratory tract.
In the digestive system, absorption of nutrients mostly occur in the duodenum (part of the small intestines). This is covered by simple columnar epithelia with microcilia at the apical portion, also called the brush border. The brush border provides the digestive tract a broad surface area to allow optimal nutrient absorption.
In the respiratory system, a specialized type of simple columnar cells, called goblet cells, produce mucus for the mucous membrane to catch or transport foreign objects out of the system. Microcilia is also present at the apical portion of the cell and serves to trap foreign bodies that enter the respiratory tract.
The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion is that facilitated diffusion Can move materials from a higher to a lower concentration. Doesn't require ATP. Can move materials from a lower to a higher concentration. Requires ATP. Requires transporter proteins.
Answer:
Requires transporter proteins.
Explanation:
Facilitated diffusion is similar to simple diffusion because both the methods carry molecules from higher to lower concentration. Since the movement is along the concentration gradient there is no requirement of energy or ATP. The difference between them lies in the use of transporter proteins. Polar molecules and large ions are not able to diffuse across the semi permeable membrane despite the concentration gradient because the membrane's hydrophobic nature repels them. Transporter proteins are embedded in the membrane and the molecules can pass through them to other side avoiding the hydrophobic membrane. Hence, facilitated diffusion requires transporter proteins.
Facilitated diffusion requires transporter proteins to assist the movement of substances down their concentration gradient, while simple diffusion does not involve such proteins and relies purely on concentration gradient. Both processes are forms of passive transport and do not require ATP.
Explanation:The difference between simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion lies in their mechanisms of transport across cell membranes. Simple diffusion moves substances from a higher to a lower concentration without the need for energy or transport proteins, relying solely on the concentration gradient. Facilitated diffusion, on the other hand, requires specific transporter proteins such as channel proteins or carrier proteins to assist in the movement of substances. Unlike active transport, facilitated diffusion does not require ATP because it also moves substances down their concentration gradient, but it enables substances that are not able to pass through the cell membrane easily, such as glucose and certain ions, to do so with the help of transport proteins.
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The four main categories of large biological molecules present in living systems are _____.
A. RNA, DNA, proteins, and carbohydrates
B. monosaccharides, lipids, polysaccharides, and proteins
C. nucleic acids, carbohydrates, monosaccharides, and proteins
D. proteins, nucleic acids, carbohydrates, and lipids
E. proteins, DNA, RNA, and steroids
Answer: D. Proteins, Nucleic Acids, Carbohydrates, and Lipids
Explanation: Living systems have important macromolecules that act as structural blocks or participate in metabolism.
Proteins. These macromolecules are composed by aminoacids and can be structural like collagen, act as enzymes as oxidases, act as a receptors as tyrosin kinase receptors, among other functions.Nucleic acids. These macromolecules are composed by nucleotides and acts a inheritance molecules: DNA and RNA.Carbohydrates. These macromolecules are composed by monosaccharides and can be structural as cellulose or participate in metabolism like glycogen and glucose.Lipids. These macromolecules are composed by carbon, hydrogen and oxygen atoms. Participate in metabolism as energy reserve and structural in biological membranes.The four main biological macromolecules in living organisms are proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids, each with essential roles in bodily functions.
Explanation:The four main categories of large biological molecules present in living systems are proteins, carbohydrates, lipids, and nucleic acids. These macromolecules are essential to life, each playing unique and critical roles in the structure, function, and regulation of the body's cells, tissues, and organs. Proteins are made from amino acids and perform a variety of functions including catalyzing metabolic reactions, DNA replication, and transporting molecules. Carbohydrates include sugars and starches that are vital for energy storage and supply. Lipids are fats and oils that store energy, insulate the body, and make up cell membranes. Nucleic acids, which encompass DNA and RNA, contain the genetic instructions for the development and function of living organisms.
What will happen if a bacterial cell is placed in 10% NaCl with penicillin? The cell will undergo osmotic lysis. Penicillin will diffuse into the cell. Water will enter the cell. The cell will plasmolyze. No change will result; the solution is isotonic.
Answer:
The cell will plasmolyze
Explanation:
Plamolysis is a process that cells suffer and that is characterized by a loss of water.
By placing the bacterial cell in a solution of 10% NaCl with penicillin we will be facing different situations.
First, penicillin is an antibiotic that affects the cell wall by destroying it. By not having the cell wall, the bacteria is more vulnerable to everything outside.
When deposited in a hypertonic medium, this means that the concentration of solutes from outside is greater than that of the protoplast (cytoplasm). The water in the protoplast will start to flow out of it and the cell will shrink. This decrease in size causes the plasma membrane to separate from the cell wall.
Final answer:
A bacterial cell placed in a 10% NaCl solution would undergo plasmolysis due to the hypertonic environment. Penicillin would inhibit the repair of the bacterial cell wall, leading to cell death. The cell wall's peptidoglycan is crucial for preventing lysis in hypotonic environments and counteracting hypertonic stress.
Explanation:
When a bacterial cell is placed in a 10% NaCl solution, the environment becomes hypertonic relative to the interior of the bacterial cell. As a result, water will move out of the cell, causing the cell to shrink and the plasma membrane to pull away from the cell wall, a process known as plasmolysis. This process is distinct from osmotic lysis, which occurs in a hypotonic environment where water enters a cell, leading it to swell and potentially burst. Penicillin targets bacterial cells by inhibiting the formation of peptidoglycan cross-links in the bacterial cell wall. Due to the hypertonic environment and the action of penicillin, a bacterial cell would likely undergo plasmolysis and be prevented from repairing its cell wall, leaving the cell unable to counteract the osmotic effects and likely leading to cell death.
Penicillin works by disrupting the cell wall construction, leading to the eventual death of the bacteria through cell wall damage. In a hypertonic solution like one with 10% NaCl, penicillin would further prevent the weakened cell from counteracting the osmotic stress. Gram-positive bacteria stain purple after Gram staining while Gram-negative bacteria stain pink. The presence of a strong cell wall containing peptidoglycan in bacteria prevents them from bursting in a hypotonic environment, while in a hypertonic environment they experience plasmolysis.
In 1907, a horse named Clever Hans was said to be able to answer math problems posed to him. He would tap out the correct answers with his hoof. However, an investigation revealed that if Clever Hans could not see the person asking the question, he did not provide correct answers. What does this suggest?
A : This illustrates the importance of including control groups -- without a second horse, no conclusion can be drawn.
B : Clever Hans was responding to subtle visual cues from the questioner.
C : Clever Hans was motivated to answer correctly by social interaction.
D : All of the choices are correct.
Answer:
d. all of the choices are correct.
Explanation:
To be sure that this horse is a clever horse, need to be compared with other horses, that is the reason why is necessary a control group and contrast the results.
Also could be that the horse by visual contact, is a conductive behavior, for example the wink of a person. In this case the control group is also useful to compare results.
Horses like people, so another explanation is that by visual contact, the animal feel security and is easily to it to answer the problems.
Final answer:
The investigation into Clever Hans suggested that he was responding to subtle visual cues from the person asking questions, illustrating the Clever Hans Effect, where animals respond to unintentional human signals rather than understanding the question.
Explanation:
The investigation into Clever Hans, the horse said to be able to solve math problems by tapping his hoof, reveals that Clever Hans was not actually performing mathematical calculations. Instead, he was responding to subtle visual cues from the person asking the question. This phenomenon, known as the Clever Hans Effect, illustrates how animals can be highly attuned to human body language and unintentional signals. When Clever Hans could not see the person asking the question, his ability to 'answer' correctly was compromised, suggesting his responses were not based on understanding math, but on reading human cues.