The zygote resulting from the fertilization will have the genotype a B c D E. The gametes (sperms or eggs) produced by the offspring of this zygote can vary, due to the heterozygous nature of B, C, and E loci, resulting in various combinations of these alleles along with homozygous 'a' and 'D'.
Possible Genotypes of Zygotes and Gametes
When a mouse sperm of genotype a B C D E fertilizes an egg of genotype a b c D e, we can predict the resulting genotypes of (a) the zygote and (b) the gametes produced by the offspring of such a mating.
(a) Zygote Genotype
Each gene locus will combine one allele from the sperm and one allele from the egg to form the genotype of the zygote. The possible genotype for the zygote in this case will be a B c D E, as the alleles will combine as follows:
'a' from both the sperm and the egg (homozygous recessive).
'B' from the sperm and 'b' from the egg (heterozygous).
'C' from the sperm and 'c' from the egg (heterozygous).
'D' from both the sperm and the egg (homozygous dominant).
'E' from the sperm and 'e' from the egg (heterozygous).
(b) Gamete Genotype of Baby Mouse
Each gamete (sperm or egg) produced by the offspring will contain one allele for each gene, and these alleles can come in different combinations depending on the genetic diversity resulting from meiosis. Since 'D' is homozygous, all gametes will have 'D'. For genes 'B', 'C', and 'E' where the offspring is heterozygous, different combinations of the alleles can be produced resulting in gametes with genotypes such as 'B C E', 'b c e', 'B c E', 'b C e', etc.
In writing On the Origin of Species, Darwin synthesized ideas from other publications, as well as observations he made while voyaging on the H.M.S. Beagle and afterward at home. The publications referenced in the first half of the time line all had a strong influence on Darwin. Which publication provided Darwin the insight that changes to the Earth can happen gradually over millions of years? Principles of Geology Philosophie zoologique Systema Naturae Essay on the Principles of Population
Answer:
Principles of Geology
Explanation:
J. Henslow gifted Darwin the first volume of Principles of Geology, written by Charles Lyell. The book explains about the old age of the earth. Accordingly, the slow rate of several geological processes suggests that the earth is very old.
Darwin read the book as the ship was crossing the Atlantic and learned about geological processes occurring over the millions of years. For example, he learned that the earth's surface was not formed by some catastrophic event.
In his book, Lyell explained the slow and gradual geological processes like erosion gave rise to the vast landscapes present on the earth's surface.
Darwin compared the time taken by geological processes to form the earth's surface and reasoned if these millions of years were enough to support the evolution of species.
The native structure of proteins has only marginal
thermodynamicstability.
Describe (3) treatments or reagents which denature proteins.
Howdoes each work?
Answer:
Three treatments or reagents that causes protein denaturation are "heat", "urea" and "sodium hydroxide".
Explanation:
Heat: when a protein is exposed to elevated temperatures its molecules vibrate so rapidly and violently that its bonds are disrupted. This causes that the protein loses its tertiary and secondary structures and finally causes its denaturation.
Urea: a chemical denaturing agents that denatures proteins by lower the protein melting temperature which has a similar effect that high temperature. Urea compets for hydrogen bond donors and acceptors which affects the protein stability.
Sodium hydroxide: sodium hydroxide is an alkali agent that increases the pH value of the protein's solution. This results in removing hydrogen-bond contributing protons of the protein, which breaks its hydrogen bonds and causes its denaturation.
While many non-avian dinosaurs achieved gigantic sizes, the Sauropods were the true giants of the Mesozoic. in fact, the largest terrestrial vertebrates to ever live are members of this clade. However, it is not easy to estimate how large an animal was from just a fossil skeleton. Which of these is a method by which dinosaur body size is estimated?
a. Paleontologists measure the length of the legs from the hip to the foot and using a 2/3's power relationship convert that to a mass
b. Paleontologists use Archimedes principle and dunk the entire skeleton of a Sauropod into a pool of water and measure the water displacement
c. Paleontologists make scaie models with estimates of muscle mass, density and skin morphology and then estimate the volume of the model and scale it up
d. a and b
e. a and c
Answer:
The correct answer is option d. "a and b".
Explanation:
Plenty of methods had been developed to estimate the body size of dinosaurs such as the gigantic Sauropods. One of the first estimations that paleontologists used was the Archimedes principle, consisting in dunking the entire skeleton of a Sauropod into a pool of water and measure the water displacement or more precisely small dinosaur models. However this method requires the preservation of almost the entire skeleton. A more used and useful method is to measure the length of the legs from the hip to the foot and using a 2/3's power relationship convert that to a mass. This method is more used since it only requires a couple of leg bones, which are often well preserved.
suppose you want to set up an experiment to test the hypothesis that electromagnetic fields cause CCD, and you have 6 hives to work with. Which of these is the best experimental setup?
A. 6 hives exposed to high levels of EMF
B. 5 hives exposed to high levels of EMF and 1 hive with no EMF exposure
C. 3 hives exposed to high levels of EMF and 3 hives with no EMF exposure
D. 2 hives exposed to low EMF levels, 2 hives exposed to medium EMF. levels, and 2 hives to high EMF levels
The best experimental setup to test the hypothesis that EMF causes CCD would be to have 3 hives exposed to high levels of EMF (experimental group) and 3 hives with no EMF exposure (control group). This setup allows for comparison and contrast between the two groups, thus enhancing the accuracy and validity of the test results.
Explanation:The best experimental setup for testing your hypothesis that electromagnetic fields (EMF) cause Colony Collapse Disorder (CCD) in bees would be option C. 3 hives exposed to high levels of EMF and 3 hives with no EMF exposure. This arrangement allows for a control group (the hives with no EMF exposure), and an experimental group (the hives exposed to high levels of EMF).
The control group is necessary to compare and contrast with the experimental group, further enhancing the accuracy and validity of your results.
A good experiment requires a comparison between test subjects (the EMF exposed hives) and control subjects (the hives with no exposure), from which you can draw conclusions.
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There are chemical signals that call on non-infected cells to help fight a virus. Which are they?
A. Complement proteins
B. Macrophages
C. B cells
D. Interferons
E. Natural killer cells
Answer:
D. Interferons
Explanation:
Interferons are the chemical signals (secretary proteins) responsible for activating non-infected cells so that they could fight a virus. In case of a viral infection, a cell infected by virus release interferons to let neighboring cells know the presence of a virus so that they could enhance their anti viral defense.
Interferons are of 3 types:
1) Interferon α
2) Interferon β
3) Interferon γ
Interferon α & β are secreted by white blood cells while interferon γ is mainly synthesized by natural killer cells.
A cross between two pea plants, both of which grew from yellow round seeds, gave the following numbers of seeds: 156 yellow round and 54 yellow wrinkled. What are the genotypes of the parent plants? (Yellow and round are dominant traits.)
The parent plants have genotypes RrYY.
Explanation:In this question, we are given the numbers of yellow round seeds and yellow wrinkled seeds obtained from a cross between two pea plants. To determine the genotypes of the parent plants, we need to consider the dominant traits for seed shape (round) and seed color (yellow).
Let's assign the dominant traits as follows: Yellow (Y) is dominant to green (y), and round (R) is dominant to wrinkled (r).
Given that both parent plants produced yellow round seeds, we can conclude that their genotypes must be heterozygous for both traits: RrYY.
Which of the following serves as reservoir hosts for all three of the pathogens that cause salmonellosis, influenza, and toxoplasmosis?
a. cats
b. reptiles
c. birds
d. mice
e. cattle
Answer: Birds option c is correct.
Explanation: Birds represents an example of natural reservoir host for the three zoonotic pathogens. For example poultry for salmonellosis and influenza from which house cats, humans and birds of prey can be infected. In the case of Toxoplasma gondii pigeons represent a better example of reservoir host.
Relate how Mendel's experimental approach Is similar to the process of modem scientific inquiry.
Answer:
Explanation:
A modern scientific inquiry system uses the scientific method to understand and explain the natural phenomenon.
The scientific theory involves various steps which begin with making an observation , asking questions, doing background research and proposing a hypothesis. The hypothesis is tested through experiments which prove or disproves the hypothesis which when established form laws and theory.
The Mendel followed the same approach unaware of the scientific method and performed experiments to answer the scientific question of how traits are controlled and passed on in generations. He analysed the conclusions which were proved after his death by other scientists and framed the biological laws called Mendel's law of inheritance.
Thus, Mendel's inquiries followed the same steps of the scientific method.
Which of the following observations helped Darwin shape his concept of descent with modification?
a. Species diversity declines farther from the equator.
b. Fewer species live on islands than on the nearest continents.
c. Birds live on islands located farther from the mainland than the birds’ maximum nonstop flight distance.
d. South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of South America than to the temperate plants of Europe.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D.
Explanation:
Darwin is best known for his theory of evolution which he proposes after collecting the specimens of plants and animals on his voyage.
He observed the similarity and differences of the morphological pattern as well as the species present in the area. On the basis of his conclusions, he suggested that organism get traits from their parents and species to change over time also called descent with modification.
One of the evidence that supported his concept is that he observed plant species in South America and found that these species closely resembled the species of the tropical regions of South America rather than species of the temperate region of Europe as the habitat was same.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Option D- South American temperate plants being more similar to tropical plants in South America than to temperate plants of Europe- helped shape Darwin's concept of Descent with Modification. This observation suggested organisms from a common geographical location were likely descendants of a common ancestor, supporting biography and the theory of evolution.
Explanation:The observations that helped Charles Darwin shape his concept of Descent with modification, primarily pertain to the geographical distribution of species, also known as biogeography. Several of the options you provided contain elements of this concept. However, the option which most explicitly illustrates this is:
d. South American temperate plants are more similar to the tropical plants of South America than to the temperate plants of Europe.
This observation supported Darwin's argument that geographic proximity is a better predictor of relationships between species than similarity in environment. This suggests that these species likely originated from a common ancestor and then evolved differently due to different environmental pressures - a phenomenon central to the concept of Descent with modification.
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One of the following is NON-polar molecule
a. fatty acids
b. glucose
c. protein
d. oxygen
Answer:
a. fatty acids is the correct answer.
Explanation:
fatty acids is NON-polar molecule.
Nonpolar molecules are that molecules which are not soluble in water and fatty acids are not soluble in water.
fatty acids are hydrophobic and the hydrocarbon chain present in fatty acids are nonpolar, thus that's the reason fatty acid is nonpolar.
examples of fatty acids
fatscholesterolsoilssteroidsWhy do scientists think that new genes arise by duplication of an original gene and divergence by mutation?
Answer:
Explanation:
This is because of the fact that genomes of the organisms exhibit gene families and superfamilies. These contain genes that typically encode for proteins with similar aminoacid sequences, the proteins form by these aminoacids perform related functions. In this way the genes and their functions are duplicated among the gene families. This duplication of genes prevents the divergence from mutation.
What are vasodilation? Vasoconstriction?
Answer:
Vasodilation:
Vasodilation may be defined as the dilation of the blood capillaries around the skin. The blood capillaries gets widen. The vascular resistance to the blood flow decrease. The blood pressure near the skin decreases. The increase in temperature may cause vasodilation.
Vasoconstriction:
Vasoconstriction may be defined as the constriction of the blood capillaries around the skin. The blood capillaries gets narrow. The vascular resistance to the blood flow increases. The blood pressure near the skin increases. The decrease in temperature may cause vasoconstriction.
Vasodilation is the widening of blood vessels that allows for increased blood flow and promotes heat loss, while vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels that reduces blood flow and conserves heat by vital organs. These processes help regulate body temperature and blood pressure.
Explanation:Vasodilation and vasoconstriction are biological processes related to the control of blood flow in the body. Vasodilation is the widening of blood vessels, it occurs when the smooth muscles in the walls of the blood vessels relax, thereby increasing blood flow. This process allows for radiation and evaporative heat loss. On the other hand, vasoconstriction is the narrowing of blood vessels, it happens when the smooth muscles in the vessel walls contract, reducing blood flow. This process brings blood to the core to conserve heat by vital organs. The balancing act between these two processes helps regulate body temperature and blood pressure.
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Diet and exercise are both considered factors in cancer risk. Exercise is good for just about everything, but what should you eat?
A. A healthy mix of red meat and fruits and vegetables
B. Foods that are white
C. Red meat and foods with high fiber
D. Fruits and vegetables and saturated fats
E. Fruits, vegetables, and high fiber grains
Answer:
E. Fruits, vegetables, and high fiber grains
Explanation:
Prevention of cancer is the act of lowering the risk of getting the cancer .
Prevent cancer -
Maintaining a healthy lifestyle with proper eating habits , like consuming fruits vegetables and grains with high fiber , avoid the exposure of any carcinogenic substance , consumption of medicine and vaccines timely .
Exercise also plays a key role to maintain a fit and healthy body . Avoid direct sun , to protect the skin from harmful UVA and UVB radiations , hence sunscreen is mandatory on the daily basis .
To reduce the risk of cancer, it is recommended to eat a diet rich in fruits, vegetables, and high fiber grains. Hence, option E is correct.
Fruits and vegetables are rich in nutrients, antioxidants, and phytochemicals which may protect against or reduce oxidative damage to cells. Cruciferous vegetables, in particular, have been associated with a reduced risk of certain cancers. Foods rich in dietary fiber, such as whole grains and legumes, also play a role in decreasing the risk of colon cancer by promoting the rapid passage of materials through the colon and reducing the production of cancer-causing agents.
Maintaining a diet low in processed meats and red meats, avoiding excessive alcohol consumption, and emphasizing all types of fibers can further lower the risk of cancer.
Natural selection changes allele frequencies because some ______ survive and reproduce better than others.
a. alleles
b. loci
c. species
d. individuals
Answer:
The correct answer is option D. Individuals.
Explanation:
Natural selection is the process in which some individuals adapt traits or trends according to the environment changes in order to service and reproduce more. These trends are pass from one generation to another generation.
Natural selection is the first time described by Charles darwin.
Thus, the correct answer is option-
d. individuals
Some individuals survive and can reproduce better compared to others.
Natural selection is a method of selection of the organisms that have adapted to the change in their environment and can survive and reproduce in the variation.
What survives and adapts to natural selection?Individuals having better traits and attribute over others can survive and even can continue the generation of the species as they have adapted to the frequency change of the allele.
The alleles are the alternative gene form for a particular trait and characteristic and are located on the chromosome of the organism as they get passed from generation over generation.
Loci or the locus is a specific point where the allele for a specific trait lies on the chromosome. Species is the classification level of the taxonomy and includes organisms having major similar traits.
Therefore, option d is correct.
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What term is used to describe the relationship of the DNA strands to each other?
a. parallel
b. antiparallel
c. congruent
d. non-congruent
e. recumbent
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B.
Explanation:
Deoxyribose nucleic acid or DNA is the genetic material of the organism which is made up of nucleotide monomer. The structure of DNA is made up of two strands of nucleotides coiled in a helical structure thus providing a double-helical shape to the structure.
Each nucleotide of a strand is composed of a five-carbon sugar, phosphate group and nitrogenous bases. These molecules are arranged in anti-parallel fashion in DNA which provides the polarity to the DNA strand. One strand is read from the 5' to 3' direction whereas another form 3'to 5' direction.
Thus, Option-B is the correct answer.
No two people are genetically identical, except for identical twins. The main source of genetic variation among humans is
a. new mutations that occurred in the preceding generation.
b. genetic drift.
c. the reshuffling of alleles in sexual reproduction.
d. environmental effects.
Answer:
c. the reshuffling of alleles in sexual reproduction.
Explanation:
During gametogenesis, meiosis occurs in reproductive cells. As a result, haploid gametes are produced. During meiosis, a process called ‘crossing over’ occurs in the pachytene stage of prophase I of meiosis. During crossing the chromosome segments are exchanged between non-sister chromatids of homologous chromosomes. Exchange of chromosome segment creates a new combination of genes or genetic recombination and produces hybrids. Thus, genetic variation occurs in all sexually reproducing organisms due to crossing over.
How did Taq DNA polymerase acquire its name?
Answer:
Taq DNA polymerase is an enzyme which can withstand the high temperature as it is resistance to heat therefore is heat stable. This enzyme plays an important role in Polymerase chain reaction as a procedure requires high temperature.
The enzyme was originally isolated from a thermophilic bacterium named Thermus aquaticus near the Lower Geyser Basin of Yellowstone National Park. The Taq word was adapted from the name of the bacteria as Thermus aquaticus = Taq and polymerase as it poylmerizes the DNA.
Taq DNA polymerase derived its name from the thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus, wherein it was first isolated. The enzyme is crucial in the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR) process due to its ability to withstand high temperatures. It plays a key role in DNA replication by adding nucleotides to the growing DNA chain.
Explanation:The enzyme Taq DNA polymerase got its name from the bacterium it was derived from, thermophilic bacterium Thermus aquaticus, which was isolated from a hot spring in Yellowstone National Park. The prefix 'Taq' is a shorthand reference to Thermus aquaticus.
In the Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR), a procedure commonly used in molecular biology to replicate a specific DNA sequence, Taq DNA polymerase plays a crucial role. Due to its stability at high temperatures, it can withstand the heat used in PCR. This quality enables it to construct new strands of DNA based on the templates, providing new copies of the desired sequence.
DNA polymerase in general, is an enzyme that adds nucleotides to the growing DNA chain during the process of DNA replication. This process requires energy which the enzyme obtains from nucleotides that have three phosphates attached to them.
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A functional group on an amino acid that is polar and can become negatively charged: ___________
Answer:
Carboxylic acid.
Explanation:
Amino acids are made up of the amine group, carboxyl group, hydrogen and R hydrophobic chain. Amino acids are the monomers of the protein and they are coded by the particular codons.
Amino acids contains both the amino group and the carboxyl group. The carboxylic group is a polar group and becomes negative charged when the pH of the solution is greater than the pKa value of the amino acids.
Thus, the answer is carboxylic acid.
Which method is used to construct large, recombinant vectors when polylinker restriction enzymes are not useful?
a. recombineering
b. FISH
c. gene libraries
d. YACs
e. hybridization
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A.
Explanation:
Recombineering is a molecular technique based on the recombination mechanism of DNA which is also known as recombination-mediated genetic engineering.
This method is used mainly in bacterial genetics to generate conditional mouse knockout target vector and modifying DNA in Bacterial artificial chromosome.
Since it does not use older methods like restriction enzymes and DNA ligases to combine DNA, therefore, option-A is the correct answer.
The control for a complementation test, which is often omitted, is the:
a. trans test
b. cis test
c. complementation hybrid
d. citron test
e. cis-trans test
Answer:
b. cis test
Explanation:
A test that is used to determine if the mutation associated with a given phenotype is due to mutations in two different genes or due to different alleles of the same gene is called a complementation test.
A complementation test is also called as a cis-trans test.
If the mutations in a complementation test are located on the same position then the genes are termed as being on the cis position otherwise on the trans-position.
A cis test, that is if the genes are located on the same position serves as a control for the complementation test.
The control for a complementation test, which is often omitted, is the b. cis test.
In genetics, the complementation test is used to determine whether two mutations that produce a similar phenotype are in different genes or in different sites within the same gene. The test involves crossing two mutants to see if their offspring have the wild type phenotype, indicating complementary mutations. The control for this test is the cis test, where both mutations are present on the same piece of DNA. This confirms whether the mutations can complement each other when in close proximity, which is necessary for an accurate complementation test. Without this control, one might incorrectly conclude complementation when, in reality, the two mutations could interact in a cis configuration to produce a wild type phenotype.
Explain the reasoning establishing that a sequence of three nucleotides (a triplet codon) is the basic unit of the code relating DNA to protein.
Answer:
A sequence of three nucleotide called triplet codon is the basic unit of the code relating DNA to protein because we have four nucleotide which can code for 20 amino acids. So if we take a doublet code it can code for only 16 combination (4²=16) which is not sufficient for 20 amino acids.
But when we take a triplet code it can code for 64(4³=64) combination which is sufficient to code 20 amino acids found in human body. So this was the reason for scientist to establish three nucleotide code for a single amino acids. Later it was found that genetic code is universal and in every organism it is same for a particular amino acid.
In the cells of some organisms, mitosis occurs without cytokinesis. This will result in
a. cells with more than one nucleus.
b. cells that are unusually small.
c. cells lacking nuclei.
d. cell cycles lacking an S phase
Answer:
a. cells with more than one nucleus.
Explanation:
Mitosis is a cell division which completes in two stages. The first stage is called karyokinesis in which one nucleus divides into two and the second stage is called cytokinesis in which division of the cytoplasm takes place. During mitosis, cytokinesis is followed by karyokinesis. If a cell begins to divide and the division ceases after karyokinesis then the cell will have more then one nuclei in the absence of cytokinesis. Each of the nuclei will have the same number of chromosomes.
A cell with more than one nucleus is called a multinucleated cell. For example, human bone cell has many nuclei.
When mitosis occurs without cytokinesis, it results in cells with more than one nucleus, as the physical separation of the newly formed nuclei into distinct cells does not occur.
Explanation:In the cells of some organisms, when mitosis occurs without cytokinesis, it will result in cells with more than one nucleus. Mitosis is the process of cell division whereby the nucleus of the cell divides, producing two identical nuclei. Cytokinesis is the actual division of the cell into two parts, physically separating the two nuclei into distinct cells. If cytokinesis does not occur following mitosis, both nuclei will remain in the same cell, resulting in a cell with more than one nucleus.
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Describe the key features of the Watson-Crick model for DNA structure.
Answer:
Watson and Crick proposed the double helical model of DNA.
Explanation:
- This model says that DNA exist as double helix. It has two polynucelotide strands running in opposite direction i.e the strands are anti-parallel.
- Each polynucleotide strand is made up of several nucleotide liknked together by phophodiester bonds.
- The two strands are not coiled upon each other but the double strand is coiled upon itself around a common axis like the spiral stair case. Here base pairs forms the stairs and backbone of two strands form railing. Back bone contains sugar and phosphate.
- The base pairing is specific, adenine always pairs with thymine and guanine always pairs with cytosine. Thus if we see any base pair, it consists of one purine and one pyrimidine.
- The two strands of DNA thus show complementary base pairing.
- The strands are held together because of hydrogen bonding between the bases in opposite strand.
- One full helical turn involves ten base pairs and the base pairs are stacked 3.4 A apart.
- This form is called as B-form of DNA.
In analyzing the number of different bases in a DNA sample, which result would be consistent with the base-pairing rules?
a. A = G
b. A + G = C + T
c. A + T = G + C
d. A = C
Answer:
b. A + G = C + T
Explanation:
Chargaff's rule states that a DNA molecule has the same amount of pyrimidines (T and C) as purines (A and G).
In the DNA, A pairs with T and G pairs with C. For that reason, the number of A bases has to be the same as the number of T bases, and the number of G has to be the same as the number of C.
Using the DNA base-pairing rules, the equation A + G = C + T would be consistent as the total number of purines (A and G) equals the total number of pyrimidines (C and T).
Explanation:Within DNA, the base-pairing rules state that adenine (A) pairs with thymine (T), and guanine (G) pairs with cytosine (C). Based on these rules, the equation A + G = C + T would be consistent as the total number of purines (A and G) equals the total number of pyrimidines (C and T). The other options are incorrect because A does not equal G or C, and the sum of A and T does not necessarily equal the sum of G and C.
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Glycolyis occurs ________________
a. photosynthesis
b. aerobic respiration only
c. both aerobic and anaerobic respiration
d. anaerobic respiration only
Answer:
Both aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Explanation:
Glycolysis may be defined as the process of break down of glucose molecules for the formation pf ATP with the help of enzymes and chemical factors. Glycolysis occurs in the cytosol of the organism.
Glycolysis may occur in the presence of organism known as aerobic respiration. The glycolysis can occur in the absence of oxygen as well known as anaerobic respiration. The steps involved up to the formation of pyruvate molecule from the glucose is same in case of aerobic and anaerobic respiration.
Thus, the correct answer is option (c).
Enzymes are important in cell's chemical reaction. Describe what a enzyme's role in chemical reactions is and explain what an enzyme does. The following key words may help you structure your response: active site, enzyme-substrate complex, and activation energy. Please try to use...
Answer:
Enzymes are proteins that allow certain chemical reactions to take place much quicker than the reactions would occur on their own.
Explanation:
Enzymes function as catalysts, which means that they speed up the rate at which metabolic processes and reactions occur in living organisms.
Answer:
Enzymes are proteins that catalyze chemical reactions that occur in living things. They accelerate the speed of reactions, which contributes to metabolism. Without enzymes, many reactions would be extremely slow.
Explanation:
Each enzyme is specific to a type of reaction. That is, they only act on a given compound and always perform the same type of reaction. The compound on which the enzyme acts is generally referred to as substrate. The great enzyme-substrate specificity is related to the three-dimensional form of both.
The enzyme binds to a substrate molecule in a specific region called a binding site. For this, both the enzyme and the substrate undergo conformation change for the socket.
They fit perfectly like keys in locks. We call this behavior the Key-Lock Theory.
There is antibody-mediated and cell-mediated specific immunity. Which type of cells are primarily involved in the antibody-mediated immune response?
A. Macrophages
B. B cells
C. Complement proteins
D. T cells
E. Antigens
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. B cells.
Explanation:
An antibody-mediated immune response is an immune response that involves the B cells to recognize the antigen or pathogen present in the blood or the lymph of an individual that is the reason it is also known as the humoral immune response.
The primary response in the antibody-mediated response is B cells as they are activated by the chemicals released by the helper T cells and start producing plasma B cells and memory B cells.
Thus, the correct answer is option - b. B cells.
Which factor most likely caused animals and plants in India to differ greatly from species in nearby southeast Asia?
a. The species became separated by convergent evolution.
b. The climates of the two regions are similar.
c. India is in the process of separating from the rest of Asia.
d. India was a separate continent until 45 million years ago.
Answer:
The correct answer is option d. "India was a separate continent until 45 million years ago".
Explanation:
135 million years ago, Pangea was a single continent that became separated into Laurasia in the north and Gondwana in the south. India was part of Gondwana along with Australia, South America, Antarctica and Africa. However, as a result of tectonic activity India got separated from Gondwana. This period of time at which India was a separated continent is the factor that most likely explains why animals and plants in India differ greatly from species in nearby southeast Asia. At being a separated continent, India's plants and animals go through an independent evolutionary process which made them very different an unique from nearby species.
The difference in species between India and Southeast Asia is due to India being a separate continent until about 45 million years ago, leading to the evolution of distinct species through geographic isolation.
Explanation:The most likely cause for the difference in animal and plant species between India and Southeast Asia is related to geographic isolation. Historically, India was indeed a separate continent until about 45 million years ago; this prolonged separation has allowed for the evolution of distinct species in India that differ from those in nearby Southeast Asia. This concept is fundamental to our understanding of biogeography and evolutionary theory, showcasing how geographic barriers can lead to speciation.
Regions such as Australia and India, which have been physically separated from other land masses for millions of years, are home to many endemic species — species that are found nowhere else on Earth. This is a result of species evolving in relative isolation, without the influence of gene flow from outside their geographic area, leading to unique biological diversity in these separated regions. Thus, the distinct animal and plant life in India compared to Southeast Asia can be attributed to the historical separation of India as a land mass.
Charles Darwin observed this phenomenon during his scientific expeditions, noting that geographically isolated areas with similar climates often had 'utterly dissimilar' flora and fauna, further providing evidence for speciation through geographic isolation.
What are the potential benefits, if any, and the side effects of each of the following supplements: steriods, diuretics, creatine, stimulants, boron, and vanadium.
Answer:
Steroids are prescribed to treat the condition of inadequate testosterone production, to treat the injury, and to initiate puberty. Some of the potential side effects of steroids are that in males it can cause reduction in sperm count, and shrinkage of testicles. While in women, it can cause the growth of body hair and can reduce the size of breasts.
In both males and females, steroids can cause liver and kidney damage, acne, heart issue, and psychological issues.
Diuretics help to reduce the amount of fluid in the blood vessels, which further helps to lower the blood pressure. Some of the side effects of diuretics are fatigue, muscle cramps, irregular heartbeat, dehydration, and even death.
Creatine assists in making muscles to produce more ATP and delay muscle fatigue. Some of the side effects are stomach and muscle cramps, diarrhea, nausea, weight gain, and water retention.
Stimulants help to reduce fatigue, better alertness and suppress appetite. Some of the side effects are nervousness, irritability, increased blood pressure, insomnia, hallucinations, and heart attack.
Boron is used in the treatment of osteoarthritis, enhances the levels of testosterone, and for better muscle coordination and better-thinking skills. Some of the side effects of boron are diarrhea, dermatitis, discoloration of feces, vomiting, nausea, and upper abdominal pain.
Vanadium is used to treat low blood sugar, diabetes, heart issue, high cholesterol, water retention, syphilis, and better athletic performance in weight training, and even prevents cancer. However, it can cause some side effects like green tongue, and diarrhea.
There are various supplements each with potential benefits and side effects. Steroids increase muscle mass but can cause health problems; diuretics remove waters and salts in bodies but can dehydrate; creatine increases strength and muscle mass but can lead to stomach discomfort; stimulants enhance focus and reduce fatigue but can increase heart rate; Boron could boost testosterone levels but high doses are toxic; Vanadium could improve athletic performance, but could damage kidneys.
Explanation:Several types of supplements are used for different purposes, each with potential benefits and side effects.
Steroids, synthetic forms of the male hormone testosterone, can help build muscle mass, however, their side effects can include infertility, aggressive behavior, cardiovascular disease, and brain cancer.Diuretics increase the amount of water and salt expelled from the body as urine. While this can aid rapid weight loss, it can also lead to dehydration, kidney problems, and electrolyte imbalances.Creatine is used to improve strength and lean muscle mass. It's generally safe but can cause side effects like stomach discomfort, muscle cramping, and dehydration with excessive use.Stimulants, like caffeine, can improve focus and reduce fatigue, but may lead to increased heart rate, hypertension, and insomnia.Boron is thought to boost testosterone levels, however, research is limited and high doses can lead to poisoning symptoms, including vomiting, inflammation, and digestive discomfort.Lastly, Vanadium may improve athletic performance and bodybuilding but it's not well studied, and can potentially cause kidney damage in high doses.
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Vinblastine is a standard chemotherapeutic drug used to treat cancer. Because it interferes with the assembly of microtubules, its effectiveness must be related to
a. disruption of mitotic spindle formation.
b. suppression of cyclin production.
c. myosin denaturation and inhibition of cleavage furrow formation.
d. inhibition of DNA synthesis
Answer:
a. disruption of mitotic spindle formation.
Explanation:
Vinblastine is a chemotherapeutic drug which is used to restrict cancer cell proliferation. During metaphase, it binds to microtubular proteins which play a very important role in mitotic spindle formation. If spindles will not form then during anaphase, the sister chromatids will not separate and mitosis will not take place. This is how hyper-proliferative cancerous cells are controlled from dividing and cancer is treated using this drug.