A moving particle encounters an external electric field that decreases its kinetic energy from 9650 eV to 8900 eV as the particle moves from position A to position B The electric potential at A is 56.0 V and that at B is 19.0 V Determine the charge of the particle Include the algebraic sign or with your answer.

Answer:

The change in internal energy and efficiency are 10000 J and 5.26%.

Explanation:

Given that,

Work = 500 J

Heat transfer = 9500 J

(a). We need to calculate the decrease in her internal energy

Using equation of internal energy of a system

[tex]\Delta U=Q-W[/tex]

Q = heat

W = work done

Put the value into the formula

She looses her heat -9500 J

[tex]\Delta U=-9500-500[/tex]

[tex]\Delta U=-10000\ J[/tex]

(b). We need to calculate the efficiency

Using formula of efficiency

[tex]e=\dfrac{W}{Q}[/tex]

[tex]e=\dfrac{500}{9500}[/tex]

[tex]e=0.0526\times100[/tex]

[tex]e=5.26\%[/tex]

Hence, The change in internal energy and efficiency are 10000 J and 5.26%.

By using the first law of thermodynamics, we calculate the decrease in the woman's internal energy to be -10000 J as a result of 500 J of work done and 9500 J of heat transfer into the environment. Her efficiency, defined as the ratio of work done to the absolute value of the decrease in internal energy, is found to be 5%.

Part (a), let's calculate the decrease in her internal energy. We'll use the first law of thermodynamics, ΔU = Q - W, which stipulates that the change in internal energy (ΔU) in a system is equal to the heat transferred into the system (Q) minus the work done by the system (W). Here, the heat transferred is -9500 J (it's negative since it's transferred out of her body). The work done is 500 J. Hence, the decrease in internal energy is ΔU = -9500 J - 500 J = -10000 J.

For part (b), efficiency (η) is defined as the ratio of the useful output to the total input. In this case, the useful output is the work done, and the total input is the absolute value of the decrease in internal energy. Thus, her efficiency is η = 500 J / 10000 J = 5%.

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Answer and Explanation:

the electronic devices always have some noises present in the signal

there are some important considerations in optical fiber communications these are.

PRINCIPLE OF POPULATION INVERSION :

The principle of population inversion is defined as for production of high percentage of simulated emission for a laser beam the number of atoms in higher state should be greater than lower energy state

Noise considerations are important in optical fiber communications to maintain the fidelity of the transmitted signal. Population inversion, a critical principle for laser operation, involves achieving more particles in an excited state than in a lower energy state. Single frequency operation and the prevention of multiple transverse modes result in a more focused beam for optimal transmission.

Noise considerations are crucial in optical fiber communications because they can affect the fidelity and integrity of the transmitted signal. Noise can result from a variety of sources, including intrinsic factors within the fiber, like Rayleigh scattering, or from external influences such as electromagnetic interference. Managing noise is essential to maintain a high signal-to-noise ratio (SNR), which enables the clear and accurate transmission of data over long distances.

The principle of population inversion is critical to the functioning of lasers, which are the light sources commonly used in optical fiber communication. Population inversion occurs when a system has more particles in an excited state than in a lower energy state, which is normally the opposite of what happens in thermal equilibrium. It can be achieved by pumping the system with energy, which propels the electrons into a higher energy level. Once the system has achieved population inversion, stimulated emission can occur, leading to the amplification of light and allowing for laser emission.

In laser systems, single frequency operation is often desired, which can be obtained through various methods such as using a monochromatic light source or employing optical filters. Regarding transverse modes, these are the different patterns of light intensity distribution across the cross-section of the beam. Preventing multiple transverse modes ensures that the laser operates in a single spatial mode, providing a cleaner and more focused beam, which is ideal for optical fiber transmissions.

Answer:

Part a)

[tex]V = 7.2 \times 10^{11} Volts[/tex]

Part b)

this is a large potential which can not be possible because at this high potential the air will break down and the charge on the sphere will decrease.

Part C)

here we can assume the sphere is placed at vacuum so that there is no break down of air.

Explanation:

Part a)

As we know that the potential near the surface of metal sphere is given by the equation

[tex]V = \frac{kQ}{R}[/tex]

here we have

Q = 8 C

R = 10.0 cm

now we have

[tex]V = \frac{(9\times 10^9)(8 C)}{0.10}[/tex]

[tex]V = 7.2 \times 10^{11} Volts[/tex]

Part b)

this is a large potential which can not be possible because at this high potential the air will break down and the charge on the sphere will decrease.

Part C)

here we can assume the sphere is placed at vacuum so that there is no break down of air.

Final answer:

The voltage near a 10.0 cm diameter metal sphere with 8.00 C of excess charge is calculated to be 1.438 x 10^12 V, which is unreasonable due to the high value leading to inevitable discharge. The assumption of an 8.00 C charge on such a small sphere is responsible for this unrealistic result.

Explanation:

Calculating the Voltage near a Charged Sphere

To find the voltage near a 10.0 cm diameter metal sphere with an excess positive charge of 8.00 C, we use the formula V = kQ/r, where V is the voltage, k is Coulomb's constant (8.99 x 10^9 N m^2/C^2), Q is the charge, and r is the radius of the sphere. For a diameter of 10.0 cm, the radius (r) is 0.05 m. Thus, V = (8.99 x 10^9 N m^2/C^2 * 8.00 C) / 0.05 m = 1.438 x 10^12 V.

Unreasonable Voltage

This voltage is extremely high and unreasonable because a metal sphere of that size could not sustain such a high voltage without discharging. The consequence of such a high voltage would include electric breakdown of the air around the sphere, leading to sparks or lightning-like discharges.

Erroneous Assumptions

The assumption responsible for this unreasonable result is the magnitude of charge being considered. An 8.00 C charge on a small metal sphere is significantly larger than what could realistically accumulate on the surface, given the limits of charge density and material breakdown thresholds.

Answer:

a) [tex]\frac{m_1}{m_2}=\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

b) Acceleration = 0.75 m/s²

Explanation:

a) We have force , F = mass x acceleration.

[tex]\texttt{Value of force}=F_s[/tex]

[tex]\texttt{Acceleration of }m_1=3m/s^2\\\\\texttt{Acceleration of }m_2=1m/s^2[/tex]

We have force value is same

       [tex]m_1\times 3=m_2\times 1\\\\\frac{m_1}{m_2}=\frac{1}{3}[/tex]

b) We have

         [tex]m_1\times 3=m_2\times 1\\\\m_2=3m_1[/tex]

Combined mass

       [tex]m=m_1+m_2=m_1+3m_1=4m_1[/tex]

Force

         [tex]F_s=4m_1\times a\\\\a=\frac{F_s}{4m_1}=\frac{1}{4}\times \frac{F_s}{m_1}=\frac{1}{4}\times 3=0.75m/s^2[/tex]

Answer:

[tex]5.32\cdot 10^4 g[/tex]

Explanation:

First of all, we need to find the volume of the room, which is given by

[tex]V=2.50 m \cdot 5.50 m \cdot 3.00 m =41.3 m^3[/tex]

Now we  can find the mass of the air by using

[tex]m=dV[/tex]

where

[tex]d=1.29 g/dm^3[/tex] is the density of the air

[tex]V=41.3 m^3 = 41,300 dm^3[/tex] is the volume of the room

Substituting,

[tex]m=(1.29)(41300)=5.32\cdot 10^4 g[/tex]

Final answer:

The mass of the air in a room with dimensions 2.50 m x 5.50 m x 3.00 m and an air density of 1.29 g/dm³ is calculated to be 53.2 kg.

Explanation:

The mass of the air in the room can be calculated by using the formula for density, which is mass (mass) equals density (density) times volume (volume), or m = ρV. Given that the density of air is 1.29 g/dm³, first we need to convert the measurements of the room to dm³ (decimeters cubed) as the given room dimensions are in meters. The volume of the room is 2.50 m x 5.50 m x 3.00 m which equals 41.25 m³. Converting from cubic meters to cubic decimeters results in 41,250 dm³ (1 m³ = 1,000 dm³). Therefore, the mass of air is calculated as 1.29 g/dm³ * 41,250 dm³, which equals 53,212.5 grams or 53.2 kg.

Answer:

Velocity is 2.17 m/s at an angle of 9.03° above X-axis.

Explanation:

Mass of object 1 , m₁ = 300 g = 0.3 kg

Mass of object 2 , m₂ = 400 g = 0.4 kg

Initial velocity of object 1 , v₁ = 5.00i-3.20j m/s

Initial velocity of object 2 , v₂ = 3.00j m/s

Mass of composite = 0.7 kg

We need to find final velocity of composite.

Here momentum is conserved.

Initial momentum = Final momentum

Initial momentum = 0.3 x (5.00i-3.20j) + 0.4 x 3.00j = 1.5 i + 0.24 j kgm/s

Final momentum = 0.7 x v = 0.7v kgm/s

Comparing

1.5 i + 0.24 j = 0.7v

v = 2.14 i + 0.34 j

Magnitude of velocity      

       [tex]v=\sqrt{2.14^2+0.34^2}=2.17m/s[/tex]

Direction,  

       [tex]\theta =tan^{-1}\left ( \frac{0.34}{2.14}\right )=9.03^0[/tex]

Velocity is 2.17 m/s at an angle of 9.03° above X-axis.

The average current passing through a device is given by:

I = Q/Δt

I is the average current

Q is the amount of charge that has passed through the device

Δt is the amount of elapsed time

Given values:

Q = 4.00C

Δt = 4.00hr = 14400s

Plug in the values and solve for I:

I = 4.00/14400

I = 0.000277777778A

I = 0.278mA

Final answer:

The current produced by the solar cells of a pocket calculator through which 4.00 C of charge passes in 4.00 hours is 0.278 milliamperes.

Explanation:

The current produced by the solar cells of a pocket calculator when 4.00 C of charge passes through it in 4.00 hours can be calculated using the formula for electric current I = Q / t, where I is the current in amperes, Q is the charge in coulombs, and t is the time in seconds.

To find the current in milliamperes (mA), first convert the time to seconds:

4.00 hours × 3600 seconds/hour = 14400 seconds.

Next, use the formula to calculate current:

I = 4.00 C / 14400 s = 0.00027778 A,

which is equivalent to 0.278 mA

Answer:

Option (A)

Explanation:

The relation between degree Celsius and kelvin is

Degree C = K - 273

So change in 1 degree C is same as 1 kelvin.

Answer: The average atomic mass of the given element is 20.169 amu.

Explanation:

Average atomic mass of an element is defined as the sum of masses of the isotopes each multiplied by their natural fractional abundance.

Formula used to calculate average atomic mass follows:

[tex]\text{Average atomic mass }=\sum_{i=1}^n\text{(Atomic mass of an isotopes)}_i\times \text{(Fractional abundance})_i[/tex]     .....(1)

We are given:

Mass of isotope 1 = 19.99 amu

Percentage abundance of isotope 1 = 90.92 %

Fractional abundance of isotope 1 = 0.9092

Mass of isotope 2 = 20.99 amu

Percentage abundance of isotope 2 = 0.26%

Fractional abundance of isotope 2 = 0.0026

Mass of isotope 3 = 21.99 amu

Percentage abundance of isotope 3 = 8.82%

Fractional abundance of isotope 3 = 0.0882  

Putting values in equation 1, we get:

[tex]\text{Average atomic mass}=[(19.99\times 0.9092)+(20.99\times 0.0026)+(21.99\times 0.0882)][/tex]

[tex]\text{Average atomic mass}=20.169amu[/tex]

Hence, the average atomic mass of the given element is 20.169 amu.

Answer:

9.82 m/s^2

Explanation:

T = 2 s, g = 9.8 m/s^2

T' = 1.99796 s

Let the acceleration due to gravity at new location is g'.

The formula for the time period of simple pendulum is given by

[tex]T = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g}}[/tex]     .... (1)

here, length of the pendulum remains same.

Now at the new location, let the time period be T'.

[tex]T' = 2\pi \sqrt{\frac{L}{g'}}[/tex]    .... (2)

Divide equation (2) by equation (1), we get

[tex]\frac{T'}{T} = \sqrt{\frac{g}{g'}}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{1.99796}{2} = \sqrt{\frac{9.8}{g'}}[/tex]

[tex]0.99796 = {\frac{9.8}{g'}}[/tex]

g' = 9.82 m/s^2

tT9.82 m/s².

Pendulum is the body which is pivoted a point and perform back and forth motion around that point by swinging due to the influence of gravity.

The time period of a pendulum is the time taken by it to complete one cycle of swing left to right and right to left.

It can be given as,

[tex]T=2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{L}{g}}[/tex]

Here, (g) is the gravitational force of Earth and (L) is the length of the pendulum.

The time period of the pendulum with a period of 2 s in one location g=9.80m/s2 can be given as,

[tex]2=2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{L}{9.8}}\\L=0.996468\rm m[/tex]      

Now, this pendulum is move to a new location where the period is now 1.99796 s. Thus, put the value in the above formula as,

[tex]1.99796=2\pi \sqrt{\dfrac{0.996468}{g}}\\g=9.82\rm m/s^2[/tex]

Thus, the acceleration due to gravity at its new location for the pendulum is 9.82 m/s².

Learn more about the time period of pendulum here;

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Answer:

(N x π x r^2 x Cosθ) / R x dB(t) / dt

Explanation:

radius = r , Number of turns = N, B = B(t), Angle = θ, Resistance = R

induced emf = rate of change of magnetic flux

e  = - N x dΦ / dt

e = - N x d(B A Cosθ) / dt

e = - N x A x Cosθ x dB(t) / dt

e = - N x π x r^2 x Cosθ x dB(t) / dt

where, negative sign shows the direction of induced emf in the coil.

induced current, i = induced emf / resistance

i = - (N x π x r^2 x Cosθ) / R x dB(t) / dt

Using the principle of continuity for incompressible fluids, if the diameter of a blood vessel is reduced by 59.0% due to plaque, the speed of the blood just as it enters this section will be approximately 2.44 times its initial speed.

The subject of the question falls under the topic of fluid flow in physics, specifically concerning the principle of continuity for incompressible fluids. This principle, often applied in fluid dynamics, suggests that in an area of steadily flowing fluid, the mass passing through one cross-section in a unit of time equals the mass passing through other sections.

Given this principle, if the cross-sectional area of the blood vessel decreases due to plaque buildup, the speed of the blood flow must increase accordingly to maintain a steady flow rate. If the diameter of the vessel decreases by 59.0%, the cross-sectional area A, which is proportional to the square of the diameter (A ~ D²), will be reduced to 0.41 of its original value (because (1 - 59/100)² = 0.41). Therefore, the speed V would be 1/0.41, or approximately 2.44 times the original speed V0.

So, if the blood vessel's diameter is reduced by 59.0%, then just as the blood enters the blocked portion of the vessel, its speed V will be 2.44 times the initial speed V0.

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Answer:

F = 15771.6 N

Explanation:

Initial velocity of ball just before it will collide is given as

[tex]v_i = \sqrt{2gh_1}[/tex]

[tex]v_i = \sqrt{2(9.81)(32.2)}[/tex]

[tex]v_i = 25.13 m/s[/tex]

now for final speed of rebound we have

[tex]v_f = \sqrt{2gh_2}[/tex]

[tex]v_f = \sqrt{2(9.81)(22.1)}[/tex]

[tex]v_f = 20.82 m/s[/tex]

now the average force is given as

[tex]F = \frac{mv_f - mv_i}{\Delta t}[/tex]

[tex]F = \frac{0.556(20.82 + 25.13)}{1.62 \times 10^{-3}}[/tex]

[tex]F = 15771.6 N[/tex]

Answer:

Electric field, [tex]E=5.63\times 10^{16}\ N/C[/tex]

Explanation:

Given that,

Charge, [tex]q=1.83\times 10^5\ C[/tex]

We need to find the magnitude of electric field 17.1 cm (0.171 m) above an isolated charge. Electric field at a point is given by :

[tex]E=\dfrac{kq}{r^2}[/tex]

[tex]E=\dfrac{9\times 10^9\times 1.83\times 10^5\ C}{(0.171\ m)^2}[/tex]

[tex]E=5.63\times 10^{16}\ N/C[/tex]

So, the electric field is [tex]5.63\times 10^{16}\ N/C[/tex]. Hence, this is the required solution.

Answer:

Option D is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Stress is the force per unit area that tend to change the shape of body.

Stress is defined as internal resistive force per unit area.

         [tex]\texttt{Stress}=\frac{\texttt{Internal resistive force}}{\texttt{Area}}[/tex]

         [tex]\sigma =\frac{F}{A}[/tex]

So, so stress distributed over an area is best described as internal resistive force.

Option D is the correct answer.

Final answer:

Stress distributed over an area refers to the internal resistive forces that develop within a material in response to applied external forces. It is best described as an internal force, specifically termed internal resistive force, and is measured as the force per unit area.

Explanation:

Stress distributed over an area is best described as d) Internal resistive force. Stress is a physical quantity that represents the internal forces per unit area within a material that develop as a response to applied external forces or changes in temperature. It is calculated by the ratio of force to area and measured in Newtons per square meter (N/m²). Stress caused by forces perpendicular to the cross-section of the material is called normal stress, which can be tensile or compressive. Similarly, stress caused by forces parallel to the area, such as shear stress, represents deformation through sliding layers.

For example, when a metal rod is pulled from both ends, the internal resistive forces that develop within the material to oppose elongation are a manifestation of tensile stress. In contrast, when a book is pushed down upon by a hand, the internal resistive forces that prevent the book from compressing are an example of compressive stress.

Answer:

The cylinder’s total kinetic energy is 1.918 J.

Explanation:

Given that,

Mass = 4.1 kg

Radius = 0.057 m

Speed = 0.79 m/s

We need to calculate the linear kinetic energy

Using formula of linear kinetic energy

[tex]K.E_{l}=\dfrac{1}{2}mv^2[/tex]

[tex]K.E_{l}=\dfrac{1}{2}\times4.1\times(0.79)^2[/tex]

[tex]K.E_{l}=1.279\ J[/tex]

We need to calculate the rotational kinetic energy

[tex]K.E_{r}=\dfrac{1}{2}\times I\omega^2[/tex]

[tex]K.E_{r}=\dfrac{1}{2}\times\dfrac{1}{2}\times mr^2\times(\dfrac{v}{r})^2[/tex]

[tex]K.E_{r}=\dfrac{1}{4}\times m\times v^2[/tex]

[tex]K.E_{r}=\dfrac{1}{4}\times4.1\times(0.79)^2[/tex]

[tex]K.E_{r}=0.639\ J[/tex]

The total kinetic energy is given by

[tex]K.E=K.E_{l}+K.E_{r}[/tex]

[tex]K.E=1.279+0.639[/tex]

[tex]K.E=1.918\ J[/tex]

Hence, The cylinder’s total kinetic energy is 1.918 J.

Answer:

flow rate in pipe B is 16 times the flow in pipe A

Explanation:

According to the poiseuille's law, flow rate  is is given as

[tex]Q = \frac{ \pi Pr^{4}}{8\eta*L}[/tex]

Flow rate  in the pipe will remain same as above i.e,

[tex]Q_{A} = \frac{\pi Pr^{4}}{8\eta*L}[/tex]

Flow in the pipe be will be

As diameter OF PIPE B is doubled

AND length of both pipes remained same

[tex]Q_{B} = \frac{\pi P(2r)^{4}}{8\eta*L}[/tex]

          [tex]= \frac {16\pi P(r)^{4}} {8\eta*L}}[/tex]

          so we have

flow rate in pipe B is 16 times the flow rate  in pipe A

The flow rate in pipe B is four times larger than the flow rate in pipe A.

The flow rate in pipe B can be determined using the continuity equation, which states that the flow rate must be the same at all points along the pipe. The equation is given as Q = Av, where Q is the flow rate, A is the cross-sectional area, and v is the average velocity.

Since pipe B has twice the diameter of pipe A, its cross-sectional area is four times larger. Therefore, the flow rate in pipe B will be four times larger than the flow rate in pipe A.

So, if the flow rate in pipe A is Q, then the flow rate in pipe B is 4Q.

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Answer:

[tex]\rho = 12580.7 kg/m^3[/tex]

Explanation:

As we know that the satellite revolves around the planet then the centripetal force for the satellite is due to gravitational attraction force of the planet

So here we will have

[tex]F = \frac{GMm}{(r + h)^2}[/tex]

here we have

[tex]F =\frac {mv^2}{(r+ h)}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{mv^2}{r + h} = \frac{GMm}{(r + h)^2}[/tex]

here we have

[tex]v = \sqrt{\frac{GM}{(r + h)}}[/tex]

now we can find time period as

[tex]T = \frac{2\pi (r + h)}{v}[/tex]

[tex]T = \frac{2\pi (2.05 \times 10^6 + 310 \times 10^3)}{\sqrt{\frac{GM}{(r + h)}}}[/tex]

[tex]1.15 \times 3600 = \frac{2\pi (2.05 \times 10^6 + 310 \times 10^3)}{\sqrt{\frac{(6.67 \times 10^{-11})(M)}{(2.05 \times 10^6 + 310 \times 10^3)}}}[/tex]

[tex]M = 4.54 \times 10^{23} kg[/tex]

Now the density is given as

[tex]\rho = \frac{M}{\frac{4}{3}\pi r^3}[/tex]

[tex]\rho = \frac{4.54 \times 10^{23}}{\frac{4}[3}\pi(2.05 \times 10^6)^3}[/tex]

[tex]\rho = 12580.7 kg/m^3[/tex]

Explanation:

In order to solve this problem, the Stefan-Boltzmann law will be useful. This law establishes that a black body (an ideal body that absorbs or emits all the radiation that incides on it) "emits thermal radiation with a total hemispheric emissive power proportional to the fourth power of its temperature":  

[tex]P=\sigma A T^{4}[/tex] (1)  

Where:  

[tex]P[/tex] is the energy radiated by a blackbody radiator per second, per unit area (in Watts).

[tex]\sigma=5.6703(10)^{-18}\frac{W}{m^{2} K^{4}}[/tex] is the Stefan-Boltzmann's constant.  

[tex]A[/tex] is the Surface of the body  

[tex]T[/tex] is the effective temperature of the body (its surface absolute temperature) in Kelvin.

However, there is no ideal black body (although the radiation of stars like our Sun is quite close).   Therefore, we will use the Stefan-Boltzmann law for real radiator bodies:  

[tex]P=\sigma A \epsilon T^{4}[/tex] (2)  

Where [tex]\epsilon[/tex] is the star's emissivity  

Knowing this, let's start with the answer:

We have two stars where the emissivity [tex]\epsilon[/tex]  of both is the same:

Star A with a radius [tex]r_{A}=200000km[/tex] and a surface temperature  [tex]T_{A}=6000K[/tex].

Star B with a radius [tex]r_{B}=400000km[/tex] and a surface temperature  [tex]T_{B}=3000K[/tex].

And we are asked to find the ratio of the rate of energy radiated by both stars:

[tex]\frac{P_{A}}{P_{B}}[/tex]   (3)

Where [tex]P_{A}[/tex]  is the  rate of energy radiated by Star A and [tex]P_{B}[/tex]  is the  rate of energy radiated by Star B.

On the other hand, with the radius of each star we can calculate their surface area, using the formula for tha area of a sphere (assuming both stars have spherical shape):

[tex]A_{A}=4\pi r_{A}^{2}[/tex]   (4)

[tex]A_{B}=4\pi r_{B}^{2}[/tex]   (5)

Writting the Stefan-Boltzmann law for each star, taking into consideration their areas:

[tex]P_{A}=\sigma (4\pi r_{A}^{2}) \epsilon {T_{A}}^{4}[/tex] (6)  

[tex]P_{B}=\sigma (4\pi r_{B}^{2}) \epsilon {T_{b}}^{4}[/tex] (7)  

Substituting (6) and (7) in (3):

[tex]\frac{\sigma (4\pi r_{A}^{2}) \epsilon {T_{A}}^{4}}{\sigma (4\pi r_{B}^{2}) \epsilon {T_{B}}^{4}}[/tex]   (8)

[tex]\frac{P_{A}}{P_{B}}=\frac{{r_{A}}^{2} {T_{A}}^{4}}{{r_{B}}^{2} {T_{B}}^{4}}[/tex]   (9)

[tex]\frac{P_{A}}{P_{B}}=\frac{{(200000km)}^{2} {(6000K)}^{4}}{{(400000km)}^{2} {(3000K)}^{4}}[/tex]   (10)

Finally:

[tex]\frac{P_{A}}{P_{B}}=4[/tex]  

The owner's velocity, with the same momentum as the combined momentum of the dog and cat, is 1.28 m/s directed 9.46 degrees east of the north.

To solve this problem, we need to calculate the dog's momentum, the cat's momentum, and then use these two results to find the owner's velocity and direction.

First, let's calculate the momentum for each pet. Momentum (p) is defined as mass (m) times velocity (v). For the dog, p = mv = 26.2 kg * 3.21 m/s = 84.042 kg*m/s northward. For the cat, p = mv = 5.30 kg * 2.64 m/s = 13.992 kg*m/s eastward.

To find the combined momentum vector of the two animals, we will use Pythagorean theorem because the vectors are perpendicular to each other. So, resultant momentum = sqrt[(84.042^2) + (13.992^2)] = 85.87 kg*m/s.

The owner's momentum equals the total momentum of the dog and cat, so that's 85.87 kg*m/s. The magnitude of the owner's velocity (v) is therefore the momentum divided by his mass: v = p / m = 85.87 kg*m/s / 67.2 kg = 1.28 m/s. The direction of the owner's velocity can be found using trigonometry. The angle is arctan (cat's momentum / dog's momentum) = arctan (13.992 / 84.042) = 9.46° east from north.

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The magnitude of the owner's velocity is approximately [tex]\( 1.267 \, \text{m/s} \)[/tex], and the direction is [tex]\( 45^\circ \)[/tex] northeast.

To find the direction and magnitude of the owner's velocity, we need to calculate the total momentum of the dog and cat and then equate that to the owner's momentum.

 First, we calculate the momentum of the dog and cat separately using the formula p = mv , where p  is the momentum,  m  is the mass, a v is the velocity.

For the dog:

[tex]\[ p_{\text{dog}} = m_{\text{dog}} \times v_{\text{dog}} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ p_{\text{dog}} = 26.2 \, \text{kg} \times 3.21 \, \text{m/s} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ p_{\text{dog}} = 84.002 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \][/tex]

For the cat:

[tex]\[ p_{\text{cat}} = m_{\text{cat}} \times v_{\text{cat}} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ p_{\text{cat}} = 5.30 \, \text{kg} \times 2.64 \, \text{m/s} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ p_{\text{cat}} = 14.032 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \][/tex]

The total momentum of the dog and cat is the vector sum of their individual momenta. Since they are moving in perpendicular directions (northward and eastward), we can use the Pythagorean theorem to find the magnitude of the total momentum:

[tex]\[ p_{\text{total}} = \sqrt{p_{\text{dog}}^2 + p_{\text{cat}}^2} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ p_{\text{total}} = \sqrt{(84.002)^2 + (14.032)^2} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ p_{\text{total}} = \sqrt{7056.0624 + 196.82784} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ p_{\text{total}} = \sqrt{7252.89} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ p_{\text{total}} \ =85.136 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \][/tex]

The direction of the total momentum vector is northeast, which is [tex]45^\circ \)[/tex] from the northward direction (the direction of the dog's velocity).

Now, we equate the owner's momentum to the total momentum of the pets:

[tex]\[ p_{\text{owner}} = p_{\text{total}} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ m_{\text{owner}} \times v_{\text{owner}} = p_{\text{total}} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ 67.2 \, \text{kg} \times v_{\text{owner}} = 85.136 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ v_{\text{owner}} = \frac{85.136 \, \text{kg} \cdot \text{m/s}}{67.2 \, \text{kg}} \][/tex]

[tex]\[ v_{\text{owner}} \ = 1.267 \, \text{m/s} \][/tex]

Answer:

846 km

Explanation:

Speed = 47 m/s

time = 5 hours = 5 x 60 x 60 seconds

Distance = speed x time

Distance = 47 x 5 x 60 x 60

Distance = 846000 m

Distance = 846 km

Answer:

Mass of the stick = 139.04 gram

Explanation:

Let the mass of the meter stick be = M grams

given:

Attached mass, m = 50.0 gram

position of the fulcrum = 39.2 cm

The meter stick is balanced at 49.7 cm, therefore the center of mass of the stick will be at 49.7 cm

Now for the system to be balanced the moment due to all the masses about the fulcrum must be equal.

thus,

moment = Force × perpendicular distance from the point of movement

Force = mass × acceleration due to gravity(g)

therefore,

(refer figure for the distances)

50g × (39.2-10) = Mg × (49.7 - 39.2)

⇒[tex]M=\frac{50\times 29.2}{10.5}[/tex]

⇒M = 139.04 gram

Answer:

The frequency of such a radio wave is 1 MHz.

(d) is correct option

Explanation:

Given that,

Wave length = 300 m

We know that,

Speed of light [tex]c= 3\times10^{8}\ m/s[/tex]

We calculate the frequency

Using formula of frequency

[tex]c = f\times\lambda[/tex]

[tex]f = \dfrac{c}{\lambda}[/tex]

Put the value into the formula

[tex]f=\dfrac{3\times10^{8}}{300}[/tex]

[tex]f =1\times10^{6}\ Hz[/tex]

[tex]f =1\ MHz[/tex]

Hence, The frequency of such a radio wave is 1 MHz.

The frequency of an AM radio wave with a wavelength of 300 meters is 1.00 MHz, using the formula c = λf, and knowing that the speed of light c is 3×10^8 m/s, the calculation results in a frequency of 1.00 MHz, which is 1×10^6 Hz.

To calculate the frequency of an AM radio wave given the wavelength, we can use the speed of light formula c = λf where c is the speed of light (approximately 3×108 meters per second), λ (lambda) is the wavelength, and f is the frequency. Since the typical wavelength for an AM radio wave is given as 300 meters, we plug this value into the equation to find the frequency:

f = c / λ

f = (3×108 m/s) / (300 m)

f = 1×106 Hz or 1.00 MHz

The frequency of an AM radio wave that has a wavelength of 300 meters is therefore 1.00 MHz, which corresponds to option (d).

Answer:

The magnitude of the centripetal acceleration of the car is 0.22 m/s².

Explanation:

t= 380 sec

r= 3.27km= 3270m

d=π*r=π*3270m

d= 10273m

d=Vt*t

Vt= d/t = 10273m/380s

Vt= 27.03 m/s

ac= Vt²/r

ac= (27.03 m/s)²/3270m

ac=0.22 m/s²

Final answer:

The coefficient of static friction is determined by setting up equations based on the static equilibrium conditions of the ladder leaning against a wall, resulting in a coefficient of approximately 0.869 when using the ladder's angle of 41° with the horizontal.

Explanation:

To determine the coefficient of static friction between the ladder and the floor, we can analyze the forces acting on the ladder at the point of slipping. The forces involved in this problem are the weight of the ladder (W), the normal force exerted by the floor (N), the static frictional force (f), and the force exerted by the wall, which is horizontal due to the frictionless contact (H).

The ladder makes a 41.0° angle with the horizontal floor (θ), so we can use trigonometry and Newton's laws to set up equations. First, the sum of vertical forces must be zero, as the ladder is not moving vertically:

N = W * cos(θ)

Next, the sum of horizontal forces must be zero, as the ladder is not moving horizontally:

f = H

Now, since the wall is frictionless, the horizontal force the wall exerts on the ladder is equal to the horizontal component of the ladder's weight:

H = W * sin(θ)

At the point of slipping, the static frictional force (f) is at its maximum value and is given by:

f = μ * N

Using the fact that f = H at the point of slipping, we can solve for the coefficient of static friction (μ) using the following equation:

μ = W * sin(θ) / (W * cos(θ))

μ = tan(θ)

Substitute the value of θ = 41.0° into the equation:

μ = tan(41.0°) ≈ 0.869

Therefore, the coefficient of static friction is approximately 0.869.

Answer:

The Reynolds number is 5600.

Explanation:

Given that,

Density = 1400 kg/m³

Viscosity = 0.5 Pa's

Length = 2 m

Speed = 1 m/s

We need to calculate the Reynolds number

Using formula of Reynolds number

[tex]R_{e}=\dfrac{\rho V\times L}{\mu}[/tex]

Where, [tex]\rho[/tex] = density of fluid

v = speed of syrup

l = length of a person

[tex]\mu[/tex]=Viscosity

Put the all value into the formula

[tex]R_{e}=\dfrac{1400\times1\times2}{0.5}[/tex]

[tex]R_{e}=5600[/tex]

Hence, The Reynolds number is 5600.

Answer:

880 kg / m^3

Explanation:

height of column of oil = 85 cm = 0.85 m

height of column of mercury = 5.5 cm = 0.055 m

Density of mercury = 13600 kg/m^2

Let teh density of oil is d.

A the height of mercury column is balanced by the height of oil column

So, the pressure due to the mercury column = pressure by teh oil column

height of mercury column x density of mercury x g = height of oil column  

                                                                                       x density of oil x g

0.055 x 13600 x g = 0.85 x d x g

748 = 0.85 d

d = 880 kg / m^3

Answer:

a) 0.0483 mol

b) 232 °C

Explanation:

Ideal gas law:

PV = nRT

where P is absolute pressure,

V is volume,

n is number of moles,

R is universal gas constant,

and T is absolute temperature.

a) Given:

P = 1.20×10⁵ Pa

V = 1.00 L = 1.00×10⁻³ m³

T = 25.8 °C = 298.95 K

PV = nRT

(1.20×10⁵ Pa) (1.00×10⁻³ m³) = n (8.314 m³ Pa / mol / K) (298.95 K)

n = 0.0483 mol

b) Given:

P = 1.013×10⁵ Pa

V = 2.00 L = 2.00×10⁻³ m³

n = 0.0483 mol

PV = nRT

(1.013×10⁵ Pa) (2.00×10⁻³ m³) = (0.0483 mol) (8.314 m³ Pa / mol / K) T

T = 505.73 K

T = 232 °C

Answer:

366 K

Explanation:

T₀ = Constant Temperature of deep lake = 293.0 K

T = Temperature of hot reservoir  connected to carnot engine = ?

η = Efficiency of Carnot engine during the operation

Efficiency of Carnot engine is given as

[tex]\eta = 1-\frac{T_{o}}{T}[/tex]

Inserting the values

[tex]0.200 = 1-\frac{293.0}{T}[/tex]

T = 366 K

Answer:

4.4 cm

Explanation:

B = 1.98 mT = 1.98 x 10^-3 T, v = 1.53 x 10^7 m/s, m = 9.1 x 10^-31 kg

q = 1.6 x 10^-19 C

(a) The force due to the magnetic field is balanced by the centrpetal force

mv^2 / r = q v B

r = m v / q B

r = (9,1 x 10^-31 x 1.53 x 10^7) / (1.98 x 10^-3 x 1.6 x 10^-19)

r = 0.044 m = 4.4 cm