A mass of 230 g, hanging on a spring, vertically oscillates with a period of 1 sec (the spring itself has no mass). After adding a mass, m, to the 230 g, we find that the period of oscillation of this mass-spring system becomes 2 sec. The value of m is equal to________.

Answer:

hall mobility = 139.8 x 10 ∧3

carrier density = 83.1 x 10 ∧14

Explanation:

The pictures attached below shows the full explanation

Answer:

B.

Explanation:

The distance between two crests of adjacent waves is called wavelength.

Final answer:

Wavelength is (option B) the distance between consecutive crests of adjacent waves and is parallel to the direction of wave propagation, typically represented by the Greek letter lambda (λ).  

Explanation:

The correct description of wavelength in the context of waves is the distance between crests of adjacent waves. Wavelength is the distance between two consecutive points of similar position along the wave such as from one crest to the next crest, or one trough to the next trough. It's important to note that wavelength is parallel to the direction in which the wave is traveling, so it measures the length of one complete cycle of the wave.

Options such as the number of waves passing a point in a given time (frequency) and the wave's height (amplitude) are different wave properties. Thus, the correct answer is option B: the distance between crests of adjacent waves.

Answer:

1.10^6 kg of mass per second

Explanation:

All energy lost by the sun comes from nuclear fusion.

Sun loses energy at 2.5*10^{19}J per hour, that is 9*10^{22}J/s

To find the mass lost by the sun in liberation of energy you use the famous Einstein's equation:

[tex]E=mc^2\\\\m=\frac{E}{c^2}=\frac{9*10^{22}}{(3*10^{8}m/s)^2}=1*10^6kg[/tex]

hence, the sun liberates 1.10^6 kg of mass per second

Answer:

6.45 x 10-7 meters

Explanation:

Taking speed of light as 300000000 m/s

We know that speed of light is product of wavelength and frequency and expressed as

s=fw

Where s represent speed, f is frequency and w is wavelength

Substituting 4.65*10^14 Hz for frequency then the wavelngth will be given by

300000000=4.65*10^14 *w

w=300000000÷4.65*10^14

w=6.451612903225*10^-7 m

Rounded off, the wavelength is 6.45 x 10-7 meters

Answer:

A. There will be a reduction in the native snake population as they compete for resources with the exotic snakes.

Explanation:

The new snakes will compete with the native snakes for food resources. The available food might not be able to support the growing demand when these new snakes start reproduce. The reduced available food Can lead to a population decrease of the native snakes.

Answer:

-(0.330m/s² ) kˆ

Explanation:

given data:

Mass of particle 'm'= 1.81 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex] kg

Velocity 'v'= (3.00 x[tex]10^{4}[/tex] m/s)j

Charge of particle 'q'= 1.22 x [tex]10^{-8}[/tex] C

Uniform magnetic field 'B' = (1.63iˆ + 0.980jˆ )T

In order to calculate particle's acceleration, we'll use Newton's second law of motion i.e F=ma

Also,the force a magnetic field exerts on a charge q moving with velocity v is called the magnetic Lorentz force. It is given by:

F = qv × B

F= ma = qV x B

a= [tex]\frac{q(v*B)}{m}[/tex] --->eq(1)

Lets determine the value of (v x B) first

v x B= (3.00 x[tex]10^{4}[/tex] m/s)j x (1.63iˆ + 0.980jˆ )

v x B= 4.89 x [tex]10^{4}[/tex]

Plugging all the required values in eq(1)

a= [1.22 x [tex]10^{-8}[/tex] x (4.89 x [tex]10^{4}[/tex]kˆ)] / 1.81 x [tex]10^{-3}[/tex]

a=  -(0.330m/s² ) kˆ

-ve sign is representing the opposite direction

Answer:

The maximum vertical displacement is 2.07 meters.

Explanation:

We can solve this problem using energy. Since there is a frictional force acting on the block, we need to consider the work done by this force. So, the initial potential energy stored in the spring is transferred to the block and it starts to move upwards. Let's name the point at which the block leaves the ramp "1" and the highest point of its trajectory in the air "2". Then, we can say that:

[tex]E_0=E_1\\\\U_e_0=K_1+U_g_1+W_f_1[/tex]

Where [tex]U_e_0[/tex] is the elastic potential energy stored in the spring, [tex]K_1[/tex] is the kinetic energy of the block at point 1, [tex]U_g_1[/tex] is the gravitational potential energy of the block at point 1, and [tex]W_f_1[/tex] is the work done by friction at point 1.

Now, rearranging the equation we obtain:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}kx^{2}=\frac{1}{2}mv_1^{2}+mgh_1+\mu Ns_1[/tex]

Where [tex]k[/tex] is the spring constant, [tex]x[/tex] is the compression of the spring, [tex]m[/tex] is the mass of the block, [tex]v_1[/tex] is the speed at point 1, [tex]g[/tex] is the acceleration due to gravity, [tex]h_1[/tex] is the vertical height of the block at point 1, [tex]\mu[/tex] is the coefficient of kinetic friction, [tex]N[/tex] is the magnitude of the normal force and [tex]s_1[/tex] is the displacement of the block along the ramp to point 1.

Since the force is in an inclined plane, the normal force is equal to:

[tex]N=mg\cos\theta[/tex]

Where [tex]\theta[/tex] is the angle of the ramp.

We can find the height [tex]h_1[/tex] using trigonometry:

[tex]h_1=s_1\sin\theta[/tex]

Then, our equation becomes:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}kx^{2}=\frac{1}{2}mv_1^{2}+mgs_1\sin\theta+\mu mgs_1\cos\theta\\\\\implies v_1=\sqrt{\frac{2(\frac{1}{2}kx^{2}-mgs_1\sin\theta-\mu mgs_1\cos\theta)}{m}}=\sqrt{\frac{kx^{2}}{m}-2gs_1(\sin\theta+\mu \cos\theta)}[/tex]

Plugging in the known values, we get:

[tex]v_1=\sqrt{\frac{(15190N/m)(0.25m)^{2}}{10kg}-2(9.8m/s^{2})(1.12m)(\sin36.87\°+(0.300) \cos36.87\°)}\\\\v_1=8.75m/s[/tex]

Now, we can obtain the height from point 1 to point 2 using the kinematics equations. We care about the vertical axis, so first we calculate the vertical component of the velocity at point 1:

[tex]v_1_y=v_1\sin\theta=(8.75m/s)\sin36.87\°=5.25m/s[/tex]

Now, we have:

[tex]y=\frac{v_1_y^{2}}{2g}\\\\y=\frac{(5.25m/s)^{2}}{2(9.8m/s^{2})}\\\\y=1.40m[/tex]

Finally, the maximum vertical displacement [tex]h_2[/tex] is equal to the height [tex]h_1[/tex] plus the vertical displacement [tex]y[/tex]:

[tex]h_2=h_1+y=s_1\sin\theta +y\\\\h_2=(1.12m)\sin36.87\°+1.40m\\\\h_2=2.07m[/tex]

It means that the maximum vertical displacement of the block after it becomes airborne is 2.07 meters.

Correct question:

A child bounces a 57 g superball on the sidewalk. The velocity change of the superball is from 24 m/s downward to 11 m/s upward. If the contact time with the sidewalk is 1/800 s, what is the magnitude of the average force exerted on the superball by the sidewalk? Answer in units of N.

Answer:

The magnitude of the average force exerted on the superball by the sidewalk is 592.8 N

Explanation:

Given;

mass of the superball, m = 57 g = 0.057 kg

initial velocity of the superball, u = 24 m/s

final velocity of the superball, v = 11  m/s

contact time with the sidewalk, t =  1 / 800 s

To determine the magnitude of the average force exerted on the superball by the sidewalk, we apply Newton's second law of motion;

F = ma

[tex]But, a = \frac{v-u}{t} \\\\Thus, F = m(\frac{v-u}{t} )\\\\F = 0.057(\frac{11-24}{1/800} )\\\\F = 0.057(\frac{-13}{1/800})\\\\F = -0.057(\frac{800*13}{1})\\\\ F = -592.8 \ N\\\\Magnitude \ of \ the \ force \ is \ 592.8 \ N[/tex]

Therefore, the magnitude of the average force exerted on the superball by the sidewalk is 592.8 N

Kinetic energy is formed when water is heated.

Explanation:

There are three types of energy transformations taking place

(i) conversion of kinetic energy to rotational energy

(ii) conversion of rotation energy to electrical energy

(iii) conversion of electrical energy to heat energy

As seen in the image attached, there is running water that is falling on the blades of a small turbine and makes it rotate. The turbine is connected to the heating system with wires.

Now, the energy transformations that take place in heating water are described as follows:

Learn more:

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Answer:

The car was 12.8m/s fast when the driver applied the brakes.

Explanation:

The equations of motion of the car in the horizontal and vertical axes are:

[tex]x: f_k=ma\\\\y: N-mg=0[/tex]

Since the kinetic friction is defined as [tex]f_k=\mu_kN[/tex] and [tex]N=mg[/tex] we have:

[tex]\mu_kmg=ma\\\\a=\mu_kg[/tex]

Next, from the kinematics equation of speed in terms of distance, we have:

[tex]v^2=v_0^2-2ax\\\\v^2=v_0^2-2\mu_kgx[/tex]

Since the car came to a stop, the final velocity [tex]v[/tex] is zero, and we get:

[tex]0=v_0^2-2\mu_kgx\\\\v_0=\sqrt{2\mu_kgx}[/tex]

Finally, plugging in the known values, we obtain:

[tex]v_0=\sqrt{2(0.300)(9.81m/s^2)(28.0m)}\\\\v_0=12.8m/s[/tex]

It means that the car was 12.8m/s fast when the driver applied the brakes.

The car was moving at the speed of 12.8 m/s, when the driver applied the brakes.

From kinamatic equation,

[tex]\bold {v^2 = v_0^2-2ax}\\[/tex]

Since, car stops the final veocity will be zero. and

Acceleration [tex]\bold {a = \mu_kg}[/tex]

So,

[tex]v_0 = \sqrt {2\mu k_gx}[/tex]

Where,

Vo - initial speed =?

[tex]\mu[/tex] - friction constant = 0.3

g - gravitational acceleration = 9.8 m/s²

x - distance = 25 m

Put the values,

[tex]v_0 = \sqrt {2\times 0.3 \times 9.81 \times 0.25 m}\\\\v_0 = 12.8\ m/s[/tex]

Therefore, the car was moving at the speed of 12.8 m/s, when the driver applied the brakes.

To know more about kinamatic equation,

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Answer:

The speed at the top of the hill is 4.38 m/s

Explanation:

Here we have total Kinetic = KE (translational) +KE (rotational)

=0.5 m v² + 0.5m·r²v²/r² = m·v²

Therefore at height 0.6 m we have

0.6 mg = mv²

When v = 5.01 m/s maximum height is

m·g·h=m·5.01²

or h = 2.56 m

Therefore at 0.6 m we have 2.56 - 0.6 more height energy to climb

which gives

1.96·m·g = m v₂²

or v₂² = 19.22

v₂ = 4.38 m/s.

Answer:

See explanation

Explanation:

If the magnetic field increases up through the loop a current will flow such that the magnetic field from this current will oppose the change in magnetic flux. (As per Lenz's  Law)

The magnetic field is increasing up so the field from the current must be directed down.

From the application of right hand rule by pointing the thumb downwards and curl our fingers the current flows clockwise then the magnetic field from this current will be directed downward inside the loop of wire.

According to Lenz's law, the induced current in a horizontal loop of wire with an increasing magnetic field passing upward through it will flow clockwise when viewed from above, as it acts to oppose the change in the magnetic field.

When a horizontal loop of wire has an increasing magnetic field passing upward through it, Lenz's law helps us determine the direction of the induced current in the loop. According to Lenz's law, the induced current will flow in such a way that it creates a magnetic field that opposes the change in magnetic flux. Since the magnetic field through the loop is increasing upwards, the induced current must produce a magnetic field that points downwards.

Applying the right-hand rule, if you orient your right hand with the thumb pointing downwards (opposing the increasing magnetic field), your fingers would curl in a clockwise direction when viewed from above. Therefore, the induced current in the loop will flow in a clockwise direction, as viewed from above, when the magnetic field is increasing through the plane of the loop.

Answer:

Explained.

Explanation:

Let me explain the two cases in by one.

(1) When Person wearing a jacket, heat from his or her body is going to get trapped inside his or her jacket to keep this person warm when a thermometer is placed inside, it would indicate a higher temperature on the scale.

(2) When Jacket is Hanging in a closet, its temperature would be roughly close to room temperature and when we would place a thermometer it would not indicate any change on its scale.

Answer:

Solar energy or infrared radiation energy

Answer:

0.06kgm/s

Explanation:

According to law of conservation of momentum, the sum of momentum of bodies before collision is equal to the momentum of the bodies after collision.

If the total momentum of two marbles before collision is 0.06kgm/s and no outside marbles acts on them, then the momentum of the bodies after collision will also be 0.06kgm/s. This type of collision is elastic i.e both momentum and energy are conserved since no external force acts on them.

Answer:[tex]I_2>I_1[/tex]

Explanation:

Given

Shape of the object is dumbbell shaped

Moment of Inertia w.r.t an axis passing through center and perpendicular to it

[tex]I_1=m(\frac{r}{2})^2+m(\frac{r}{2})^2[/tex]

[tex]I_1=\frac{mr^2}{2}[/tex]

For the axis which passes through one of the masses

[tex]I_2=mr^2[/tex]

so [tex]I_2>I_1[/tex]

Answer:

The correct option is;

a- sea surface temperature anomaly, in degrees Celsius

Explanation:

From the diagram related to the question we have two graphs super imposed of Sea surface temperature anomaly, in degrees Celsius and cholera incidence anomaly (%) both plotted against time in years.

On the left the y-axis represents the sea surface temperature anomaly while on the right, the y-axis represents the cholera incidence anomaly (%).

The display of the graph shows the sea surface temperature anomaly in blue.

The left y-axis of a graph generally represents the dependent variable or the outcome of the specific subject being explored. The correct answer to the question would depend on what the graph is representing. Without additional context, it's difficult to determine which option would be correct.

The left y-axis on a graph traditionally represents the dependent variables; the outcome of the subject being studied. The answer depends on what the graph is about. If it is about sea surface temperature anomaly, then either option a (in degrees celsius) or option b (in degrees fahrenheit) would be shown on the left y-axis, depending on the measure used in the investigation. If it is about the regular progression of time with respect to the incidence of cholera or temperature, then option c would be displayed on the y-axis. If it is about the incidence of cholera as a percentage of normal rate, then option d would be shown. If it's about sea surface temperature generally, then option e might be displayed on the y-axis. Without context, it's difficult to say which option is correct.

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Answer:

60V

Explanation:

240V/12 loops = 20 volts per loop.

20 * 3 = 60 volts  

Answer:

60V

Explanation:

Answer:

C) Both 1 and 2

Explanation:

The scan tool may include a bi-directional control that allows the technician to control the output of the alternator for testing purposes.

The Diagnostic Trouble Codes (DTCs), are used by automobile manufacturers to diagnose problems related to the vehicle.

The scan tool can also be used to monitor the output voltage of the vehicle to verify if the correct amount of voltage is supplied by the alternator.

Both Technicians A and B are correct because the steps they both take are necessary for the diagnosis of the vehicle.

Answer:

We conclude that ball 2 has a larger mass.

Explanation:

This is because the internal forces at collision are an action reaction pair. The force on ball 1 due to ball 2 equals the force on ball 2 due to ball 1. Since these forces are equal in magnitude, let's denote it by F. So

For each ball, F = ma and a = F/m. Since F is the same for both balls, if follows that the acceleration of each ball is inversely proportional to its mass. That is, a ∝ 1/m.

Since ball 1 has a higher acceleration, it has a lower mass. Also ball 2 has a small acceleration, so it has a higher mass.

Answer:

See explanation

Explanation:

Solution:-

- Denote the following:

  mass of ball 1 = m1

  initial velocity of ball 1 = vi,1

  Final velocity of ball 1 = vf,1

  mass of ball 2 = m2

  initial velocity of ball 2 = vi,2

  Final velocity of ball 2 = vf,2

- Since there are no external forces acting on the system containing the two balls then we can say that the linear momentum of the system is conserved.

- The conservation of linear momentum says that the momentum before or after the collision remains conserved:

                                    Pi = Pf

Where,                        p = m*v

- The conservation of momentum for the given system:

                    m1*vi,1 + m2*vi,2 = m1*vi,1 + m2*vi,2  

- Since no information is given about the initial conditions. We will consider the internal force (F) that acts when two balls come in contact. Then apply Newton's second law of motion on both balls individually:

                                F = m*a

Where,             m: Mass of object

                        a: Acceleration of the object

- For ball 1:

                               F1 = m1*a1

- For ball 2:

                              F2 = m2*a2

Given that a1 > a2, and the the internal force that acts on both balls during collision obeys Newton's 3rd Law i.e for every action there is an equal but opposite reaction: So , F1 = F2

                             F = m1*a1

                             F = m2*a2

                             m1*a1 = m2*a2

- Since, a1 > a2 for above equation to hold true then m1 < m2. That is the mass of ball 1 is quite less compared to ball 2.

Here is the complete part of the question

A block is released from rest at height d= 40 cm and slides down a frictionless ramp and onto a first plateau, which has length d and where the coefficient of kinetic friction is 0.50. If the block is still moving, it then slides down a second frictionless ramp through height d/2 and  onto a lower plateau, which has length d/2 and where the coefficient of kinetic friction is again 0.50. If the block is still moving, it then slides up a frictionless ramp until it (momentarily) stops. Where does the block stop?

Answer:

0.3 m

Explanation:

Given that :

the height h = 40 cm = 0.40 m

Coefficient of kinetic friction is [tex]\mu[/tex] =0.50

Using the Law of conservation of energy = [tex]\frac{1}{2} m \mu_1^2 = mgd[/tex]

As the blocks slides down a frictionless ramp and onto a first rough plateau region.So kinetic energy is decreased to :

[tex]\frac{1}{2}mu^2_2 = mgd - \mu_2_k mgd \\ \\ u^2_2 = 2gd - 2 \mu_kgd[/tex]

If the block is still moving, it then slides down a second frictionless ramp through an height h = d/2

Then , we can say that the gained kinetic energy is :

[tex]\frac{1}{2} mu_2^2 = mg (\frac{d}{2})+\frac{1}{2}mu_2^2 \\ \\ \frac{1}{2} mu_2^2 = mg (\frac{d}{2})+ mgd - \mu_k mgd \\ \\ \frac{1}{2} mu_2^2 = 2g(\frac{d}{2})+2gd - 2 \mu_k gd[/tex]

Futhermore , it moves on the horizontal surface where the coefficient of friction causes some of the kinetic energy to disappear

So, the final value of kinetic energy at the end just before climbing is :

[tex]\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = \frac{1}{2}m \mu_2 ^2 - \mu_k mg (\frac{d}{2}) \\ \\ \frac{1}{2}mv^2 = mg \frac{d}{2} + mgd - \mu_k mgd - \mu_k mg (\frac{d}{2}) \\ \\ v^2 = gd + 2gd - 2 \mu_kgd -\mu_kgd[/tex]

[tex]= 3gd - 3 \mu_k gd \\ \\ = 3[g- \mu_kg ]d[/tex]

Let represent H to be the height above the lower plateau when it momentarily stops; From the law of conservation of energy :

[tex]\frac{1}{2}mv^2 = mgH \\ \\ \frac{3}{2}[g-\mu_kg]d = gH \\ \\ H = \frac{3}{2}[1-\mu_k]d \\ \\ = \frac{3}{2}[1-(0.50)](0.40 \ m) \\ \\ =0.3 m[/tex]

Answer:

All of the above!

Explanation:

All of the answers are true! I hope I helped!

Answer:

Because unlike inert gas Noble gas sometimes indergo reaction

Explanation:

Inert gas as the name suggest means it can not undergoing reaction at most conditions.But as a science progresses it was found that some group 8 elements under special conditions of temperature and pressure can under go reaction this discovery led to why inert gas is not commonly used

Answer:

Explanation:

Noble gases are gases that belongs to group 18(8A) in the periodic table, they have 8 electrons in their outermost shell. Examples includes helium, neon, argon, krypton and Radon.

These gases were formerly referred to as inert gases meaning they are chemically inactive, this is because they have a complete octet structure which makes them stable, but as time goes on scientist realised that referring to these gases as inert might not be outrightly correct because :

1.Some members of the noble gases form compounds meaning that they are not inert under all conditions, for example Xenon tetrafluoride

2.Radon is a dangerous radioactive element, it unstable to such an extent that its radioactivity makes any chemical reaction with it almost impossible.

3.Gases like Nitrogen are inert under various conditions.

Final answer:

Technician A is correct, as there is slippage between input and output speeds in fluid couplings without a mechanical lock-up. Technician B is incorrect, as the impeller and turbine rpms do not match in a torque converter coupling.

Explanation:

Technician A is correct. In any type of fluid coupling without a mechanical lock-up, there is always some slippage between the input and output speeds. This means that the output speed will be less than the input speed, resulting in a difference between them.

Technician B is incorrect. In a torque converter coupling, the impeller and turbine do not have matching rpm (revolutions per minute). The impeller rpm is higher than the turbine rpm, which allows the torque converter to efficiently transfer power from the engine to the transmission.

Answer:

See explanation

Explanation:

Depth: Earthquakes can happen anywhere from at the surface to 700 kilometers below. In general, deeper earthquakes are less damaging because their energy dissipates before it reaches the surface. So it is highly likely that the earthquake 1 was shallower than earthquake 2.

Distance from the epicenter: The epicenter is the point at the surface right above where the earthquake originates and is usually the place where the earthquake's intensity is the greatest. Plausible that earthquake 1 might have been closer to its epicenter as compared to earthquake 2.

Local geologic conditions: The nature of the ground at the surface of an earthquake can have a profound influence on the level of damage. Loose, sandy, soggy soil, like in Mexico City, can liquefy if the shaking is strong and long enough, for example. That doesn't bode well for any structures on the surface. Plausible that the area around the earthquake 1 might have poorer geologic conditions as compared to area of earthquake 2.

Answer:

Chemical

Explanation:

Answer:

The right answer is "chemical"

Explanation:

Batteries store energy in the chemical bonds in the metals inside them.

Answer:

Voltage can be calculated in various ways but I am a easier solution to it:

Explanation:

V=I×R instead of this formula I use:

P=I×V

600=400×V

600=400V

Divide both sides by 400

V=3÷2

V=1.5 J/C

1volt=1coulomb or joule

Answer:1.5V

Explanation: power =IV

Where I= current

V= voltage

Therefore Voltage=power/current

V= 600/400= 1.5