A plane flying with a constant speed of 150 km/h passes over a ground radar station at an altitude of 3 km and climbs at an angle of 30°. At what rate is the distance from the plane to the radar station increasing a minute later? (Round your answer to the nearest whole number.)

Answer:

Final kinetic energy, [tex]KE_f=5\ J[/tex]  

Explanation:

It is given that,

Kinetic energy of toy car, [tex]KE_i = 8\ J[/tex]

Frictional force, F = 0.5 N

Distance, d = 6 m

We need to find the kinetic energy after this frictional force has acted on it. We know that frictional force is an opposing force. The work done by the toy car is given by :

[tex]W=F\times d[/tex]

[tex]W=-0.5\ N\times 6\ m[/tex]

W = -3 J

We know that the work done is equal to the change in kinetic energy. Let [tex]KE_f[/tex] is the final kinetic energy.

[tex]W=KE_f-KE_i[/tex]

[tex]-3=KE_f-8[/tex]

[tex]KE_f=5\ J[/tex]

So, the final kinetic energy is the toy car is 5 J. Hence, this is the required solution.

Answer:

The object's maximum speed remains unchanged.

Explanation:

The speed of a particle in SHM is given by :

[tex]v(t)=A\omega\ sin(\omega t)[/tex]

Maximum speed is, [tex]v_{max}=A\omega[/tex]

If A' = 2A and T' = 2T

[tex]v'_{max}=(2A)\dfrac{2\pi}{2T}[/tex]

[tex]v'_{max}=(A)\dfrac{2\pi}{T}[/tex]

[tex]v'_{max}=v_{max}[/tex]

So, the maximum speed of the object remains the same i.e. it remains unchanged. Hence, this is the required solution.

If the amplitude and period of an object's simple harmonic motion are both doubled, the object's maximum speed will be halved.

When an object moves with simple harmonic motion, doubling the amplitude and period will affect various properties of the motion. In this case, if the amplitude and the period are both doubled, the object's maximum speed will be halved. This means that the object will reach its maximum velocity at a slower rate compared to its original motion.

To understand why this happens, it's important to know that in simple harmonic motion, the maximum speed occurs when the object passes through equilibrium. Doubling the period means that the object will take twice as long to complete one full cycle, which results in a decrease in its maximum speed by a factor of 2.

Final answer:

The minimum speed at which a car can travel around a curve without skidding is approximately 19.81 m/s.

Explanation:

To find the minimum speed at which a car can travel around a curve without skidding, we need to consider the forces acting on the car. The centripetal force required to keep the car moving in a circular path is given by the equation[tex]Fc = (mv^2)/r[/tex], where m is the mass of the car, v is the velocity, and r is the radius of the curve.

In this case, the centripetal force is provided by the friction force between the tires and the icy road. When the road is icy, the coefficient of static friction is approximately zero, so the car will not be able to rely on friction to round the curve. Instead, the car will rely on the component of the car's weight perpendicular to the road surface.

The perpendicular component of the weight is given by the equation Wp = mg * cos(θ), where m is the mass of the car, g is the acceleration due to gravity, and θ is the angle of banking of the curve.

Setting the centripetal force equal to the perpendicular component of the weight, we have[tex](mv^2)/r = mg * cos(\theta).[/tex]Rearranging the equation, we find v = sqrt(rg * cos(θ)). Substituting the given values of r = 40 m and θ = 0 (since there is no angle of banking), we can calculate the minimum speed as v = sqrt(40 * 9.81 * cos(0)) = sqrt(392.4) ≈ 19.81 m/s.

Answer:

c).  [tex]a = 0.60 m/s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

As we know that weight of the automobile is given here

so weight = mass times gravity

[tex]W = mg[/tex]

[tex]9800 = m(9.8)[/tex]

[tex]m = 1000 kg[/tex]

now from Newton's law

[tex]F = ma[/tex]

[tex]600 = 1000 a[/tex]

[tex]a = \frac{600}{1000}[/tex]

[tex]a = 0.60 m/s^2[/tex]

The question is about finding the acceleration of a car with a given weight and applied force. To do this, the weight of the car is first converted to mass, then using Newton's Second Law (F = ma), we can determine the acceleration. The calculated acceleration of the car is 0.6 m/s^2.

The subject matter of this question is related to physics, specifically Newton's Second Law of Motion. Noting that the force, mass, and acceleration of the automobile are connected by the formula F = ma (force equals mass times acceleration), the given problem can be solved. First, we need to convert the weight of the automobile (9800 N) into mass, as weight is the product of mass and gravity (9.8 m /s^2). Therefore, the mass of the car is 1000 kg.

Using this converted mass and the applied force (600 N) in the formula, we can calculate the acceleration. The calculation goes as follows: 600N = 1000 kg * a, where a is the unknown acceleration we're trying to find. When you solve for 'a', you get a = 0.6 m/s^2. Hence, the acceleration of the 9800-N automobile when a forward force of 600N is applied, neglecting friction, is option c) 0.6 m/s^2.

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(a) The height is [tex]h = 11.66\ m[/tex]. (b) If the speed is greater, the time required will be longer.

The height can be computed from the second equation of motion. However, for height to be computed, time is required. Therefore, the required time can be computed from distance and speed.

Given:

Horizontal velocity, [tex]u = 3.5 m/s\\[/tex]

Horizontal distance, [tex]x = 5.4 m/s\\[/tex]

(a)

The time is computed as:

[tex]t = x/u\\t = 5.4/3/5\\t = 1.5428/ s[/tex]

The height is given as:

[tex]h = 1/2gt^2\\h = 1/2 \times9.8\times1.5428^2\\h = 11.66\ m[/tex]

Hence, the height is [tex]h = 11.66\ m[/tex].

(b)

The relation between time and velocity is given as:

[tex]t= x/u\\t \alpha1/u[/tex]

The time and speed are inversely proportional. Therefore, if the velocity is larger then the time will be shorter.

Hence, if the speed is greater, the time required will be longer.

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Initial momentum of the Play-doh: 0.0600 x 2.60 = 0.156 kg/m/s

Total mass of the block and play-doh: 0.38 + 0.0600 = 0.44 kg.

Final momentum is mass x velocity = 0.44v

V = Initial momentum / mass

V = 0.156 / 0.44 = 0.3545 m/s

Work done by spring is equal to the Kinetic enrgy.

Work Done by spring = 1/2 *28.0 * distance^2 = 14 * d^2

KE = 1/2 * 0.44* 0.3545^2

set to equal each other:

14 * d^2 = 0.22 *0.12567

Solve for d:

d = √(0.22*0.12567)/14

d = 0.44 meters = 4.4cm

Answer:

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Answer:

Power dissipated in 3 ohms resistor is 5.32 watts                

Explanation:

Resistor 1, R₁ = 3 ohms

Resistor 2, R₂ = 6 ohms

Resistor 3, R₃ = 4 ohms

Voltage source, V = 12 V

We need to find the power dissipated in the 3 ohms resistor. Firstly, we will find the equivalent resistance of R₁ and R₂.

[tex]\dfrac{1}{R'}=\dfrac{1}{R_1}+\dfrac{1}{R_2}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{1}{R'}=\dfrac{1}{3}+\dfrac{1}{6}[/tex]

R' = 2 ohms

Now R' is connected in series with R₃. Their equivalent is given by :

[tex]R_{eq}=R'+R_3[/tex]

[tex]R_{eq}=2+4[/tex]

[tex]R_{eq}=6\ ohms[/tex]

Total current flowing through the circuit, [tex]I=\dfrac{12}{6}=2\ A[/tex]

Voltage across R', [tex]V'=IR'=2\times 2=4\ V[/tex]

The voltage across R₁ and R₂ is 4 volts as they are connected in parallel. So, current across 3 ohm resistor is,

[tex]I=\dfrac{4}{3}=1.33\ A[/tex]

Power dissipated is given by, P = I × V

[tex]P=1.33\ A\times 4\ \Omega[/tex]

P = 5.32 watts

So, 5.32 watt of power is dissipated  in 3 ohms resistor. Hence, this is the required solution.

Answer:

The coordinates of the point is (0,0.55).

Explanation:

Given that,

First charge [tex]q_{1}=9\times10^{-6}\ C[/tex] at origin

Second charge [tex]q_{2}=6\times10^{-6}\ C[/tex]

Second charge at point P = (0,1)

We assume that,

The net electric field between the charges is zero at mid point.

Using formula of electric field

[tex]E=\dfrac{kq}{r^2}[/tex]

[tex]0=\dfrac{k\times9\times10^{-6}}{d^2}+\dfrac{k\times6\times10^{-6}}{(1-d)^2}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{(1-d)}{d}=\sqrt{\dfrac{6}{9}}[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{1}{d}=\dfrac{\sqrt{6}}{3}+1[/tex]

[tex]\dfrac{1}{d}=1.82[/tex]

[tex]d=\dfrac{1}{1.82}[/tex]

[tex]d=0.55\ m[/tex]

Hence, The coordinates of the point is (0,0.55).

It is a physical field occupied by a charged particle on another particle in its surrounding. The coordinates of the point where the net electric field strength due to these charges is zero will be (0,0.55).

It is a physical field occupied by a charged particle on another particle in its surrounding.

The following data are given as

q₁ is the first charge  at the origin

q₂ is the Second charge  

point of the Second charge is P = (0,1)

As we know the net electric field between the charges is zero at the midpoint.

The relation of the electric field with the distance between the charged particle is given by the formula

[tex]\rm E=\frac{Kq}{d^2} \\\\0=\frac{K\times9\times10^{-6}}{d^2} +\frac{K\times6\times10^{-6}}{(1-d)^2} \\\\\frac{1-d}{d} =\sqrt{\frac{6}{9} } \\\\\frac{1}{d} =\sqrt{\frac{{6} }{9} } +1\\\\\rm\frac{1}{d} =1.82\\\\\rm d=0.55m[/tex]

Hence the coordinates of the point where the net electric field strength due to these charges is zero will be (0,0.55).

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Answer:

1.28 x 10^5 Pa

Explanation:

The absolute pressure at the bottom of the tank of water is given by:

[tex]p= p_0 + \rho g h[/tex]

where

[tex]p_0 = 1.03 \cdot 10^5 Pa[/tex] is the atmospheric pressure

[tex]\rho = 1000 kg/m^3[/tex] is the water density

g = 9.8 m/s^2 is the acceleration of gravity

h = 2.50 m is the heigth of the column of water

Substituting into the formula, we find

[tex]p=1.03\cdot 10^5 +(1000)(9.8)(2.50)=1.28\cdot 10^5 Pa[/tex]

The increase in force exerted on a diver's eardrum as they descend to a depth of 3.2m in a freshwater lake is due to the increased underwater pressure from the weight of the water above them. By calculating the pressure increase, and then multiplying this by the area of the eardrum, we find the increase in force is approximately 1.88 N.

The increase in pressure experienced by a diver as they go deeper underwater is due to the weight of the water above them; this weight results from the water's density, which is approximately 775 times greater than air. Hence, the force exerted increases with the increasing depth. To calculate the pressure increase, we use the formula: Pressure = fluid density * gravity * depth, and then the force on the eardrum is obtained by: Force = Pressure * Area.

In this case, the fluid density of freshwater is 1000 kg/m³, gravity is 9.81 m/s², the depth is 3.2 m, and the eardrum area is 0.60 cm² (or 0.00006 m² when converted to square meters).

So, the Pressure increase due to depth = 1000kg/m³ * 9.81m/s² * 3.2m = 31428 Pascal (or Pa); therefore, increase in force = 31428 Pa * 0.00006m² = 1.88 N, approximately. So, the increase in the force on the eardrum of the diver when she swims down to a depth of 3.2 m in the freshwater lake is around 1.88 Newtons.

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Final answer:

The increase in force pushing in on the eardrum at a depth of 3.2 m compared to the surface is 1.8816 N.

Explanation:

The student has asked about the increase in force on a diver's eardrum when diving to a depth of 3.2 m in a freshwater lake. The increase in force is due to the increase in water pressure with depth. To find the increase in the force on the eardrum, we need to calculate the water pressure at the depth of 3.2 m and multiply it by the area of the eardrum.

Water pressure increases by approximately 9.8 kPa per meter of depth (this is due to the weight of the water above). Therefore, at a depth of 3.2 m, the pressure is 3.2 m * 9.8 kPa/m = 31.36 kPa. The area of the eardrum is given as 0.60 cm², which is 0.60 * 10^-4 m² in SI units.

The increase in force F = pressure * area = 31.36 kPa * 0.60 * 10^-4 m². To get the force in newtons, we convert kPa to Pa by multiplying by 1,000, giving F = 31.36 * 1,000 Pa * 0.60 * 10^-4 m² = 1.8816 N.

The increase in force pushing in on the eardrum at a depth of 3.2 m compared to the surface is 1.8816 N.

Answer: (a) 0.3679

(b) 0.0803

Explanation:

Given : A book of 600 pages contains 600 such errors.

Then , the average  number of errors per page = [tex]\dfrac{600}{600}=1[/tex]

[tex]\text{i.e. }\lambda=1[/tex]

The Poisson distribution function is given by :-

[tex]P(x)=\dfrac{e^{-\lambda}\lambda^x}{x!}[/tex]

Then , the probability that that page 1 contains no errors ( Put [tex]x=0[/tex] and [tex]\lambda=1[/tex]) :-

[tex]P(x=0)=\dfrac{e^{-1}1^0}{0!}=0.3678794411\approx0.3679[/tex]

Now, the probability that page 1 contains at least three errors :-

[tex]P(x\geq3)=1-(P(0)+P(1)+P(2))\\\\=1-(\dfrac{e^{-1}1^0}{0!}+\dfrac{e^{-1}1^1}{1!}+\dfrac{e^{-1}1^2}{2!})=0.0803013970714\approx0.0803[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

A unit vector is a vector whose magnitude is always unity that means 1 . It gives the direction of that quantity which is represented by this vector.

If the electric field is represented by a unit vector so it has same unit as electric field that means Newton per coulomb.

The unit of unit vector depend on the quantity for which it is used.

Final answer:

A unit vector is dimensionless and has no physical units, serving solely to represent direction in a vector space, such as the direction of an electric field.

Explanation:

In physics, particularly when discussing electric fields, the concept of vectors is crucial for understanding the direction and magnitude of forces. A unit vector is a standard tool used to simply indicate direction in space. Unlike other physical quantities, the unit vector is unique because it is dimensionless; that is, it has no units. This absence of units allows it to universally represent direction, irrespective of the nature of the physical quantity being described, such as an electric field.

When representing an electric field, which is a vector field, the direction in which a positive test charge would be pushed is shown by the unit vector. Vectors, as in the case of an electric field vector, are drawn as arrows with their length proportional to the magnitude and their orientation showing the direction. The unit vector associated with these fields provides direction but does not influence the physical units of the field itself, which are newtons per coulomb (N/C) for electric fields.

Answer:

- 1 m/s, 20 m

Explanation:

u = 9 m/s, a = - 2 m/s^2, t = 5 sec

Let s be the displacement and v be the velocity after 5 seconds

Use first equation of motion.

v = u + a t

v = 9 - 2 x 5 = 9 - 10 = - 1 m/s

Use second equation of motion

s = u t + 1/2 a t^2

s = 9 x 5 - 1/2 x 2 x 5 x 5

s = 45 - 25 = 20 m

Final answer:

The runner's displacement in the first 5 seconds after crossing the finish line is 22.5 meters. Her velocity 5 seconds after crossing the finish line is 1 m/s in the positive direction. These calculations are based on the formulas for displacement and velocity under constant acceleration.

Explanation:

As a runner crosses the finish line, she decelerates from a velocity of 9 m/s at a rate of 2 m/s2. To find her displacement during the first 5 seconds after crossing the finish line, we use the formula for displacement under constant acceleration, δx = v0t + ½at2, where v0 = 9 m/s, a = -2 m/s2 (deceleration means acceleration is in the opposite direction to velocity), and t = 5 s. Substituting these values gives us a displacement of 22.5 meters. To find her velocity 5 seconds after crossing the finish line, we use the formula v = v0 + at, which yields a final velocity of 1 m/s in the positive direction.

This result makes sense as the runner is slowing down but not yet stopped 5 seconds after crossing the finish line. The calculated displacement of 22.5 meters is the total distance covered during these 5 seconds of deceleration.

Answer:

[tex]F = 56.75 N[/tex]

Explanation:

As per the free body diagram of the box we can say that the applied force must be greater than or equal to the sum of friction force and component of the weight of the box along the hill

So we can say that

[tex]F_{net} = F cos35 - (mgsin20 + F_f)[/tex]

on the other side the force perpendicular to the plane must be balanced so that it remains in equilibrium in that direction

so we can say that

[tex]F_n + Fsin35 = mgcos20[/tex]

now we will have

[tex]F_f = \mu F_n[/tex]

[tex]F_f = (0.20)(mg cos20 - Fsin35)[/tex]

now we have

[tex]0 = Fcos35 - mg sin20 - (0.20)(mg cos20 - Fsin35)[/tex]

[tex]F(cos35 + 0.20 sin35) = mg sin20 + 0.20 mgcos20[/tex]

[tex]F = \frac{mg sin20 + 0.20 mgcos20}{(cos35 + 0.20 sin35)}[/tex]

[tex]F = \frac{100(sin20 + 0.20 cos20)}{(cos35 + 0.20 sin35)}[/tex]

[tex]F = 56.75 N[/tex]

Answer:

Part a)

i = 0

Part b)

i = 1 A

Explanation:

Part a)

As per Lenz law we know that inductor in series circuit opposes the sudden change in current

And if the flux in the circuit will change then it will induce back EMF to induce opposite current in it

Now when we close the switch at t = 0

then initially it will induce the opposite EMF in such a way that net EMF of the circuit will be ZERO

so current = 0

Part b)

After long time the induced EMF in the circuit will be zero as the flux will become constant

so here we can say

[tex]EMF = i(R_1 + R_2)[/tex]

[tex]12 = i (8 + 4)[/tex]

[tex]i = 1 A[/tex]

The initial current through the resistor in a series circuit with an inductor and resistor can be calculated using Ohm's Law. After a very long time, the current through the resistor becomes zero.

In a series circuit with an inductor and a resistor, the initial current through the resistor can be calculated using Ohm's Law. The total resistance in the circuit is the sum of the resistance of the inductor and the resistor. Using the formula I = V / R, where V is the voltage from the battery and R is the total resistance, we can calculate the initial current.

After a very long time, the inductor reaches a state of equilibrium with no change in current. So the current through the resistor a very long time after the switch is closed would be zero.

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Answer:

The speed of wave in the second string is 55.3 m/s.

Explanation:

Given that,

Speed of wave in first string= 58 m/s

We need to calculate the wave speed

Using formula of speed for first string

[tex]v_{1}=\sqrt{\dfrac{T}{\mu_{1}}}[/tex]...(I)

For second string

[tex]v_{2}=\sqrt{\dfrac{T}{\mu_{2}}}[/tex]...(II)

Divided equation (II) by equation (I)

[tex]\dfrac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{\dfrac{T}{\mu_{2}}}{\dfrac{T}{\mu_{1}}}}[/tex]

Here, Tension is same in both string

So,

[tex]\dfrac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{\mu_{1}}{\mu_{2}}}[/tex]

The linear density of the second string

[tex]\mu_{2}=\mu_{1}+\dfrac{10}{100}\mu_{1}[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{2}=\dfrac{110}{100}\mu_{1}[/tex]

[tex]\mu_{2}=1.1\mu_{1}[/tex]

Now, Put the value of linear density of second string

[tex]\dfrac{v_{2}}{v_{1}}=\sqrt{\dfrac{\mu_{1}}{1.1\mu_{1}}}[/tex]

[tex]v_{2}=v_{1}\times\sqrt{\dfrac{1}{1.1}}[/tex]

[tex]v_{2}=58\times\sqrt{\dfrac{1}{1.1}}[/tex]

[tex]v_{2}=55.3\ m/s[/tex]

Hence, The speed of wave in the second string is 55.3 m/s.

Final answer:

The resulting wave speed in the second string with a 10% greater linear density and the same tension will be the same as the wave speed in the first string.

Explanation:

The wave speed in a string can be determined by the tension and linear mass density of the string. In this case, the wave speed in the first string is 58 m/s. To find the resulting wave speed in the second string with a 10% greater linear density and the same tension, we can use the formula for wave speed:

v = √(T/μ)

Let's assume the linear mass density of the first string is μ and the linear mass density of the second string is 1.1μ. Since the tension is the same in both strings, we have:

v1 = v2

√(T/μ) = √(T/(1.1μ))

Cross multiplying and simplifying, we get:

Tμ = 1.1T

μ = 1.1

So, the resulting wave speed in the second string will be 58 m/s. Therefore, the wave speed remains the same.

Answer:

a) [tex]a = 0.9 m/s^2[/tex]

Explanation:

As per Newton's 2nd law we know that net force on an object of mass "m" is given by the formula

[tex]F = ma[/tex]

so net force is the product of mass and acceleration

here we know that

mass = 5 kg

net force on the particle is 4.5 N

so from above equation we have

[tex]4.5 = 5 \times a[/tex]

so the acceleration is given as

[tex]a = \frac{4.5}{5} = 0.9 m/s^2[/tex]

Answer:

Frequency, f = 0.274 Hz

Explanation:

It is given that,

Mass of the girl, m = 40 kg

Length of the rope, L = 3.3 m

We need to find the frequency of her swinging. It is an example of simple harmonic motion whose time period is given by :

[tex]T=2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{L}{g}}[/tex]

[tex]T=2\pi\sqrt{\dfrac{3.3\ m}{9.8\ m/s^2}}[/tex]

T = 3.64 seconds

The frequency, [tex]f=\dfrac{1}{T}[/tex]

[tex]f=\dfrac{1}{3.64\ s}[/tex]

f = 0.274 Hz

So, the frequency of her swinging is 0.274 Hz. Hence, this is the required solution.

Answer:

Part a)

55.3 cm

Part b)

41.5 cm

Explanation:

Pipe A is open at both ends so the fundamental frequency of this pipe is given as

[tex]f_o = \frac{V}{2L}[/tex]

here we know that

V = 343 m/s

[tex]f_o = 310 Hz[/tex]

now we have

[tex]310 = \frac{343}{2L}[/tex]

[tex]L = 55.3 cm[/tex]

Now we also know that second harmonic of pipe A and third harmonic of pipe B has same frequency

so we will have

[tex]\frac{2V}{2L_a} = \frac{3V}{4L_b}[/tex]

[tex]L_b = \frac{3}{4}L_a[/tex]

[tex]L_b = \frac{3}{4}(55.3) = 41.5 cm[/tex]

Answer:

1.27 m

Explanation:

Distance = 192 m

number of rotations = 48

Distance traveled in one rotation = 2 x π x r

Where, r be the radius of wheel.

so, distance traveled in 48 rotations = 48 x 2 x 3.14 x r

It is equal to the distance traveled.

192 = 48 x 2 x 3.14 x r

r = 0.637 m

diameter of wheel = 2 x radius of wheel = 2 x 0.637 = 1.27 m

Answer:

1.29 meters

Explanation:

In order to calculate this you first have to calculate the circumference of the wheel, as you know to travel 192 meters the wheel did 48 revolutions, that means that it took 48 circumferences of the wheel to cover 192 meters, we first have to divide the 192 meters by the circumference:

Circumference:192 m/48=4m

So to know the diameter we just need to divide the circumference by pi:

diameter=circumference/pi

Diameter=4 meters/3.14

Diameter= 1.2861 meters.

Answer:

1.25 m/s^2

Explanation:

m = 76 kg, R = 840 N

Let a be the acceleration of teh elevator in upward direction.

By use of Newton's second law

R - mg = m a

R = m ( g + a)

840 = 76 ( 9.8 + a)

a = 1.25 m/s^2

The acceleration of the elevator is [tex]\( {1.25 \, \text{m/s}^2} \)[/tex] upward.

Given:

- Mass of the man (m): 76 kg

- Weight of the man (W): mg where g is the acceleration due to gravity [tex](\( 9.8 \, \text{m/s}^2 \))[/tex]

- Normal force (read by the scale): 840 N (this includes the weight of the man plus any additional force due to acceleration)

The forces acting on the man in the elevator are:

- Downward force (weight of the man): ( mg )

- Upward normal force (read by the scale): [tex]\( 840 \, \text{N} \)[/tex]

The net force acting on the man is:

[tex]\[ F_{\text{net}} = \text{Normal force} - \text{Weight} \][/tex]

Since the elevator is accelerating upward with acceleration a, we have:

[tex]\[ F_{\text{net}} = m(g + a) \][/tex]

Given that the normal force read by the scale is 840 N, we equate it to [tex]\( m(g + a) \)[/tex]:

[tex]\[ 840 = 76 \times (9.8 + a) \][/tex]

Now, solve for a:

[tex]\[ 840 = 76 \times 9.8 + 76a \]\[ 840 = 744.8 + 76a \]\[ 76a = 840 - 744.8 \]\[ 76a = 95.2 \]\[ a = \frac{95.2}{76} \]\[ a \approx 1.25 \, \text{m/s}^2 \][/tex]

To calculate the potential difference VA - VB, first determine the displacement from point A to B. This results in a vector, which you dot product with the electric field vector to find the work done. This work done is the potential difference.

To compute the potential difference VA - VB, we first need to determine the displacement from point A to point B. This is determined by subtracting the coordinates of point A from point B, so (5 - 2)i + (7 - 3)j = 3i + 4j (meters). The next step involves calculating the work done by the electric field in moving a unit positive charge from A to B, which is obtained by taking the dot product of the displacement and the electric field vectors. Hence, the work done is (3i + 4j) . (4i + 3j) = 24 Joules/Coulomb. Now, since potential difference is defined as the work done per unit charge in moving a positive charge from one point to another, the potential difference VA - VB in this case would just be equal to this work done. So VA - VB = 24 Volts.

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Answer:

[tex]\tau = - 30 \hat k[/tex]

Explanation:

Position vector of the point of application of point of application of force is given as

[tex]\vec r = 2\hat i + 2\hat j[/tex]

now we have have force

[tex]\vec F = 5 \hat i - 10\hat j[/tex]

now the moment of force is given as

[tex]\tau = \vec r \times \vec F[/tex]

[tex]\tau = (2\hat i + 2\hat j) \times (5\hat i - 10\hat j)[/tex]

[tex]\tau = -20\hat k - 10 \hat k[/tex]

[tex]\tau = - 30 \hat k[/tex]

The moment of the force about the coordinate origin is 5 Nm.

To find the moment of a force about the coordinate origin, we need to calculate the cross product of the force vector and the position vector from the origin to the point where the force is applied. The position vector is given by: r = 2i + 2j. The cross product is obtained by taking the determinant of a matrix that includes the unit vectors for i, j, and k. The moment is then the magnitude of the cross product.

So, the cross product is: (i, j, k) ⨯ (5i, -10j, 0k) = (0, 0, 5)

Since the moment is the magnitude of the cross product, the moment of the force about the coordinate origin is 5 Nm.

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Answer:

[tex]I(t)=4[1-e^{-2t}][/tex]

Explanation:

For a LR circuit as shown the current at any time t in the circuit is given by

[tex]I(t)=\frac{V}{R}[1-e^{\frac{-Rt}{L}}][/tex]

where

'V' is the voltage

'R' is resistance in the circuit

'L' is the inductance of the circuit

't' is time after circuit is turned on

Applying the given values we get

[tex]I(t)=\frac{32}{8}[1-e^{\frac{-8t}{4}}]\\\\I(t)=4[1-e^{-2t}][/tex]

The shear deformation in a copper block due to applied forces can be calculated using the formula Δx = (F * L₀) / (S * A), where F is the force applied, L₀ is the initial length of the block, S is the shear modulus of copper, and A is the area of the surface on which the force is applied. The angle can then be calculated by taking the inverse tangent of the ratio of deformation (Δx) to the original length (L₀) of the block.

The subject of the question is related to the physics concept of shear strain and shear stress. The shear strain caused on a material, in this case copper, is defined by the sideways deformation of the material due to the applied force, and it is given by the formula Δx = (F * L₀) / (S * A). Here, F represents the force applied which is 3.07 X 10 6 N, L₀ is the height of the block which is 0.242 m. The shear modulus S of copper is given as 4.2 X 10¹⁰ N/m², and A is the area of the surface on which the force is applied, which can be calculated as 0.242 m² since a cube has all its sides equal. By substituting these values in the equation, we can calculate the value of the deformation Δx, which will give us an idea of how the shape of the block has been altered. The angle of shear can be obtained by taking the inverse tangent of the ratio of deformation to the original height of the cube.

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Answer:

8.3×10² W/m²

Explanation:

I₀ = Intensity of unpolarized light

θ = angle between the filters = 25°

I = Intensity of the polarized light after passing through three filters = 280 W/m²

[tex]I=\frac{I_0}{2}cos^2{25}cos^2{25}\\\Rightarrrow I_0=\frac{2I}{cos^4{25}}\\\Rightarrow I_0=\frac{2\times 280}{cos^4{25}}\\\Rightarrow I_0=830.01\ W/m^2[/tex]

∴ Intensity of unpolarized light is 8.3×10² W/m²

To find the intensity of the incident beam of light passing through three polarizing filters, we can use the formula for the intensity of polarized light after passing through a filter. The incident light is initially unpolarized, so we need to calculate the intensity after passing through each filter. Given the intensity after passing through the third filter and the angle between the filters, we can find the intensity of the incident beam.

To find the intensity of the incident beam of light, we need to use the formula for the intensity of polarized light after passing through a polarizing filter: I = Io * cos^2(theta). Since the incident light is initially unpolarized, the intensity of the incident beam is twice the intensity of the light after passing through the first filter. Let's call this intensity I1. The intensity after passing through the second filter is I2 = I1 * cos^2(theta), and the intensity after passing through the third filter is I3 = I2 * cos^2(theta). Given that I3 = 280 W/m^2 and theta increases by 25 degrees from one filter to the next, we can calculate the intensity of the incident beam, Io, using these formulas.

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Answer:

[tex]\frac{dQ}{dt} = 966 W[/tex]

Explanation:

As we know that the rate of heat transfer due to temperature difference is given by the formula

[tex]\frac{dQ}{dt} = \frac{KA(\Delta T)}{L}[/tex]

here we know that

[tex]K = 0.69 W/m-K[/tex]

A = 4 m x 7 m

thickness = 30 cm

temperature difference is given as

[tex]\Delta T = 20 - 5 = 15 ^oC[/tex]

now we have

[tex]\frac{dQ}{dt} = \frac{(0.69W/m-K)(28 m^2)(15)}{0.30}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{dQ}{dt} = 966 W[/tex]

Answer:

Option B is the correct answer.

Explanation:

Period of simple pendulum is given by the expression [tex]T=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}[/tex], where l is the length of pendulum and g is the acceleration due to gravity value.

So if we have a simple pendulum with length l we can find its period. Using the above formula we can calculate  acceleration due to gravity value of that place.

So using simple pendulum we can measure acceleration due to gravity value.

Option B is the correct answer.

The question is about determining the initial speed of a car involved in an elastic collision with a parked truck, using the laws of conservation of momentum.

The subject of this question is Physics, and it involves the principles of conservation of momentum and elastic collisions. We are given masses for two vehicles (a car and a truck) and the post-collision speed of one of the vehicles (the truck). To find the car's initial speed, we use the equations for an elastic collision, which ensures that both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved.

For an elastic collision, the conservation of momentum is given by:

m1 * v1 + m2 * v2 = m1 * v1' + m2 * v2'

where m1 and m2 are the masses of the car and truck respectively; v1 and v2 are the initial velocities of the car and truck respectively (since the truck is initially parked, v2 = 0); v1' and v2' are the final velocities of the car and truck respectively.

To find the final velocity v1' of the car, we must use the conservation of kinetic energy along with the above equation. However, we only need the conservation of momentum equation solved for v1 (initial speed of the car) since v2' (final velocity of the truck) is given.

After plugging in the given values (car's mass 1689 kg, truck's mass 2000 kg, truck's final velocity 17 km/h), the equation is solved to find the car's initial velocity.

Answer:

Elastic collision is that collision in which two objects are collides and separate out without and deformation in shape and size

example: if a block connected with ideal spring will collide with another block in which spring will compress during the collision and then again come to its natural state.

Inelastic collision in that in which two objects will collide and then stick with each other after collision and there is permanent deformation in the objects.

example : if two cars will collide and stuck together after collision and move together with same speed

So here in both examples and both type of collision there is no external force during collision of two objects so here total momentum of the system will remains conserved.

But since the shape will change in inelastic collision so kinetic energy is not conserved in inelastic collision while in elastic collision kinetic energy is conserved

Final answer:

An example of an elastic collision is two colliding billiard balls, with both momentum and kinetic energy conserved, while an inelastic collision, such as a car crash, conserves momentum but not kinetic energy.

Explanation:

An example of an elastic collision is a collision between two billiard balls where they bounce off of each other without any deformation or generation of heat. In this case, both momentum and kinetic energy are conserved. Momentum conservation means the total momentum before the collision is equal to the total momentum after the collision. Similarly, kinetic energy conservation implies that the total kinetic energy before the collision is the same as the total kinetic energy after the collision.

In contrast, an example of an inelastic collision is a car crash, where the cars collide and deform, often sticking together. In this type of collision, while again momentum is conserved, kinetic energy is not conserved because some of it has been transformed into other forms of energy, such as heat or sound. The reduction in internal kinetic energy is a hallmark of inelastic collisions.

The conservation of momentum and kinetic energy together allow us to calculate the final velocities of objects in one-dimensional, two-body collisions. However, in inelastic collisions, energy is not conserved due to the conversion of kinetic energy to other energy forms.