A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should the nurse report to the provider?
a. Platelets 300,000/mm3
b. Hematocrit 45%
c. PT 11 seconds
d. aPTT 50 seconds

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

The best answer to the question: A nurse is monitoring the laboratory values of a client who is receiving heparin. Which of the following values should a nurse report to the provider? would be: D: aPTT of 50 seconds.

Explanation:

Unlike Warfarin and the low-molecular weight heparin, medically speaking, the one diagnostic test that is still being used as a measure of heparin´s therapeutic achievements in a patient with a coagulopathy, is the activated partial thromboplastin time aPTT. Although the measurement in seconds, will depend on the laboratory that is doing the measuring, and despite scientific evidence that points to the fact that aPTT is not the most accurate of laboratory measurements for a patient with heparin, it is still being used today and still is the leading laboratory test for these types of patients.

Answer 2

The laboratory value to report for a patient receiving heparin is an aPTT of 50 seconds, as it indicates the effectiveness and safety of heparin therapy and may require adjustments to the dosage to avoid potential bleeding complications.

The question concerns identifying which laboratory value of a patient receiving heparin therapy should be reported to the healthcare provider. The answer is d. aPTT 50 seconds. Heparin therapy's effectiveness and safety are typically monitored through the activated Partial Thromboplastin Time (aPTT) levels. A normal aPTT ranges from 30 to 40 seconds, but when on heparin therapy, the target therapeutic range is usually about 1.5 to 2.5 times the normal value. An aPTT of 50 seconds may suggest that the patient's heparin dose is within or slightly above the therapeutic range, depending on the specific target range set by the managing physician. However, it's crucial to communicate this value to ensure appropriate management, as excessively prolonged aPTT can increase the risk of bleeding. In contrast, options a, b, and c are within normal limits or irrelevant to heparin therapy: Platelets at 300,000/mm3, Hematocrit 45%, and PT 11 seconds are considered normal values and not directly influenced by heparin.


Related Questions

The glomerular filtration rate would most likely be affected by:
a. hormones
b. changes in glomerular blood pressure
c. pH of blood
d. dietary changes

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer will be option- B.

Explanation:

Glomerular filtration rate or GFR is the rate of the volume of filtrate formed by all renal corpuscles of both kidneys per unit time that is 120 ml/ min. The GFR depends on the pressure gradient in the glomerulus mainly its hydrostatic pressure.

The GFR is directly proportional to the glomerular blood pressure as the blood pressure increases, the hydrostatic pressure also increases which increases the GFR as more water and solutes enter the bowman's capsule. With the decrease in the blood vessels, the GFR decreases.

Thus, option- B is the correct answer.

Stores of this form of carbohydrate are released from the liver to help maintain constant blood glucose levels.

Answers

Answer:

Glycogen

Explanation:

The glycogen is composed by a glucose multibranch. Muscles are a reserve for the glycogen but the main reserve is the liver. When the insuline levels go down the glycogen is released thanks to the glycogen phsporylase and when the insuline and carbohydrate levels are high in plasma, the insuline takes those carbohydrates to the liver stimulating other enzimes to produce the glycogen.

Neither the participant nor the researcher knows to which group the participant is assigned.
a. Equipoise
b. Double-blind study
c. Cross-over design
d. Randomization

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B double-blind study

Explanation:

In this type of scientific study neither the experimenter nor the researcher knows the study sample, during the period that the experiment lasts, in order not to influence the results.

Describe how shortening the length of the muscle affects the thin and thick filaments?

Answers

Answer:

The length of the thick and thin filament do not shorten during muscle shortening.

Explanation:

The muscle contraction helps in he movement of the body parts.The muscle shortening causes the actin filament to pull along the myosin towards the center of the sarcomere.

The actin and myosin filaments completely overlap with each other. The sarcomere shorten during the muscle contraction but the thick and thin filaments length do not change. These thick and thin filament over lap with each other but there length remains the same.

Which of the following is NOT a normal constituent of lymph?
a. water
b. dietary lipids
c. red blood cells
d. lymphocytes
e. ions

Answers

Answer:

Red blood cells

Explanation:

Lymph is a colorless fluid that contains white blood cells and the fluid drains into the bloodstream through the lymphatic system. The lymph provide protection from the pathogens and helps in providing immunity to the organisms.

Lymphatic system contains water, lymphocytes, ions and dietary lipids. Red blood cells are absent in lymph which makes it a colorless fluid.

Thus, the correct answer is option (c).

Hypoglycemia can cause
a. elevated blood pressure, flushing of the skin, and increased sensitivity to pain.
b. slow heart rate, dry skin, and constipation.
c. headache, sweating, and shakiness.
d. decreased thirst, urination, and appetite.

Answers

Answer:

C

Explanation:

Hypoglycemia is the decrease of blood glucose in the body. Glucose is broken down in the body to release energy. Lack of energy of the body leads to the symptoms listed above

Final answer:

Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by low blood glucose levels. It can cause symptoms such as headache, sweating, and shakiness. option a is correct.

Explanation:

Hypoglycemia is a condition characterized by low blood glucose levels. It can cause symptoms such as headache, sweating, and shakiness. Insufficient glucose availability to cells due to hypoglycemia can lead to muscle weakness and, in severe cases, unconsciousness or death if left untreated.

Hypoglycemia occurs when the blood glucose level drops below normal, typically defined as below 70 mg/dL. This condition can be caused by various factors, including diabetes treatment, excessive alcohol consumption, certain medications, critical illnesses, hormone deficiencies, and tumors. When blood sugar levels fall too low, the body is unable to function properly, leading to a range of symptoms such as headache, sweating, shakiness, irritability, confusion, and in severe cases, seizures and loss of consciousness.

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Nerve impulses from ________ will result in inspiration.
a. the preoptic nucleus of the hypothalamus
b. Broca's center
c. the chemoreceptor center
d. the ventral respiratory group

Answers

Answer:

Nerve impulses from  ( d ) the ventral respiratory group will result in inspiration.

Explanation:

In the brainstem , respiratory center is located in medulla oblongata and pons . The respiratory center is the combination of three major respiratory groups of neurons , which are present , one in the pons and two in the medulla  .

Pons have the pontine respiratory group , and medulla have a dorsal respiratory group and the ventral respiratory group .

Now,

the ventral respiratory group of neurons , which contains both inspiratory and the expiratory neurons .

Growth of a new capillary supply into the region produces granulation tissue.
a. True
b. False

Answers

Answer: True

Explanation:

Granulation of tissues is also known as vascularization of tissues. The new capillaries that is formed makes the tissue appear granular and pink.

Granulation of tissues can be defined as the infill in the wound.It consists of macrophages, neovas-culture and fibroblast which work in the combination to deposit matrix.

This matrix helps in support and growth of granulation and wound healing.

Papanicolaou smear is usually done to determine cancer of:
a. Cervix
b. Ovaries
c. Fallopian tubes
d. Breast

Answers

Answer: a. Cervix

Explanation:

What are the bone cell functions of osteocyte, osteoblast, osteoclast?

Answers

Answer:

Osteocyte:

Osteocyte may be defined the bone forming cell and present inside a lacuna. They are involved in the synthesis and modification of bone cells. There receptors play an important role in the functional regulation of bone marrow.

Osteoblast:

Osteoblast cells contain a single nucleus and involved in the bone synthesis. They work together with the connective tissue in the process of formation of bone. They are involved in the formation of mineralized tissue.

Osteoclast:

Osteoclast cell breaks the bone tissue. The breakdown of bone tissue is important for the process of bone remodeling and bone repair. These cells are also involved in the bone resorption process by secreting the enzyme called collagenase.

Which of the following hormones is oxytocin?
A. insulin
B. thyroxine
C. progesterone
D. pitocin

Answers

Explanation:

thyroxine

The two main actions of oxytocin in the body are contraction of the womb (uterus) during childbirth and lactation. Oxytocin stimulates the uterine muscles to contract and also increases production of prostaglandins, which increase the contractions further.

Which cartilage attaches to the posterior end of the vocal ligament and is important in manipulating it to produce speech?
a. thyroid cartilage
b. cricoid cartilage
c. arytenoid cartilage
d. epiglottis

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is option C. arytenoid cartilage.

Explanation:

The arytenoid cartilages creates the part of the larynx to which the vocal folds and vocal ligament attach at posterior end.

The arytenoid cartilage is a pyramid like piece of cartilage that located in the larynx. These cartilage are two are in number and makes a pair. It is essential to make sound or voices.

Thus, the correct answer is option C. arytenoid cartilage.

Which of the following glands are holocrine glands?
a) Pancreas
b) Sweat glands
c) Salivary glands
d) Sebaceous glands

Answers

Answer:

b) Sweat glands and d) sebaceous glands

Explanation:

They are holocrine because the plasma membrane is broken releasing the secretion. In the sebaceous glands the sebum released contain dead cells, those cells could be looked at the duct and in the sebum.

The sweat glands might be holocrine and apocrine. the holocrine are in the hands, feet and frontal face. The dead cells can be found in the sweat and in the ducts of the glands.

In the heart dissection you performed, you noted the muscular walls of the ventricles. The walls of the atria, however, were much thinner. Why do you think the ventricular walls are so much thicker that the atrial walls?

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is that ventricles have to pump blood very far in the body.

Explanation:

The human heart contains four chambers. The right chambers of the heart are the right atrium and right ventricle and left side left atrium and left ventricle.

Ventricles have thick walls than atria as they have a thin wall comparatively because they have to do more work than the atrium. The atria are chambers that gets incoming blood. On the other hand, the chambers of ventricles pump the blood out of the heart. Even the left ventricle has thick walls than the right ventricle. Blood is propelled out of the heart with greater pressure from ventricles compared to the atria.

Thus, the correct answer is that ventricles have to pump blood very far in the body.

Salmonella typhi can move into a chronic asymptomatic carrier status in what organ of the body?
a) Liver
b) Spleen
c) Gallbladder
d) Intestinal lining

Answers

Answer:

The answer is D Intestinal lining

Explanation:

salmonella typhi is a bacterium that is acquired orally either by contaminated food or water, its characteristic clinical condition is a diarrheal disease, chronic carriers continue to expel these bacteria through their stools and spread the infection if not treated properly for a long time.

A nurse is preventing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for paroxetine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which of the following adverse effects?
a. Peripheral edema
b. Alopecia
c. Tinnitus
d. Drowsiness

Answers

Answer:

The best answer fromt the choices given to respond to the question: The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for which o the following adverse effects, is, D: Drowsiness.

Explanation:

Paroxetine, is a selective serotonin reuptake inhibitor, an antidepressant, that can be used for several conditions, including mental disorders, and some other physiological problems. Because of its action mechanism, which increases the availability of serotonin in the brain, there are various responses that the body can have, which are considered side effects, or adverse effects, of this medication. However, one of the least severe adverse effects, but that must be informed about to the patient, will be drowsiness, as well as others such as vomiting, diarrhea, irregular heart beat, hallucinations, eye problems, among others.  

Answer:

d. Drowsiness

Explanation:

A nurse is preventing teaching to a client who has a new prescription for paroxetine. The nurse should instruct the client to monitor for drowsiness.

A chemical digestion in the small intestine that breaks down fats.

Answers

Answer:

Fat digestion begins from the mouth but the majority of the fat is digested in the small intestine as the digestive juice, a mixture of bile juice and pancreatic juice is secreted by the liver and pancreas respectively which contains digestive enzymes like trypsin, chymotrypsin, amylase and lipase helps in digestion of the fat.

The digestive juice is delivered to the small intestine through ducts which helps in breakdown and digestion of fats. Lipase enzyme acts on the fat and cholesterol which break down these and form small or tiny particles called chylomicrons thus completing the digestion of fats.

Anemia can be caused by a diet lacking in which nutritional substances?
a. calcium and vitamin K
b. magnesium and vitamin C
c. zinc and vitamin A
d. folic acid and vitamin B12

Answers

Answer:

The best answer to the question: Anemia can be caused by a diet lacking in which nutritional substances?, would be, D: Folic acid and vitamin B12.

Explanation:

Anemia, is usually defined as a problem in the formation of red blood cells, or, erythrocites. Usually, there are a number of nutrients, such as vitamins and minerals, that play a vital role in the formation of these erythrocites. One such mineral is iron, which is why, when it is lacking in the diet, it can cause an anemia called iron-deficiency anemia. In this case, the anemia, which is either a reduced production of red-blood cells, or, cells that are incapable of carrying out their duty as oxygen-transporters, is caused by a dietary deficiency. Another form of this can be when the body itself, through an illness, is incapable of producing these cells. However, aside from iron, there are other two nutrients that are vital in the correct formation of erythrocites, and in their being efficent transporters: folic acid, also known as folate, and vitamin B12, both necessarily supplied by the diet, as the body cannot produce them.

Which of the tollwing essential glands in the neck may be compromised during a thyroidectomy?
A. thymus
B. pituitary
C. parotid
D. parathyroid

Answers

Answer:

D. Parathyroid

Explanation:

The parathyroid is localized on the back of the thyroid gland. Due to their location, in a thyroidectomy, both the thyroid and the parathyroid glands are removed.

A nurse is caring for a client who has acute heart failure and is receiving furosemide via IV bolus. The nurse should identify that which of the following findings indicates a desired therapeutic effect?
a. Increased sputum production
b. Decreased weight
c. Decreased blood glucose level
d. Increased blood pressure

Answers

Answer:

I'm say d it's wild guess

What is the Icd 10 code for history of myocardial infarction?

Answers

Answer:

ICD-10 I25.2

used to specify a medical diagnosis of old myocardial infarction

Hyperpolarization:
a. occurs during the latent period.
b. means the inside of the neuron is more negative than normal.
c. causes an action potential
d. all of the above.

Answers

Answer:

Option (b).

Explanation:

Hyperpolarization may be defined as the process of change in the cell potential towards more negative. The hyperpolarization state occurs after repolarization state.

The restinf membrane potential of the cell is -70mV. The influx of calcium ions in the cell, causes the change in the membrane potential and makes the cell negative upto -90mV. Hence, the inside of the neuron become more negative than the normal cell potential.

Thus, the correct answer is option (b).

Final answer:

Hyperpolarization refers to a change in the membrane potential of a neuron where the inside becomes more negative than normal. It is an inhibitory response that makes it less likely for a neuron to fire.

Explanation:

b. means the inside of the neuron is more negative than normal.

Hyperpolarization refers to a change in the membrane potential of a neuron where the inside becomes more negative than the normal resting potential of the neuron. This occurs due to an increased permeability of the membrane to potassium ions, leading to an efflux of positive charges.

Hyperpolarization is an inhibitory response in neurons and can occur during the refractory period following an action potential, not during the latent period. It can be caused by an external stimulus or as a result of the neurotransmitter release. It inhibits the generation of action potentials, making it less likely for a neuron to fire.

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High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) transport cholesterol from cells to the liver, where it becomes part of bile. HDLs are ____________ lipoproteins because they are used in cell repair and growth and do not tend to accumulate in body spaces where they are not needed.

Answers

Final answer:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are 'beneficial' lipoproteins. They transport excess cholesterol from various body cells to the liver, where the cholesterol is made into bile. They also contribute to cell repair and growth and do not accumulate needlessly within the body.

Explanation:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are often referred to as the "good" cholesterol. They play a critical role in the body's lipid transport system by taking excess cholesterol from cells in different parts of the body to the liver. Once in the liver, the cholesterol becomes part of bile, a digestive liquid. HDLs are known as 'beneficial' lipoproteins due to their role in cell repair and growth and their tendency not to accumulate in places in the body where they're not needed, helping to prevent the build-up of harmful fatty deposits.

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Final answer:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are beneficial because they transport cholesterol from cells to the liver. Here it becomes part of bile and does not accumulate in body spaces where it's not needed. The process involves triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol, chylomicrons, and the circulatory system.

Explanation:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are considered beneficial lipoproteins because they transport excess cholesterol from cells to the liver, where it becomes part of bile. The transported cholesterol is then used in cell repair and growth, and does not accumulate in body spaces where it is not needed. HDLs thus help maintain a healthy balance of cholesterol in the body.

Free fatty acids and monoacylglycerides enter epithelial cells and are reincorporated into triglycerides. These triglycerides are subsequently mixed with phospholipids and cholesterol to form a complex called a chylomicron, which is a water-soluble lipoprotein. This chylomicron is transported in the lymphatic vessels and then enters the circulatory system. Once in the bloodstream, the enzyme lipoprotein lipase breaks down the triglycerides of the chylomicrons into free fatty acids and glycerol, which can be used for energy by cells or stored as fat in adipose tissue.

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#SPJ11Final answer:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are beneficial because they transport cholesterol from cells to the liver. Here it becomes part of bile and does not accumulate in body spaces where it's not needed. The process involves triglycerides, phospholipids, cholesterol, chylomicrons, and the circulatory system.

Explanation:

High-density lipoproteins (HDLs) are considered beneficial lipoproteins because they transport excess cholesterol from cells to the liver, where it becomes part of bile. The transported cholesterol is then used in cell repair and growth, and does not accumulate in body spaces where it is not needed. HDLs thus help maintain a healthy balance of cholesterol in the body.

Free fatty acids and monoacylglycerides enter epithelial cells and are reincorporated into triglycerides. These triglycerides are subsequently mixed with phospholipids and cholesterol to form a complex called a chylomicron, which is a water-soluble lipoprotein. Thischylomicron is transported in the lymphatic vessels and then enters the circulatory system. Once in the bloodstream, the enzyme lipoprotein lipase breaks down the triglycerides of the chylomicrons into free fatty acids and glycerol, which can be used for energy by cells or stored as fat in adipose tissue.

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From letters A to E which is correctly described?
A) nasopharynx: usually receives only air, helps equalize pressure in inner ear
B) oropharynx: receives food and air, contains palatine and lingual tonsils
C) laryngopharynx: receives only food, lined with ciliated pseudostratified columnar epithelium
D) A and B are correct
E) A, B and C are correct

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B: Oropharynx.

Explanation:

The most posterior part of the mouth is known as an oropharynx, it corresponds anatomically to the throat; It extends from the soft palate to the hyoid bone, it also includes the back of the tongue. It is also the place where food, liquids and saliva travel when swallowed.

Which of the following is the most inferior cartilage of the larynx?
a. thyroid
b. arytenoid
c. corniculate
d. cricoid

Answers

Answer:

Cricoid.

Explanation:

Larynx is also known as voice box and lies above the trachea. Larynx helps in the protection of pharynx while swallowing the food.

Cricoid cartilage is the inferior wall cartilage of larynx. This is a ring shape in structure and present at the back part. This provides the attachment site for muscles, bones and cartilage.

Thus, the correct answer is option (d).

What is the general location and primary function of Occipital Lobe?

Answers

Answer:Hola My name is Marissa and im here to help!:)

Explanation:

the occipital lobe is at the back of the brain just aboce the cerrebellum and beneath the parietal lobe

the funtion of the occiptal lobe is the main role it to control your vision and proccesing visual information.

Hope this helped!:) brainliest ?

A fear of heights is known as:
a. claustrophobia.
b. acrophobia.
c. thanatophobia.
d. agoraphobia.

Answers

The correct answer is B. Acrophobia

Explanation:

In psychiatry, a phobia is an excessive fear of an object, animal, situation, etc that can be caused by a negative experience or situation. These excessive fears cause distress if the individual is exposed to the object or situation and can even lead to faint or panic attacks. Additionally, as there are different elements that create excessive fear there are also many types of phobias this includes arachnophobia which is the fear of spiders; claustrophobia which is the fear of small spaces; thanatophobia or fear to death; and acrophobia that occurs as there is an excessive fear of heights which makes people have anxiety attacks if they are at high heights, for example, high buildings. Therefore, the fear of heights is known as acrophobia.

Which type of pulmonary disease affects the inspiratory volume of the lungs?
a. obstructive
b. restrictive

Answers

Answer:

Restrictive lung disease.

Explanation:

Restrictive lung disease may be defined as medical condition in which the lungs cannot be fully expanded. The lung capacity is decreased in this pulmonary disease.

Restrictive lung disease may decrease the inspiratory volume of the lungs whereas the expiratory volume is normal of an individual. This disease may get worse over time.

Thus, the correct answer is option (b).

Select the correct statement's about the primary bronchi:
A) are branches arising from the trachea near the level of vertebra C5.
B) carry air toward each lung
C) are more muscular than cartilaginous.
D) are lined with stratified squamous epithelium.
E) All of these are correct

Answers

Answer:

The answer is B: carry air toward each lung.

Explanation:

The primary bronchi arise from the bifurcation of the trachea at the height of the IV thoracic vertebra, to go to the right and left lungs through its parenchyma; Its walls are made up of a fibrocartilaginous ring and carry air from the trachea to the lungs. The bronchi are covered by cylindrical pseudostratified and ciliated epithelia.

The resilient substance that keeps bone ends from crushing when compressed is __________?

Answers

Answer:

The resilient substance that keeps bone ends from crushing when compressed is Articular Cartilage.

Explanation:

Articular cartilage -

Articular cartilage is a smooth tissue that covers the ends of the bone joints ( at the junction of two bones ).

The important function of these cartilage is to allow smooth movement during movement of joints , a healthy cartilage on the joints makes movement easier and friction less , as the cartilage allows the bones to glide over easily.

These Articular cartilage can get damaged by any injury , as cartilage does not have the capability to heal itself, doctors perform surgical techniques to repair the damage.

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