The correct answer is B. Sensitive period
Explanation:
In development, the sensitive period refers to a lapse of time in which organisms are more susceptible or receptive to stimuli and therefore during this time there can be great advances in development. Additionally, different from critical periods sensitive periods do not imply irreversible consequence if the stimuli are not presented. For example, in human beings from birth to the age of 6 years, children are more receptive to learn and acquire certain skills such as learning a new language if exposed to it and therefore this can be considered as a sensitive period. Considering this, it can be concluded the definition presented refers to the Sensitive period.
Which statement is true regarding cancer?
(Select all that apply.)
a. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer.
b. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.
c. Benign tumors grow rapidly than malignant ones.
d. Anaplasia means more differentiated cells.
e. Metastasis means less differentiated cells.
Answer:
The correct answers are option a. The greater the undifferentiated cell count, the more aggressive the cancer and b. Malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host.
Explanation:
Anaplasia is a medical term used to describe a condition of cells with poor cellular differentiation. It is known that the great the anaplasia, the more aggresive is the cancer. The tumors that have this characteristic are known as anaplastic carcinoma. This malignant tumors have the potential to kill the host when they metastasize to other organs.
The function of RNA polymerase is to _________.
a. catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between ribonucleotides.
b. activate tRNAs.
c. cleave mRNA to remove introns.
d. catalyze the formation of phosphodiester bonds between deoxyribonucleotids.
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-A.
Explanation:
RNA polymerase is the enzymes which perform the process of transcription that synthesizes the RNA from one strand of the DNA.
These polymerase moves step-wise along the DNA strand adding one nucleotide in 5′-to-3′ direction. They catalyze the reaction by forming the phosphodiester bond between two nucleotides using the energy from the high energy bonds of ATP and form the linear RNA.
Thus, option-A is the correct answer.
If an individual has a recessive phenotype for a particular trait, it can be concluded that
A. both parents also had a recessive phenotype for that trait.
B. only one parent had a recessive phenotype for that trait.
C. both parents were homozygous for the dominant gene for that trait.
D. each parent had at least one recessive gene for that trait.
E. none of the above
Answer:
D. Each parent had at least one recessive gene for that trait.
Explanation:
Actually, the correct answer would be "Each parent had at least one recessive allele for that trait", but we can consider D to be correct.
Recessive phenotypes are only expressed when both copies of the gene are recessive alleles. If you have one recessive allele and one dominant allele, your phenotype will be dominant, same way as if you both alleles were dominant.
Each allele is inherited from one parent, so you have one parental allele, and one maternal allele. If your phenotype is recessive, it means you inherited a recessive allele from your mother and one from your father, so you can conclude that both parents had at least one copy of the recessive allele. What you can't say is that both parents had a recessive phenotype, because it could be that they had one dominant and one recessive allele, so they would be able to pass on the recessive allele to the next generation, but their phenotype would be dominant.
One aspect of Darwin's theory of natural selection is that adaptations not useful to fitness are lost faster if they have a greater cost. With this in mind, which of the following explanation is most likely true?a) The human little toe is not going away in the near future.b) The human appendix must currently serve an essential function or it would not be in our bodies.c) It is a mystery why we do not have tails.d) Humans are relatively hairless because we look better without hair.
Answer:
a) The human little toe is not going away in the near future
Explanation:
According to my research on Darwin's theory of evolution, I can say that based on the information provided within the question the statement that would most likely be true would be that the human little toe is not going away in the near future. This can be said because the little toe serves as a way to help us balance our bodies and assists in running and other fitness aspects.
I hope this answered your question. If you have any more questions feel free to ask away at Brainly.
Final answer:
The most accurate explanation within Darwin's theory of natural selection is that the human little toe is not likely to disappear in the near future as traits that do not significantly impact fitness or pose a high cost can persist in a population due to factors like genetic drift or lack of strong selection pressures.
Explanation:
Regarding the aspect of Darwin's theory of natural selection that adaptations not useful to fitness are lost more quickly if they have a greater cost, the most likely true explanation is that a heritable trait that doesn't help with survival and reproduction and has a significant cost will likely be phased out of a population. This loss occurs because individuals with costly, non-beneficial traits will, on average, leave behind fewer offspring than individuals without such traits. Therefore, option a) The human little toe is not going away in the near future is the most accurate. Over time, traits that do not contribute to fitness or are detrimentally costly in terms of energy and resources tend to be selected against. However, this doesn't mean that traits with a minor impact on fitness or that do not pose a high cost, like the human little toe, will rapidly disappear. Other factors, such as genetic drift or the lack of significant selection pressure against such traits, can affect their persistence in a population.
Type of essential organic compound that is used for structure and support as well as acting as catalysts. A. Proteins B. Carbohydrates C. Nucleic Acids D. Lipids
Answer:
Proteins are used for structure and support as well as acting as catalysts.
Explanation:
Enzymes are a type of protein called catalysts. Its function is to accelerate chemical reactions without modifying, which means that it can be used, again and again.
The carbohydrates represent the cell's energy source while lipids serve as an energy reserve. The nucleic acids constitute the fundamental repository of genetic information, especially DNA
Place these steps of enzyme catalysis in the correct order:
1. The substrate and enzyme change shape.
2. The substrate enters the active site.
3. The enzyme reverts to its original configuration.
4. The product is expelled.
a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4, 2
c) 2, 1, 4, 3
d) 2, 1, 3, 4
e) 2, 3, 1, 4
Answer: Option C. 2, 1, 4, 3
Explanation:
Enzyme catalysis is defined increase in the rate of a process with the help of a biological molecule called enzyme.
Enzymes follows specific steps to perform catalysis that includes:
1) In the first step enzyme is introduced to substrate and substrate binds to the active site of enzyme and form enzyme/substrate complex.
2) In the second step the active site and substrate changes their shape. The complex holds each other together more tightly and proceed to the process of catalysis and results in enzyme/products complex.
3) After completing catalysis the enzyme releases the product.
4) After the release of enzyme, enzyme turns to its original shape or configuration.
Hence, the correct option is C.
The correct sequence of enzyme catalysis steps is: substrate enters the active site, substrate and enzyme change shape, product is expelled, enzyme reverts to its original configuration. Thus, the correct order is (c) 2, 1, 4, 3.
Explanation:To answer the question, we need to place the steps of enzyme catalysis in the correct order. The correct order is as follows: The substrate enters the active site (2), the substrate and enzyme change shape (1), the product is expelled (4), and finally, the enzyme reverts to its original configuration (3). Therefore, the sequence of events for enzyme catalysis is: (c) 2, 1, 4, 3, which corresponds to the steps described in figures and references provided.
Enzyme catalysis begins with the substrate approaching and binding to the active site on the enzyme, forming an enzyme-substrate complex. After binding, the complex undergoes conformational changes to facilitate the reaction. Once the reaction has occurred, the product is released, and the enzyme returns to its original form, capable of binding to a new substrate.
Temperature phages
Select one:
a. use site specific recombination to incorporate their genome into the host genome for prophage replication until the host's growth is threatened.
b. use reverse transcriptase to incorporate their genome into the host genome for prophage replication.
c. do not cause lysis when exiting the host cell.
d. only occur in temperate regions of the globe.
Answera. use site specific recombination to incorporate their genome into the host genome for prophage replication until the host's growth is threatened.
Explanation:
A temperate phage is a bacteriophage which incorporate it's genome inside the host organism. It replicates it's own genome within the host cell. It basically uses the site specific recombination so as to incorporate the genome within the host cell.
An endangered species of fish has a population that is decreasing exponentially:A=A0 e^kt The population 10 years ago was 1700. Today, only 800 of the fish are alive. Once the population drops below 100, the situation will be irreversible. When will this happen, according to the model? (Round to the nearest whole year.)A.29B.30C.32D.31E.None of the above
The population of the given species can be calculated by the given exponential growth formula:
A[tex]_{\text t}[/tex] = A₀ x [tex]\text e^{\text {{ -kt}}[/tex].
Such that,
A₀ = population 10 years ago = 1700. k = ?A[tex]_{\text t}[/tex] = 800Substituting the values in the fomula:
A[tex]_{\text t}[/tex] = A₀ x [tex]\text e^{\text {{ -kt}}[/tex].
800 = 1700 x [tex]\text e^{\text {{ -kt}}[/tex].
[tex]\dfrac {800}{1700} = \text e^{\text{-kt}}[/tex]
Taking log:
ln ([tex]\dfrac {800}{1700}[/tex]) = k(10) ln e
k = [tex]\dfrac{0.754}{10}[/tex]
k = -0.0754
Now,
The time when population drops below 100:
A[tex]_{\text t}[/tex] = A₀ x [tex]\text e^{\text {{ -kt}}[/tex].
100 = 1700 x [tex]\text e^{\text {{ -kt}}[/tex].
[tex]\dfrac {100}{1700} = \text e^{\text{-kt}}[/tex]
Taking log:
ln ([tex]\dfrac {100}{1700}[/tex]) = [tex]\text e^{\text{-0.0754 x t}}[/tex]
t = [tex]\text{ln}\dfrac{\dfrac{100}{1700}}{(-0.0754)}[/tex]
t = 38
Therefore, the population will drop below a hundred when t> 38.
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The population will drop below 100 approximately 38 years from today, so the correct answer is E. None of the above.
To solve this problem, we first need to determine the value of the constant [tex]\( k \)[/tex] in the exponential decay model. We can use the information given to find [tex]\( k \)[/tex].
Given:
- Population 10 years ago [tex](\( t = 10 \)): \( A_0 = 1700 \)[/tex]
- Current population [tex](\( t = 0 \)): \( A = 800 \)[/tex]
We can use these values to solve for [tex]\( k \)[/tex] using the formula:
[tex]\[ A = A_0 e^{kt} \][/tex]
[tex]\[ 800 = 1700 e^{10k} \][/tex]
Dividing both sides by 1700:
[tex]\[ \frac{800}{1700} = e^{10k} \][/tex]
[tex]\[ 0.4706 = e^{10k} \][/tex]
Taking the natural logarithm (ln) of both sides:
[tex]\[ \ln(0.4706) = \ln(e^{10k}) \][/tex]
[tex]\[ \ln(0.4706) = 10k \][/tex]
Now, we can solve for [tex]\( k \):[/tex]
[tex]\[ k = \frac{\ln(0.4706)}{10} \][/tex]
[tex]\[ k \approx \frac{-0.7558}{10} \][/tex]
[tex]\[ k \approx -0.07558 \][/tex]
Now that we have the value of [tex]\( k \)[/tex], we can use it to find when the population drops below 100. Let's denote this time as [tex]\( t_1 \)[/tex]:
[tex]\[ 100 = 1700 e^{-0.07558t_1} \][/tex]
Dividing both sides by 1700:
[tex]\[ \frac{100}{1700} = e^{-0.07558t_1} \][/tex]
[tex]\[ 0.0588 = e^{-0.07558t_1} \][/tex]
Taking the natural logarithm (ln) of both sides:
[tex]\[ \ln(0.0588) = \ln(e^{-0.07558t_1}) \][/tex]
[tex]\[ \ln(0.0588) = -0.07558t_1 \][/tex]
Now, we solve for [tex]\( t_1 \):[/tex]
[tex]\[ t_1 = \frac{\ln(0.0588)}{-0.07558} \][/tex]
[tex]\[ t_1 \approx \frac{-2.834}{-0.07558} \][/tex]
[tex]\[ t_1 \approx 37.54 \][/tex]
Since we cannot have a fraction of a year, we round up to the nearest whole year. Therefore, the population will drop below 100 approximately 38 years after the initial observation.
However, since the initial population observation was made 10 years ago, we need to add 10 years to this result to find the total time from today:
[tex]\[ 38 + 10 = 48 \][/tex]
Therefore, the population will drop below 100 approximately 48 years from today.
However, since the current time corresponds to \( t = 0 \) in the exponential model, we have to subtract 10 years from our result:
[tex]\[ 48 - 10 = 38 \][/tex]
Thus, the population will drop below 100 approximately 38 years from today.
None of the provided options match this result, so the correct answer should be "E. None of the above."
which of the following is not an interpretation that can be made from an age structure diagram
A. rate of change in population size
b. distribution of age
c. the comparative sizes of the male and female populations
d. The effect of a natural disaster on population size.
Answer:
Option C, the comparative sizes of the male and female populations
Explanation:
Demographers very frequently use age structure diagram also known as population pyramid as a tool to understand the distribution of population into two groups i.e male and female population along with details of age.
The pyramid diagram is generally of three type -
a) Progressive - growing population
b) Stagnant - stagnant population
c) Degenerative - decreasing population
Hence, option C is correct
You have been asked to lead a research team to observe gorillas in their natural environment, collect DNA samples, and analyze how gorillas from different areas differ in gene expression. Which preferable skills should your team have?
Answer:
As i am asked to lead a research team to observe gorillas in their natural environment I will prefer a team having persons expert in having knowledge of forest in which we are doing research on gorillas. They must be experience in working with gorillas and familiar with their nature.
My team should have a person who know to use the tranquilizer gun because to collect the DNA sample gorilla needs to be tranquilized. My team should have one veterinary doctor who can examine the animal and take the DNA sample.
People with Good communication skills, observation skills and critical thinking skills are required in the team to successfully complete the research.
If a person has low levels of phosphorous in his or her blood, phosphorous may be "stolen" from bones to make it available for cellular molecules. Which molecules require phosphorous as part of their structure?
Answer:
nucleic acids and phospholipids
Explanation:
Phosphorous is required to make two essential molecules in the body- the nuclei acid and the phospholipids. The nucleic acid contains carbon, hydrogen, oxygen, nitrogen, and phosphorus and is organic compounds that codes for the genetic information in an organism. There are two types of nucleic acid- ribonucleic acids and deoxyribonucleic acids, i.e RNA and DNA respectively. Both of them sugar-phosphate backbone and therefore, phosphorous is essential for the synthesis of nucleic acids in the body. Phospholipids make up the cell membrane and thus, phosphorous is also essential for their synthesis.Genetics is defined as ________.
a. the branch of biology that deals with functions such as metabolism, respiration, and reproduction, rather than with structures
b. the science of inherited traits
c. the study of behavior and mental processes
d. the study of the changes that occur in people as they age, from conception until death.
The correct answer is B. The science of inherited traits
Explanation:
Genetics refers to the field in biology that focuses on studying genes which are the basic units of heredity and therefore the ones that determine inherited traits. Indeed genetic study the way traits are passed through reproduction and also the way genes change over time or express which is closely connected to evolution. Additionally, genetics have been widely studied beginning by the works of Mendel during the 19th century and nowadays the knowledge about genes including the behavior, function, and structure of them is broad. According to this, genetics is defined as the science of inherited traits.
Genetics is defined as the science of inherited traits, focusing on the transmission and variation of these traits, which involves studying genes, their functions, and interactions, option b is correct.
Genetics is the branch of biology that deals with the transmission and variation of inherited characteristics, particularly involving chromosomes and DNA. This scientific field focuses on how traits are inherited from one generation to the next and how these traits manifest and change over time within populations and across different environments. The study of genetics encompasses genes, their functions, interactions, and the results of these processes on the physical appearance and capabilities of organisms.
Considering the options provided in the question, the correct definition of genetics is 'b. the science of inherited traits,' as it captures the essence of this biological discipline. Modern genetics builds on the foundations laid by Mendelian principles, extending into complex areas such as genomics, gene interaction, and population genetics. The field has vast implications, from understanding genetic disorders to enhancing crop yields through genetic engineering.
Which of the following is NOT found or observed to occur in both mitochondria and prokaryotes? binary fission 70S ribosomes ATP-generating mechanism circular chromosome cell wall
Answer:
Cell wall
Explanation:
The presence of a cell wall is a feature of some specific cell types. Prokaryotes such as bacteria possess the cell wall made of peptidoglycan. Cell wall makes outer most covering of their cells in these organisms.
Likewise, archaeans are also the prokaryotes that have cell walls to make the outer most covering of their cells. Among several functions, cell walls in these organisms impart them the mechanical strength and prevent the bursting of cells in a hypotonic environment.
Mitochondria are double-membrane organelles present in the cells of eukaryotes only. They are the powerhouse of these cell types and serve as a site of ATP production by the process of cellular respiration.
Mitochondria are semi-autonomous organelles and have a circular DNA. However, they do not have a cell wall around them.
The item NOT found or observed in both mitochondria and prokaryotes is the cell wall. Mitochondria lack a cell wall, whereas prokaryotic cells typically have one.
Explanation:The question asks which of the following is NOT found or observed to occur in both mitochondria and prokaryotes: binary fission, 70S ribosomes, ATP-generating mechanism, circular chromosome, cell wall. Mitochondria and prokaryotes share several similarities due to the endosymbiotic theory, which suggests that mitochondria were once free-living prokaryotes. They both undergo binary fission for replication, both have 70S ribosomes for protein synthesis, both have an ATP-generating mechanism, and both contain circular chromosome as their DNA. However, mitochondria do not have a cell wall; this structure is typical of prokaryotic cells and is not found in mitochondria.
What structural difference accounts for the functional differences between starch and cellulose?A) Starch can be digested by animal enzymes, whereas cellulose cannot.B) Starch and cellulose differ in the glycosidic linkages between their glucose monomers.C) Starch is a polymer of glucose, whereas cellulose is a polymer of fructose.
Answer:
Option (B).
Explanation:
Carbohydrates is one of the most important biomolecule that plays an important role in the living organism. Carbohydrates are made of monosaccharides sugars linked through glycosidic linkage.
Starch is made of the glucose residues in which the linear glucose residues are linked through alpha glycosidic linkages. Cellulose is the polymers of glucose linked through the beta glycosidic linkage. Hence, they are differ in the glycosidic linkage.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Final answer:
The structural difference between starch and cellulose lies in their glycosidic linkages: starch has α-1,4 and α-1,6 linkages while cellulose has β-1,4 linkages, making it indigestible to humans. The correct option is B.
Explanation:
The structural difference between starch and cellulose that accounts for their functional differences is in the type of glycosidic linkages between the glucose monomers from which they are composed. Starch is a polysaccharide that consists of glucose units connected primarily by α-1,4 glycosidic linkages and some α-1,6 linkages, which allow for branches in molecules like amylopectin. In contrast, cellulose is a polysaccharide that has β-1,4 glycosidic linkages, resulting in a linear, rigid structure that enables it to function as a structural element in plant cell walls.
The orientation of the glucose units is crucial: in starch, all the glucose rings are oriented in the same direction, whereas in cellulose, each glucose unit is flipped relative to the next, creating an alternating 'up-down' pattern that leads to the formation of strong hydrogen bonds between the chains, giving cellulose its high tensile strength.
The difference in linkages leads to differences in digestibility. Animals have enzymes that can break down the α-linkages in starch but not the β-linkages in cellulose, which is why we can derive energy from starch but not from cellulose.
You set up an experiment with yeast grown on lots of food (glucose) vs. very little glucose. Would you expect to see differences in the amount and make-up of tRNA between the two groups?
Answer:
yes
Explanation:
The RNA, is composed by the carbohydrate called ribose, that is not glucose but it is made based of the glucose.
The pentose phosphate path, is a metabolic path in which is closely related with glucolisis, the metabolic path in which glucose is turned into energy in human body.
If there is a living thing in which the environment is poor in glucose, it can produce some RNA, but not the necessary to produce the proteins that the cell need.
Final answer:
Yeast grown on high glucose is expected to have more tRNA and potentially different tRNA species compared to yeast grown on low glucose due to adjustments in metabolic activity related to nutrient availability.
Explanation:
In an experiment comparing yeast grown on high versus low glucose concentrations, one may expect to see differences in the amount and make-up of tRNA between the two groups. Yeast cells adjust their molecular machinery, including tRNA synthesis, based on nutrient availability. A growth medium with plentiful glucose would likely lead to higher metabolic activity and protein synthesis, thereby requiring increased amounts of tRNA to support the translation of mRNA into proteins. Conversely, in a low glucose environment, the cells may enter a conservation mode, slowing down metabolism and reducing the need for tRNA and protein synthesis, which could result in a noticeable decrease in the amount of tRNA.
Moreover, the makeup of individual tRNA species could differ, reflecting changes in the expression of various proteins necessitated by the nutrient conditions. For instance, certain amino acids might be in higher demand for proteins involved in glucose metabolism, which could lead to an increased abundance of tRNAs for those amino acids. These adjustments play a critical role in the carbon source adaptation that is often observed in yeast and other microorganisms when subjected to different nutrient conditions.
Departmental overhead rates are generally preferred to plant-wide overhead rates when:
a. the activities of the various departments in the plant are not homogeneous.
b. the activities of the various departments in the plant are homogeneous.
c. most of the overhead costs are fixed.
d. all departments in the plant are heavily automated.
Answer:
A.
Explanation:
Departmental overhead rates are generally preferred to plant-wide overhead rates when the activities of the various departments in the plant are not homogeneous.
Departmental overhead rates are concerned with a particular department only whereas plant wide overhead covers the whole plant which include various departments inside it.
A flat sheet of connective tissue that extends beyond the muscle fibers to attach the muscle to bone is a(n) ______. a flat sheet of connective tissue that extends beyond the muscle fibers to attach the muscle to bone is a(n) ______. raphe fascicle aponeurosis tendon
A flat sheet of connective tissue that attaches muscle to bone is called an aponeurosis.
Explanation:A flat sheet of connective tissue that extends beyond the muscle fibers to attach the muscle to bone is known as an aponeurosis. This connective tissue is similar to a tendon but it differs in being a broader, flatter structure. In skeletal muscles, when the collagen of the three tissue layers, or the mysia, does not interweave with a tendon, it may instead fuse with an aponeurosis or to the fascia. An example of an aponeurosis can be seen in the lower back where the latissimus dorsi muscles, also known as "lats", fuse into this flat, wide connective tissue to aid in movement of the skeleton.
Which of the following is part of a homeostatic control mechanism? Check all that apply.
a) Control Cener
b) Effector Stimulus
c) Stimulus Receptor
The parts of a homeostatic control mechanism include the control center, stimulus receptor, and effector.
Explanation:The parts of a homeostatic control mechanism include the control center, stimulus receptor, and effector. The control center processes information received from the receptor and initiates a response. The stimulus receptor detects changes in the internal or external environment, while the effector carries out the response to counteract the change and restore homeostasis.
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When blood glucose levels drop and glucose stored in the form of liver glycogen is needed to restore normal blood glucose levels, what enzyme is needed to release glucose locked inside the liver? (Assume the liver glycogen has been broken down into units of glucose)
Answer:
i believe the enzyme that needs to be released is called Glucokinase.
Explanation:
The enzyme involved in releasing locked glucose from liver glycogen is glycogen phosphorylase. This enzyme promotes glycogenolysis, breaking down glycogen into glucose when blood glucose levels drop. This process is primarily triggered by the hormone glucagon.
Explanation:When blood glucose levels drop, and there's a need to release glucose stored as liver glycogen, the primary enzyme involved in this process is glycogen phosphorylase. This enzyme helps promote the process known as glycogenolysis, which is the breakdown of glycogen stored in the liver (and muscles) back into glucose. This glucose is then released into the bloodstream to restore normal blood glucose levels.
Here is what happens step by step:
Glucagon, a hormone, is released from the pancreas when blood glucose levels drop.Glucagon stimulates the liver to initiate glycogenolysis by activating glycogen phosphorylase.Glycogen phosphorylase then converts glycogen into glucose 1-phosphate, which is subsequently converted into glucose 6-phosphate.Finally, glucose 6-phosphate undergoes another transformation to become glucose.This glucose is then released into the bloodstream where it can be used by the body's cells to generate energy. Therefore, the key enzyme to release glucose locked inside the liver is glycogen phosphorylase.
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1) The relationships between Earth's various systems affect everything from climate to formation of landforms. Which statement BEST describes the relationship between Earth's hydrosphere and atmosphere? A) Varied land temperature is a result of the spheres' interaction, which affects weather patterns. B) Earth's tectonic plates are affected by this relationship, which can create earthquake activity. C) The spheres' interaction affects global sea temperatures, resulting in the formation and melting of ice. D) The interaction between the spheres affects elevated landforms, and is responsible for volcano eruptions.
Answer:
C) The spheres' interaction affects global sea temperatures, resulting in the formation and melting of ice
~batmans wife dun dun dun....
Answer:
The answer is "C"
Explanation:
The best way to describe the relationship is: the spheres' interaction affects global sea temperatures, resulting in the formation and melting of ice. Changes in air temperature is a result of atmosphere and hydrosphere interactions.
Populations of amphibians, including frogs and toads, have been plagued by disease and high rates of deformity. A recent study investigated whether problems among the populations have arisen due to poisons from chemicals associated with agriculture. Biologists from the University of Florida collected local adult cane toads (Bufo marinus) from more than 20 different locations. Toads were collected from areas close to agriculture—both large-scale and small-scale farms as well as from suburbs located far from agricultural sites. At collection sites where 50–97% of the adjacent land was farmed, males showed high levels of feminization. Feminized male toads were similar in color to females and had lower levels of testosterone and often had deformed gonads. These changes can lead to sterile males or changes in behavior that prevent mating from occurring. Based on this study, what is the control group?
Alissa is a 41-year-old, married, professional woman who has just found out that she is pregnant with her third child. According to your textbook, which of the following conditions is her baby at higher risk of due to Alissa’s age?a) Down syndromeb) Phenylketonuriac) ADHDd) Von Recklinghausen disease (neurofibromatosis)
Answer:
Down syndrome.
Explanation:
Down syndrome may be defined as the medical condition that occurs due to the presence of extra chromosome at the chromosome number 21. The individual has big head, rolled finger and tongue.
The chances of Down syndrome increases as the mother's age increases. The egg of the female get arrested at diplotene stage and with the increased age of mother the phenomena like translocation and non disjunction increases at this stage.
Thus, the correct answer is option (a).
Human proteins can be produced by cells in the milk-producing mammary glands of transgenic mammals if the regulatory sequence of a milk gene is used to produce the recombinant gene. Why is it important to use the regulatory sequence of a milk gene when constructing a recombinant gene used to produce a human protein secreted in milk? The regulatory sequence controls the _____.
Answer:
The given blank can be filled with location of gene expression.
Explanation:
A regulatory sequence refers to a section of a molecule of nucleic acid that possesses the tendency of declining or upsurging the expression of particular genes within an organism. The regulation of gene expression is an important characteristic of all living species and viruses.
In the given case, it is essential to use the regulatory sequence of a milk gene when developing a recombinant gene as a regulatory sequence monitors the location of gene expression.
The regulatory sequence of a milk gene is crucial in producing recombinant human proteins in transgenic animal milk because it controls gene expression, ensuring proteins are made at correct times and in appropriate amounts. Transgenic animals like sheep and goats are often used as they can provide the necessary eukaryotic post-translational modifications not possible in bacterial expression systems.
Explanation:It is important to use the regulatory sequence of a milk gene when constructing a recombinant gene used to produce a human protein secreted in milk because the regulatory sequence controls the expression of the gene. Essentially, this means that it governs when, where, and how much of the protein is produced. The milk gene regulatory sequence is specialized to be active in the mammary glands during lactation, which ensures that the recombinant human protein is produced and secreted into the milk at the right times and in the right amounts.
Using transgenic animals, such as sheep and goats, that have been engineered to express human proteins in their milk, benefits the production of medically important proteins that may not be adequately produced in bacterial systems due to the need for eukaryotic post-translational modifications.
This biotechnological approach is not only limited to livestock but also includes other transgenic animals like mice which are used extensively for expressing and studying the effects of recombinant genes and mutations.
A group of nursing students are reviewing information about the types of shock. The students demonstrate understanding of the information when they identify which as occurring from a significantly diminished blood volume?
a) Cardiogenic-obstructive shock
b) Hypervolemic shock
c) Hypovolemic shock
d) Distributive shock
Answer:
c) Hypovolemic shock
Explanation:
Hypovolemic shock occurs when circulating blood volume is reduced due to blood loss. This blood loss can occur due to hemorrhage or loss of fluid that accompanies diarrhea, burns or vomiting. When circulating blood volume is reduced, vascular pressure is reduced and tissues do not get enough oxygen and vital nutrients (tissue hypoperfusion). As a result organ systems can fail leading to death.
Peripheral vasoconstriction and movement of fluid into plasma can increase vascular pressure and restore blood flow to critical tissues like brain, kidney and heart. Approximately 10% blood volume less can occur without reducing the vascular pressure. However if 35 to 45% of blood volume is lost, sufficient supply and pressure cant be maintained.
A client with a diagnosis of pernicious anemia comes to the clinic and reports numbness and tingling in the arms and legs. What do these symptoms indicate?
A) Loss of vibratory and position sensesB) Neurologic involvementC) Severity of the diseaseD) Insufficient intake of dietary nutrients
Answer:
The correct answer is option B) "Neurologic involvement".
Explanation:
The disease of pernicious anemia could elicit neurologic symptoms that comes from a patient that suffered myelin degeneration and loss of nerve fibers. The neurologic symptoms include numbness and tingling in the arms and legs as well as paresthesias, weakness, clumsiness, and an unsteady gait. When a patient suffers with any of these symptoms is considered that she or he has pernicious anemia with a neurologic involvement.
Which is NOT true about the chromosomes of a multicellular organism?
a. They are made up of DNA and protein.
b. Each chromosome is replicated into two chromatids during the S phase of interphase.
c. Each chromosome separates into two daughter chromosomes by binary fission.
d. All cells contain chromosomes that carry the same genetic information.
What other organisms do you think would have different homeostasis mechanisms from humans? Why would this be an advantage in their environment?
One example of an organism with different Homeostasis mechanisms from humans is salt water fish who possess specialized cells to remove the excess salt from their bodies.
Homeostasis refers to an organism's ability to regulate functions necessary to sustain life. Some examples of this in humans are:
Sweating to expel excess heatBlood-glucose regulationThese are examples in humans that help us to stay alive in arid environments or regulate the sugar in our bodies. Fish and other underwater organisms consume the same water that they swim in to survive. For those organisms that live in salt water environments, the salt found in the water they consume can be dangerous in large concentrations.
To avoid this, salt water fish have developed specialized cells to release the excess salt from their bodies. This mechanism is different from anything humans possess.
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Organisms develop different homeostasis mechanisms to adapt to their specific environments, such as insulation in polar bears for cold climates or heat dissipation adaptations in desert animals. Extremophiles survive in extreme conditions with unique cellular structures, and all organisms use feedback mechanisms to maintain homeostasis.
Explanation:Organisms living in different environments possess unique homeostasis mechanisms to maintain stable internal conditions. For example, organisms in cold climates, such as the polar bear, have evolved insulating adaptations like fur and blubber. Their ability to conserve body heat provides a significant advantage in their harsh, frigid habitats. In contrast, organisms in hot climates, such as desert animals, have developed mechanisms to dissipate excess body heat through behaviors like panting or physical adaptations such as large ears for heat radiation.
Extremophiles, a type of organism that thrives in extreme conditions, are another example of different homeostatic adaptations. Certain bacteria can survive high temperatures in environments such as hot springs due to specialized proteins and cellular structures. This adaptation not only allows their survival but also reduces competition as few organisms can live under such extreme conditions.
Feedback mechanisms are crucial for all organisms to regulate processes such as growth, reproduction, and homeostasis. A common example in humans is the sweating mechanism that activates during overheating. In essence, every organism has different strategies to cope with environmental stressors that significantly increase their chances of survival.
Which of the following is one of the basic principles of social stratification?
a. Low-level groups often have basic access to the rewards and privileges of higher-level groups.
b. It is maintained through beliefs that are widely shared in a society.
c. All societies stratify according to wealth accumulation.
d. Families’ social positions start anew with each new generation.
Answer:
The correct answer is option b. "It is maintained through beliefs that are widely shared in a society".
Explanation:
Social stratification is a people's differentiation according to its socioeconomic strata, directly affected by its wealth and social status. One of the principles of social stratification is that it is maintained through beliefs that are widely shared in a society. The existence of the different strata is maintained by people's believing in them, as people is rise with the idea of its existence and this idea is passed from generation to generation.
The principle of social stratification which supports that it is maintained by widely shared beliefs in a society is correct. So, option b is correct.
Explanation:The basic principles of social stratification involve a society's categorization of its people into rankings of socioeconomic tiers. From the options provided, the choice that accurately represents one of these principles is: 'It is maintained through beliefs that are widely shared in a society'. This means that social stratification is supported by belief systems that are generally accepted within a society, forming a social structure in line with these beliefs.
For instance, the tradition of a cast system, which was prominent in India, is sustained by the widely accepted belief in religious and social hierarchies. These belief systems are the pillars for social stratification, promoting inequality or differences among levels of society.
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Which rock feature is the line running between points A and B most likely to be?
(I accidentally clicked C.)
Answer:
Option (D)
Explanation:
A fault is generally defined as the planar or curved fracture that results in the displacement of the rocks on either side of the fault because of the compressional or tensional stress. It is comprised of 2 blocks. The block that is present above the fault is termed as the Hanging-wall, and the block that is below the fault is termed as the Foot-wall. These blocks undergoes changes with the the type of stress that act on it.
This faults are mainly of 3 types, namely-
(1) Normal fault
(2) Reverse fault
(3) Transform fault
Hence, the correct answer is option (D).
Two components are common to all four DNA nucleotides, and one component differs. Drag each of the following terms to the appropriate column to indicate whether that item is commonly found in all DNA nucleotides or only in specific DNA nucleotides.-phosphate-deoxyribose sugar-thymine-cytosine-adenine-guanine
In DNA nucleotides, the phosphate and deoxyribose sugar are common components, while the nitrogenous base (adenine, thymine, cytosine, or guanine) is the varying component.
Explanation:In the structure of DNA, there are four types of nucleotides, each composed of three components: a phosphate group, a deoxyribose sugar, and a nitrogenous base.
Two of these components - the phosphate and deoxyribose sugar - are common to all four DNA nucleotides. The component that differs across the four DNA nucleotides is the nitrogenous base, which can be either adenine (A), thymine (T), cytosine (C), or guanine (G).
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Phosphate and deoxyribose sugar are common to all DNA nucleotides. Adenine, guanine, cytosine, and thymine are the parts that vary across different nucleotides in DNA. The presence of these bases determines the unique identity and pairing of each nucleotide.
Explanation:The two components common to all four DNA nucleotides are phosphate and deoxyribose sugar. These components are part of the structure of every nucleotide, whether in DNA or RNA. The nitrogenous base is what varies between different nucleotides. In DNA, these bases are adenine (A), guanine (G), cytosine (C), and thymine (T). Adenine and guanine are classified as double-ringed purines, while cytosine and thymine are single-ringed pyrimidines. The specific nitrogenous base present gives the nucleotide its unique identity and determines its pairing in the DNA structure.
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