Answer:
The minimum temperature of hot reservoir is 586K or 313°C
Explanation:
The Carnot cycle is defined as ideal reversible process thermodynamic process which has four successive step. During the expansion and compression of the substance it can done upto desired point and then reversed up.
Here the energy is used from the hot reservoir to do work and deposited into the cold reservoir. As is it reversible the efficiency of the carnot cycle is the theoretical maximum of the heat engine.
The efficiency of carnot cycle is
η = 1 - [tex]\frac{Tc}{Th}[/tex] eq 1
Where Tc is the temperature of cold reservoir = 20° = 20°+273K = 293K
Th is the temperature of hot reservoir.
η is the efficency 50% = 0.5
The minimum temperature of the reservoir is related to the maximum efficiency,
Substituting values in eqn 1
0.05 = 1-[tex]\frac{293}{Th}[/tex]
Th = [tex]\frac{293}{1 - 0.5}[/tex] =586 K
The minimum temperature of hot reservoir is 586K.
ie 586K-273 = 313°C
Final answer:
The minimum hot-reservoir temperature required for a heat engine to have 50% efficiency with a cold reservoir at 20°C is 313.15°C.
Explanation:
To determine the minimum hot-reservoir temperature for a heat engine with 50% efficiency where the cold reservoir is at 20°C, we can use the efficiency formula for a Carnot engine: efficiency (e) = 1 - (Tc/Th), where Tc is the cold reservoir temperature and Th is the hot reservoir temperature, both in kelvins. Rearranging the formula to solve for Th gives: Th = Tc / (1 - e).
First, convert the cold reservoir temperature from Celsius to Kelvin: Tc = 20°C + 273.15 = 293.15 K. Now, plug in the efficiency value: Th = 293.15 K / (1 - 0.50) = 293.15 K / 0.50 = 586.3 K. Convert this back to Celsius to get the minimum hot-reservoir temperature required: Th - 273.15 = 586.3 K - 273.15 = 313.15°C.
Therefore, the minimum hot-reservoir temperature required for the proposed heat engine to reach 50% efficiency is 313.15°C.
(a) Neil A. Armstrong was the first person to walk on the moon. The distance between the earth and the moon is . Find the time it took for his voice to reach the earth via radio waves. (b) Someday a person will walk on Mars, which is from the earth at the point of closest approach. Determine the minimum time that will be required for a message from Mars to reach the earth via radio waves.
Answer:
a) It took 1.28 seconds to Neil Armstrong's voice to reach the Earth via radio waves.
b) The minimum time that will be required for a message from Mars to reach the Earth via radio waves is 192 seconds.
Explanation:
The electromagnetic spectrum is the distribution of radiation due to the different frequencies at which it radiates and its different intensitie. That radiation is formed by electromagnetic waves, which are transverse waves formed by an electric field and a magnetic field perpendicular to it.
The distribution of the radiation in the electromagnetic spectrum can also be given in wavelengths, but it is more frequent to work with it at frequencies:
Gamma rays X-rays Ultraviolet rays Visible region InfraredMicrowave Radio waves.Any radiation that belongs to electromagnetic spectrum has a speed in vacuum of [tex]3x10^{8}m/s[/tex].
a) Find the time it took for his voice to reach the Earth via radio waves.
To know the time that took for Neil Armstrong's voice to reach the Earth via radio waves, the following equation can be used:
[tex]c = \frac{d}{t}[/tex] (1)
Where v is the speed of light, d is the distance and t is the time.
Notice that t can be isolated from equation 1.
[tex]t = \frac{d}{c}[/tex] (2)
The distance from the Earth to the Moon is [tex]3.85x10^{8} m[/tex], therefore.
[tex]t = \frac{3.85x10^{8} m}{3x10^{8}m/s}[/tex]
[tex]t = 1.28s[/tex]
Hence, it took 1.28 seconds to Neil Armstrong's voice to reach the Earth via radio waves.
b) Determine the minimum time that will be required for a message from Mars to reach the Earth via radio waves.
The distance from the Earth to the Mars at its closest approach is [tex]5.76x10^{10}m[/tex], therefore.
[tex]t = \frac{5.76x10^{10}m}{3x10^{8}m/s}[/tex]
[tex]t = 192s[/tex]
Hence, the minimum time that will be required for a message from Mars to reach the Earth via radio waves is 192 seconds.
The diagram below shows eight different positions of the moon around Earth.
Which two positions show the location of the moon in its crescent phases as seen from Earth?
Group of answer choices
2 and 4
2 and 8
4 and 6
6 and 8
Answer:
6 and 8
Explanation:
The different positions of the moon, as seen from Earth, reflect how much light is being reflected off the moon from the sun.
Position 1 indicates the 3rd Quarter.
Position 2 indicates the Waning Gibbous.
Position 3 indicates the Full Moon.
Position 4 indicates the Waxing Gibbous.
Position 5 indicates the 1st Quarter.
Position 6 indicates the Waxing Crescent.
Position 7 indicates the New Moon.
Position 8 indicates the Waning Crescent.
You would read the diagram counterclockwise, with positions 7 to 3 as the moon increases light and positions 3 to 7 as the moon decreases light.
Therefore, we see that our 2 choices where we have a crescent is positions 6 and 8.
____is the only item that exists on earth at standard pressures as a solid, liquid, and gas.
Answer:
Plasma
Explanation:
Answer:
I think the answer is water.
Explanation:
It becomes a solid when frozen, when it's at it's true form it's a liquid, and when it evaporates it becomes water vapor (which is basically gas).
describe the relationship that exists between amplitude of a wave and the amount of energy that the wave carries
The amount of energy a wave is carrying is related to the wave's amplitude. The more displacement the first coil is given, the greater the amplitude it will have.
Explanation:
The greater the disturbance is the correlation that endures between the amplitude of a disruption in the water and amount of wave. The amount of energy a wave is carrying is related to the wave's amplitude. If the wave disturbance increases, the wave's amplitude increases, if the wave's disturbance decreases, the wave's amplitude diminishes. Therefore, at-last the amplitude of every transverse pulse is similar to the energy that is transmitted by that pulse through the medium.A penny rides on top of a piston as it undergoes vertical simple harmonic motion with an amplitude of 4.0 cm. If the frequency is low, the penny rides up and down without difficulty. If the frequency is steadily increased, there comes a point at which the penny leaves the surface.
1) At what point in the cycle does the penny first lose contact with the piston?
A. midpoint moving up
B. midpoint losing down
C. highest point
D. lowest point
Answer: C
Explanation:
Highest Point
An object becomes charged when the atoms in the object gain or lose. True or False
Answer:
True.
Explanation:
When an object's atoms gain or lose electrons, it becomes an ion, becoming charged.
Flasher units are being discussed. Technician A says that only a DOT-approved flasher unit should be used for turn signals. Technician B says that a parallel (variable-load) flasher will function for turn signal usage, although it will not warn the driver if a bulb burns out. Who is right?
a. Technician A onlyb. Technician B onlyc. Both Technicians A and Bd. Neither Technician A nor B
Answer: C
Both Technicians A and B
Explanation:
Only a DOT-approved flasher unit should be used for turn signals. And a parallel (variable-load) flasher will function for turn signal usage, although it will not warn the driver if a bulb burns out.
the two forces acting on a falling object are gravity and?....1.force, 2. friction, 3. air resistance, and 4. net force?
The two forces acting on a falling object are gravity and air resistance (option 3). Gravity causes the object to accelerate toward Earth, while air resistance acts in the opposite direction, slowing the object down.
The two forces acting on a falling object are gravity and air resistance (option 3). When an object is dropped, it accelerates toward the center of the Earth due to the force of gravity. In a vacuum, where there is no air, the only force acting on a falling object is its weight, which is the force due to gravity acting on an object of mass m. However, in the real world, objects are not in perfect free-fall because they experience air resistance, which opposes the motion of the object as it falls through the air.
A holiday ornament in the shape of a hollow sphere with mass 0.015 kg and radius 0.055 m is hung from a tree limb by a small loop of wire attached to the surface of the sphere. If the ornament is displaced a small distance and released, it swings back and forth as a physical pendulum.
Calculate its period. (You can ignore friction at the pivot. The moment of inertia of the sphere about the pivot at the tree limb is 5MR²/3.)
Take the free-fall acceleration to be 9.80 m/s². Express your answer using two significant figures.
Answer: 0.61 s
Explanation:
Given
Mass of object, m = 0.015 kg
Radius of object, r = 0.055 m
Acceleration of object, g = 9.8 m/s²
In a pendulum,
T = 2π * √[I /(mgd)]
The moment of Inertia, I of a hollow sphere is given by
I(sphere) = 2/3MR² + MR²
I(sphere) = 5/3MR²
Also, d = R
Substituting these into the first equation, we have
T = 2π * √[(5/3MR²) / (mgr)]
T = 2π * √[(5/3r) / (g)]
T = 2 * 3.142 * √(5/3 * 0.055) / (9.8)]
T = 6.284 * √(0.092/9.8)
T = 6.284 * √0.00939
T = 6.284 * 0.097
T = 0.6095 s
To 2 significant figures,
The period is 0.61 s
If a 2V battery is connected to the wire in one direction, the electrode that was the cathode becomes the anode and vice verse, but when the battery is connected the other way the cathode and anode do not switch. Explain why this is so, and what the voltages of the two situations are.
Answer:
1. This is so because of the charging and discharging phenomenon of the battery.
2. Voltage when fully charged: approximately 2.15 volts
Voltage when in use: drops below 2.15v
Explanation:
The anode is the electrode where electricity flows into. In contrast, the cathode is the electrode where the electricity flows out of. When a battery is connected to a load the electricity flows from the positive terminal to the negative terminal. In this case, the positive terminal is the cathode, and the negative terminal is the anode. Here the cathode and anode do not switch,
But when the battery is being charged, the electricity flows into the positive terminal instead of out of it. In this case, the roles are reversed, the electrode that was the cathode becomes the anode, and the anode becomes that cathode.
A fully charged 2volt battery has a voltage of approximately 2.15 volts. A fully discharged 2 volt battery has a voltage of 1.9 volts
Una muestra de 500g de agua se calienta desde 10°C hasta 80°C. Calcula la cantidad de calor absorbido por líquido si su calor específico es 4186J/kg ×K
Answer:
Q = 142.324kJ
Explanation:
Data:
M = 500g = 0.5kg
T1 = 10°C = (10 + 273.15)K = 285.15K
T2 = 80°C = (80 + 273.15)K = 353.15K
Q = ?
C = 4186J/kg.K
Q = mc(T2 - T1)
Q = 0.5 * 4186 * (353.15 - 285.15)
Q = 0.5 * 4186 * 68
Q = 142324J
Q = 142.324kJ.
The heat absorbed by a 500g sample of water when heated from 10°C to 80°C is calculated using the heat transfer formula q=mcΔT. Here m is mass ie, 0.5kg, c is specific heat capacity i.e., 4186 J/kg*°C, and ΔT is change in temperature i.e., 70°C. After substituting these values in the formula, we find that the heat absorbed, q, is approximately 146300 J.
Explanation:The question refers to the equation q = mcΔT for calculating heat transfer, where 'q' represents the heat absorbed, 'm' denotes mass, 'c' represents specific heat capacity, and 'ΔT' denotes the change in temperature. In this case, by inserting the values into equation, we have q = (0.5 kg) * (4186 J/kg*°C) * (80°C - 10°C). After resolving this, we find q equals approximately to 146300 J, which is the amount of heat absorbed by the water.
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variable.
Use the drop-down menus to complete each sentence.
To run the physics cart, the fan speed of the cart is manipulated. This is the
The cart accelerates due to the speed of the fan. Acceleration is therefore thinder
A"constant" is a parameter that stays the same regardless of the variables.
dependent
constant
constant is the
of the cart that is held
) Intro
Done
Answer:
Independent
Dependent
Mass
Explanation:
When the person ran that blue light over the beads they_________,
The blue light bar that the person was using must therefore be emitting_____________.
A. Changed Colors; UV light
B. Exploded; Heat
C. Stayed White; Energy
Answer:
A Changed colors: UV light
Explanation:
Was a uv light, reacted just like the sun did.
Answer:
A changed colors
Explanation:
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**URGENT, I WILL PAY 30 POINTS, PLEASE HELP**
Which wave has the shortest wavelength, assuming the axis for each wave is identical?
All three windows are the same size.
A has 10 complete waves visible through the window. B has 3, and C has 4.
So A must have the smallest wavelengths.
The answer is A.
The wavelength is the length to each curve. Each answer choice has the same length of a box so we can count the amount of curves in each option.
Option A has 10 visible curves.
Option B has 3 visible curves.
Option C has 4 visible curves.
Since option A has the most curves, that means that it has the shortest wavelengths.
Best of Luck!
A garden hose attached with a nozzle is used to fill a 10‐ gal bucket. The inner diameter of the hose is 2 cm, and it reduces to 0.8 cm at the nozzle exit. If it takes 50 s to fill the bucket with water, determine (a) the volume and mass flow rates of water through the hose, and (b) the average velocity of water at the nozzle exit.
Answer:
Explanation:
Given
Volume of bucket [tex]V=10\ gallon[/tex]
Time taken to fill the bucket [tex]t=50\ s[/tex]
so volume flow rate is [tex]\dot{V}=\frac{10}{50}=0.2\ gal/s[/tex]
1 gal is equivalent to [tex]0.133\ ft^3[/tex]
[tex]\dot{V}=0.0267\ ft^3/s[/tex]
mass flow rate [tex]\dot{m}=\rho \times \dot{V}[/tex]
[tex]\dot{m}=62.4\times 0.0267[/tex]
[tex]\dot{m}=1.668\ lbs[/tex]
(b)Average velocity through nozzle exit
[tex]\dot{V}=Av_{avg}[/tex]
[tex]v_{avg}=\dfrac{0.0267}{\frac{\pi}{4}\times (0.0262)^2}[/tex]
[tex]v_{avg}=49.51\ ft/s[/tex]
The volume flow rate is 757.082 cm^3/sec and the mass flow rate is 757.082 g/sec. The average velocity of the water at the nozzle exit is approximately 476.677 cm/sec.
Explanation:To solve this problem, we first need to figure out the volume and mass flow rates of the water. Given that 1 gallon = 3.78541 liters, and 1 liter = 1,000 cm3, a 10-gallon bucket contains 10 * 3.78541 * 1000 = 37,854.1 cm3. If it takes 50 seconds to fill this bucket, we can calculate the volume flow rate as volume/time = 37,854.1 cm3/50 s = 757.082 cm3/s.
The mass flow rate can be determined by multiplying this volume flow rate by the density of water (1 g/cm3), giving a result of 757.082 g/s.
To find the average velocity of the water at the nozzle exit, we use the equation of continuity which states that the volume flow rate must be constant at all points in the pipe. Therefore, the velocity at the nozzle can be found by dividing the flow rate by the cross-sectional area of the nozzle (pi * (d/2)2). This gives an average velocity of about 476.677 cm/s.
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quzilet The Magnet Recognition Program for health care organizations is based on fourteen forces of magnetism related to five magnet model components. Which force of magnetism is assessed to review the structural empowerment of the organization?
Answer:
4. Personnel policies and programs
Explanation:
The Health care organizations that apply for Magnet status must demonstrate new ways of doing things and innovations in professional practice.
Personnel policies and programs is one of the forces of magnetism that impacts the structural empowerment of the organization.
The Personnel policies of an organization should provide an innovative environment in which the staff are developed and empowered. Empirical quality outcomes are reviewed by assessing the quality of care. New knowledge, innovations, and improvements are reviewed by assessing the quality improvement of the health care organization. Interdisciplinary relationships are assessed to review exemplary professional practice.
The Magnet Recognition Program evaluates 'Structural Empowerment' to review the structural empowerment of a healthcare organization. It accounts for professional engagement, community involvement, personnel policies and programs, professional development, and diversity.
Explanation:The Magnet Recognition Program, a healthcare organization accreditation program initiated by the American Nurses Credentialing Center (ANCC), assesses the performance of hospitals based on 14 forces of magnetism that form five model components. The 14th force, known as Structural Empowerment, is evaluated to review the ability of the organization to provide an infrastructure that supports professional development and interprofessional collaboration. It includes professional engagement, community involvement, personnel policies and programs, professional development, and diversity.
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Diffuse reflection occurs when the size of surface irregularities is
Diffuse reflection occurs when the irregularities of a surface are comparable to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light, causing light to scatter in multiple directions.
Diffuse reflection occurs when light reflects off a surface that has irregularities comparable to or larger than the wavelength of the incident light. The surface's unevenness causes the incoming light rays to reflect in multiple directions, giving a non-glossy or matte appearance to the surface. This should be contrasted with specular reflection, where a smooth surface reflects light in a singular, coherent direction, maintaining the angle of incidence equal to the angle of reflection.
A familiar example of diffuse reflection is the way sunlight illuminates a room; the light is scattered by the walls and objects, which have microscopically rough surfaces. In contrast, a mirror provides a clear image due to specular reflection because its surface irregularities are much smaller than the wavelength of visible light. This principle of diffuse versus specular reflection is fundamental in understanding how different materials and surfaces affect the quality of reflected light.
A loudspeaker diaphragm is producing a sound for 4.6 s by moving back and forth in simple harmonic motion. The angular frequency of the motion is 2.57 x 104 rad/s. How many times does the diaphragm move back and forth
Number of times the diaphragm move back and forth is 5.59×10^4
Explanation:
Given data,
ω=4.6 s
we have the formula
f=ω/2π
The number of times the diaphragm moves back and forth in 4.6 s is
Number of times= ft
Number of times= ft
=(ω/2π) t
=(7.54×10^4 rad/sec)(4.6 s)/2π
Number of time=5.59×10^4
Number of times the diaphragm move back and forth is 5.59×10^4
A swinging pendulum has a total energy of [tex]E_i[/tex]. The amplitude of the pendulum's oscillations is then increased by a factor of 4. By what factor does the total energy stored in the moving pendulum change? Ignore damping.
The total energy of the pendulum is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude. Hence, if the amplitude is increased by a factor of 4, the total energy in the system will increase by a factor of 16.
Explanation:The subject of your question is related to the energy of a pendulum in simple harmonic motion. The total energy stored in an oscillating pendulum depends on the square of its amplitude. The total energy E of an oscillator is the sum of its kinetic energy K = mu² / 2 and the elastic potential energy of the force U(x)= k_x²/2 (formula for potential energy in a harmonic oscillator). These two forms of energy: kinetic energy and potential energy oscillate back and forth but their sum remains constant.
Since the total energy ETotal = (1/2)kA² is proportional to the square of the amplitude, if the amplitude of the pendulum's oscillations is increased by a factor of 4, this means you're multiplying the square of the quantity by 4. As a result, the energy in the pendulum increases by a factor of 4² which is 16.
So, as the amplitude of the pendulum increases by a factor of 4, the total energy increases by a factor of 16.
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When the amplitude of a swinging pendulum is increased by a factor of 4, the total energy stored in the moving pendulum increases by a factor of 16.
Explanation:The total energy of a swinging pendulum is given by the sum of its potential energy and kinetic energy, which is proportional to the square of the amplitude.
In this case, when the amplitude is increased by a factor of 4, the total energy increases by a factor of 16.
This is because the total energy is directly proportional to the square of the amplitude, so increasing the amplitude by a factor of 4 results in an increase of the total energy by the square of that factor.
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How much would a 77.7 kg person weigh (a) on Earth's Moon, where the acceleration of gravity is 1.63 m/s2, and (b) on Mars, where the acceleration of gravity is 3.77 m/s2?
Answer:
The answer to your question is below
Explanation:
Data
mass of the person = 77.7 kg
gravity on the moon = 1.63 m/s²
gravity on mars = 3.77 m/s²
Process
To find the weight of a person, use Newton's second law.
Formula
Force = mass x acceleration but Weight = mass x gravity
a)
Weight = 77.7 x 1.63
Weight = 126.65 N
b)
Weight = 77.7 x 3.77
Weight = 292.93 N
A radiographer stands six feet from the x-ray source when performing a portable chest exam and receives an exposure of 2 mGy. If the radiographer performs a repeat exam using the same technical factors standing at a distance of three feet from the source, how much exposure will be received?
Answer:
I₂ = 8 mG
Explanation:
The intensity of a beam is
I = P / A
Where P is the emitted power which is 3) 3
Let's use index 1 for the initial position of r₁ = 6 ft and 2 for the second position r₂ = 3 ft
I₁ A₁ = I₂ A₂
I₂ = I₁ A₁ / A₂
The area of the beam if we assume that it is distributed either in the form of a sphere is
A₁ = 4π r²
We substitute
I₂ = I₁ (r₁ / r₂)²
I₂ = 2 (6/3)²
I₂ = 2 4
I₂ = 8 mG
Answer:
The amount of exposure that will be received at 3 ft is 8 mGy
Explanation:
Here, we note that the amount of radiation exposure of the radiographer is given by the inverse square law. That is the amount of radiation exposure is directly proportional to the inverse square of the distance that is
[tex]\frac{Old \, \, Intensity}{New \, \, \, Intensity} = \frac{(New\, distance)^2}{(Old\, distance)^2} \therefore \frac{2}{New \, \, \, Intensity} = \frac{3^2}{6^2}[/tex]
Or New intensity = [tex]2\times \frac{36}{9}[/tex] = 8mGy
Therefore, the amount of exposure that will be received at 3 ft = 8 mGy.
When light goes from one material into another material having a higher index of refraction, it
Answer
When the light goes from one medium to another medium with higher refractive index the velocity of the ray decreases, wavelength of the ray also decreases.
But the frequency of the ray when it enters the medium of higher refractive index remain same.
So, we can conclude that speed of ray and wavelength decrease but frequency remain unchanged.
When light moves from a material to another material with a higher index of refraction, it changes its path due to refraction.
Explanation:When light goes from one material into another material having a higher index of refraction, it changes its path as a result of refraction. The angle between the ray and the normal (the line perpendicular to the surfaces of the two media) is less in the medium with the lower refractive index.
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What are the methods that are used for heat transfer
Answer:
Heat can travel from one place to another in three ways: Conduction, Convection and Radiation. Both conduction and convection require matter to transfer heat. If there is a temperature difference between two systems heat will always find a way to transfer from the higher to lower system.
Explanation:
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A light ray in air enters and passes through a block of glass. What can be stated with regard to its speed after it emerges from the block? Speed is less than when in glass. Speed is less than before it entered glass. Speed is same as that in glass. Speed is same as that before it entered glass.
Answer:
Speed is same as that before it entered glass.
Explanation:
Given:
A light ray enters and passes through the glass as shown in the diagram.
We have to analyze its speed.
Speed of light in air is [tex]3\times 10^8\ ms^-^1[/tex] and speed of light in glass is [tex]2.25\times 10^8\ ms^-^1[/tex]
Whenever a light ray enters a glass block or slab there is bending of light at the interface of the two media.
So speed of light will decrease in glass medium and again it passes to the air.
So
Speed of light in air will again increase or will be equivalent to the earlier speed when it was entering the glass block.
Finally
Speed is same as that before it entered glass as it in the same medium (air).
Speed of light is same as that before it entered glass. Option D is correct.
Refraction:
When a light ray move from one medium to another, it slows down, hence bend.
Here, light ray from air enters from the air to glass and emerges out of the glass block.
Speed of light in air is [tex]\bold {3x10^8\ m /s}[/tex]
Speed of light in glass is [tex]\bold {2.25 x10^8\ m /s}[/tex]
Since, the light ray was in the air is same before entering in to the glass.
Therefore, speed of light is same as that before it entered glass.
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How is the solubility of a gas in a liquid normally affected by temperature?
Answer:
Increase in temperature decrease the solubility of games in liquid
Explanation:
Solubility simply means the amount of solute that can be dissolved in a given amount of solute at a given temperature.Gases when heated gains extreme kinetic energy which gives rise to an exothermic reaction,the kinetic energy breaks the individual bonds holding gas molecules leading to their escape,so an increase in temperature decrease the solubility of gas in liquid
There is a Limited amount of energy available on earth. Why is it important that people conserve energy?
Answer:
If humans conserve energy then we will have energy for alonger amount of time.
Explanation:
Two technicians are discussing oil filters. Technician A says that the oil will remain perfectly clean if just the oil filter is changed regularly. Technician B says that oil filters can filter particles smaller that the human eye can see. Which technician is correct?
A)A only
B)B only
C)Both A and B
D)Neither A nor B
Answer:
C. Both technician A and technician B are correct
Explanation
Engine performs at its best with clean oil. That's why oil filters work to sift out particles (some so small that humans can't see ) to keep contaminants out of the oil. Dirty or clogged oil filters allow contaminants to sail straight to the engine where they can cause damage as well as affect fuel economy.
Over time If the oil filter is changed regularly it will filter perfectly clean oil,
Final answer:
Technician B is correct; oil filters can filter out small particles, while Technician A is incorrect; changing the oil filter alone doesn't keep the oil perfectly clean.
Explanation:
The question pertains to the role and effectiveness of oil filters in vehicle maintenance. Technician B is correct in saying that oil filters can filter particles smaller than the human eye can see. Modern oil filters are designed to remove very small particulates from engine oil, thus protecting the engine from wear and damage. However, Technician A is incorrect; changing the oil filter alone will not keep the oil perfectly clean over time. The oil itself can degrade and become contaminated with substances that an oil filter cannot remove, such as acids and water, which is why regular oil changes are also necessary. Therefore, the correct answer is B) Technician B only.
A 10.5- resistor, a 15.9-μF capacitor, and a 15.2-mH inductor are connected in series with a 203-V generator. (a) At what frequency is the current a maximum? (b) What is the maximum value of the rms current? Note: The ac current and voltage are rms values and power is an average value unless indicated otherwise.
(a) The resonant frequency where current is maximum is: f_res = 1 / (2π√(LC)) ≈ 323.74 Hz.
(b) The maximum rms current is: I_max = V / √(R^2 + (1 / (2πf_resC))^2 + (2πf_resL)^2) ≈ 4.51 A.
Here's a step-by-step solution for both parts of the problem:
(a) Finding the resonant frequency:
Identify the formula: The resonant frequency (f_res) of a series RLC circuit is given by:
f_res = 1 / (2π√(LC))
Plug in values: Substitute the given values of inductance (L = 15.2 mH = 0.0152 H) and capacitance (C = 15.9 μF = 15.9 × 10^-6 F) into the formula:
f_res = 1 / (2π√(0.0152 H × 15.9 × 10^-6 F))
Calculate: Use a calculator to evaluate the expression:
f_res ≈ 323.74 Hz
Therefore, the current is maximum at a frequency of approximately 323.74 Hz.
(b) Finding the maximum rms current:
Identify the formula: The rms current (I) in a series RLC circuit is given by:
I = V / √(R^2 + (X_L - X_C)^2)
where:
V is the generator voltage (203 V)
R is the resistance (10.5 Ω)
X_L is the inductive reactance (2πfL)
X_C is the capacitive reactance (1 / (2πfC))
Calculate reactances at resonant frequency:
X_L = 2πf_resL ≈ 30.15 Ω
X_C = 1 / (2πf_resC) ≈ 30.15 Ω (at resonance, X_L and X_C are equal)
Plug in values: Substitute the values into the formula:
I = 203 V / √(10.5 Ω^2 + (30.15 Ω - 30.15 Ω)^2)
Simplify and calculate:
I ≈ 203 V / 10.5 Ω ≈ 4.51 A
Therefore, the maximum rms current in the circuit is approximately 4.51 A.
The frequency at which the current is maximum in the given RLC circuit is approximately 326 Hz, and the maximum value of the RMS current is about 19.3 A.
To solve the question, we need to work with the concepts of an RLC circuit driven by an AC source.
Let's break down the steps:
The frequency at which the current is a maximum in an RLC circuit is the resonant frequency. This can be calculated using the formula:
[tex]F(resonant) = \( \frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{LC}} \)[/tex] \)Given:
Inductance, L = 15.2 mH = 15.2 × 10⁻³ HCapacitance, C = 15.9 μF = 15.9 × 10⁻⁶ FPlugging in these values:
[tex]F(resonant) = \( \frac{1}{2 \pi \sqrt{(15.2 \times 10^{-3})(15.9 \times 10^{-6})}} \)[/tex])}} \)[tex]F(resonant) = 326 Hz[/tex]At resonance, the impedance Z is equal to the resistance R. The maximum RMS current can be calculated using Ohm's Law:
[tex]I(max) = \( \frac{V(rms)}{R} \)[/tex]
Given:
Resistance, R = 10.5 ΩVoltage, V(rms) = 203 VPlugging in these values:
[tex]I(max) = \( \frac{203}{10.5} \)\\I(max) = 19.3 A[/tex]Therefore, the frequency at which the current is maximum is approximately 326 Hz, and the maximum value of the RMS current is approximately 19.3 A.
What type of energy is the sum of an object’s potential and kinetic energy?
Answer: its mechanical energy
Explanation:
Answer:
Mechanical energy edg2021
Explanation:
The sum of an objects potential and kinetic energy is mechanical energy.
Which kind of weather usually forms over the northwest united states in the summer because of maritime polar air masses?
Answer:
Cloudy and damp weather
Explanation:
Maritime Polar can form anytime of the year and because they are not as cold as continental polar which brings hot and humid air
The cool and moist Maritime Polar air masses brings cloudy and damp weather to the USA.
Maritime polar air masses form over the northern Atlantic and the northern Pacific oceans. They most often influence the Pacific Northwest and the Northeast.
Answer:
Fog
Explanation: