Answer:
Option C
Explanation:
Given the annual per capita birth rate is [tex]0.8[/tex]
Annual per capita death rate is [tex]0.8[/tex]
Net per capita growth or reduction in the population will be equal to the difference between the birth rate and death rate.
Hence, net per capita increase in the population is equal to
[tex]0.8 -0.5\\=0.3[/tex]
Thus, the total number of individuals added to the population of 1000 is equal to
[tex]0.3 * 1000\\= 300[/tex]
Hence, option C is correct
Mutations in the Pax6 gene causes developmental defects in the eyes of flies, mice, and humans. This suggests that:
a. Pax6 has been evolutionarily conserved.
b. Pax6 activates multiple genes.
c. Pax6 may be a master regulator of eye development.
d. All of these choices are correct.
Answer: All of these choices are correct.
Explanation:
Paired box 6 also known as Pax6 is an evolutionarily conserved transcription factor that plays a major role in the development of the vertebrate eye and the central nervous system. Mutations in mammalian Pax6 are characterized by eye defects, e.g (congenital cataracts, as well as Central Nervous System disorders like microcephaly, dysgenesis, neuron to glia transformations, etc.) Many studies have demonstrated the importance of Pax6 to vertebrate cell differentiation, proliferation, patterning. etc
Pax6 have the tendency to activate multiple genes. For example, if two fly Pax6 genes, eyeless (ey) and twin of eyeless (toy), (initiate eye specification), and, eyegone (eyg) and the Notch (N) pathway, (independently regulate cell proliferation). Pax6 have the tendency to controls eye progenitor cell survival and proliferation through the activation of eyegone (eyg) , thereby indicating that Pax6 initiates both eye specification and proliferation.
Also, Pax6 is considered to be the master control gene for eye development in all seeing animals. In vertebrates, it is required not only for lens/retina formation but also for the development of the central nervous system.
It is important to remember that behind every hypothesis statement, there are assumptions, knowledge, and theories. When developing their hypothesis, McCarthy and her colleagues started by considering the chemical equation for photosynthesis.
6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy → C6H12O6 +6O2
Carbon dioxide + Water + Sunlight → Carbohydrate + Oxygen
As photosynthesis occurs, the reactants and energy on the left are used, generating the products on the right. A plant with access to more reactants can grow more than a plant with access to fewer reactants.
Suppose you are able to manipulate a plant's access to components in the photosynthesis equation. Drag each label to the appropriate bin to predict how that action will affect plant growth. For each increase or decrease, assume that every other component of the photosynthesis equation is unlimited.
Answer:
The correct answer is -
Decrease plant growth - decrease sunlight, decrease CO2, decrease H2O
NO effect - increase O2, decrease O2, increase C6H12O6, decrease C6H12O6
Increase plant growth - increase CO2, increase sunlight, increase H2O
Explanation:
Decrease in exposure of sunlight to the plant or less intense light will affect the production of oxygen and glucose negatively which affect the growth of the plant. Decrease CO2 will be affect the growth of the plant similarly as light and water molecules which is decreased in plant growth.
Increase in the in production of the products which are 02, glucose, will have no effect in plant growth though increase in the carbon dioxide, water, and sunlight will positively affect plant growth.
Thus, the correct answer is - decrease plant growth - decrease sunlight, decrease CO2, decrease H2O
no effect - increase O2, decrease O2, increase C6H12O6, decrease C6H12O6
increase plant growth - increase CO2, increase sunlight, increase H2O
Final answer:
The process of photosynthesis relies on sunlight, carbon dioxide, and water to produce glucose and oxygen, affecting plant growth. Altering the availability of any reactant in this equation will impact the plant's ability to produce glucose and thus its growth.
Explanation:
The process of photosynthesis is fundamental to plant growth as it utilizes sunlight, carbon dioxide (CO2), and water (H2O) to produce glucose and oxygen (O2). The overall reaction is summarized as 6CO2 + 6H2O + Energy ightarrow C6H12O6 + 6O2. In an experimental setting, manipulating the availability of these reactants would logically affect plant growth.
For instance, increasing the amount of CO2 and light energy available to a plant, while keeping water as a non-limiting factor, should theoretically promote more glucose production and hence boost plant growth. Conversely, a decrease in the availability of any one of the reactants will likely hinder the plant's ability to synthesise glucose, thus impairing its growth.
If organisms A, B, and C belong to the same class but to different orders and if organisms D, E, and F belong to the same order but to different families, which of the following pairs of organisms would be
expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology?
a. A and B
b. A and C
c. B and D
d. C and F
e. D and F
The greatest degree of structural homology is expected to be found between organisms D and F as they belong to the same order but different families. Higher order taxonomic ranks such as class represent a wider range of organisms, so similar rank organisms from different orders are likely to show less homology.
Explanation:In the biological classification of organisms, the 'Class' is a higher taxonomic rank than 'Order', which is higher than 'Family'. Organisms in the same class can be quite diverse, whereas organisms within the same order tend to have more similarities. Hence organisms belonging to the same order but in different families (D, E, F) would exhibit a greater degree of structural homology than organisms that belong to the same class but in different orders (A,B,C). So, the pair showing the greatest degree of structural homology would be D and F as they belong to the same order but to different families.
Learn more about Taxonomic Rank here:https://brainly.com/question/31964166
#SPJ11
Organisms A and B would be expected to show the greatest degree of structural homology. The correct option is a. A and B
Organisms A and B belong to the same class but different orders, indicating a closer taxonomic relationship compared to the other options. Structural homology refers to similarities in anatomical structures due to shared evolutionary ancestry.
Since organisms within the same class share more recent common ancestors than those in different classes, A and B are more likely to exhibit greater structural homology in terms of anatomical features compared to the other pairs listed.
Modern humans have a number of anatomical characteristics that distinguish them from archaic humans. Drag only the correct modern human characteristics to the modern human skull. You will not use all the labels.
Answer:
Modern human are called as Homo sapiens.
Explanation: Following are the characteristics of the modern human skull-
i) They have projecting nose bone and comparatively small face.
ii) Eye sockets are square in shape.
iii) the neck muscles are reduced.
iv)The skull is round at the back.
v) Their cranial capacity is 1350 cc. Earlier they had a cranial capacity of 1500 cc.
vi) There has no narrow constriction behind the orbits.
What can be interpreted about type 2 diabetes mellitus in monozygotic twins when it affects only one twin 70% of the time and affects both twins 30% of the time? a. The trait is recessive. b. Homologous genes can undergo chromatid exchanges. c. Nongenetic factors can influence expression. d. Mutation repair is incompletely penetrant.
Answer:
The correct option is C. Non-genetic factors can influence expression.
Explanation:
Non- genetic factors can be described as factors other than genetic makeup. These factors include environmental factors and factors arising from the lifestyle of an organism.
Certain studies have shown that both the genetic as well as the non- genetic factors play a role in the development of certain characteristics.
In the above-mentioned scenario, both the monozygotic twins have diabetes but one of them is affected 70% of the time due to his lifestyle. The person might be consuming more sugars and alcohol.
Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space. true or false
Answer:
True
Explanation:
CSF is produced by choroid plexus. It starts flowing from the lateral ventricles and move towards the fourth ventricle via the third ventricle. It then moves towards the subarachnoid space which is the region surrounding the brain and spinal cord. From the brain and spinal cord, CSF is absorbed through the blood vessels and passed into the bloodstream again. It then moves to the kidney and liver for filtration.
Hence, give statement is true
Yes, it's true that Cerebrospinal fluid circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space. These areas are part of the central nervous system and the fluid provides crucial protection.
Explanation:The statement provided is true. Cerebrospinal fluid, also known simply as CSF, indeed circulates within the ventricles of the brain and in the subarachnoid space. These are two key areas in the central nervous system. The ventricles of the brain are a connected network of cavities filled with CSF. The subarachnoid space, on the other hand, is the area between the arachnoid mater and the pia mater, also filled with CSF, which serves to provide protection to the brain and spinal cord from injury.
Learn more about Cerebrospinal fluid here:https://brainly.com/question/16442312
#SPJ6
While observing a new client perform the pushing assessment, the personal trainer notices that his head protrudes forward. Which of the following groups of muscles are probably overactive?
A. middle trapezius
B. erector spinae
C. rhomboids
D. levator scapulae
Answer:
The correct answer is D. levator scapulae.
Explanation:
The levator scapulae is the muscle involved in the scapula lifting, as it's located on the sides and back of the neck. As the person's head is protruding forward it's highly possible that the muscle involved is the levator scapulae.
The following are directly needed for protein synthesis EXCEPT rRNA.a.peptidyl tRNA.b.mRNA.c.amino acyl tRNA.d.DNA
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D
Explanation:
The process of protein synthesis from DNA takes place through a process known as the translation which translates the mRNA to the amino acid sequence. The process of translation involves three different types of RNA mainly mRNA, rRNA and tRNA.
The rRNA forms the structural component of the ribosomes which acts as a site for the translation. The mRNA is read by the ribosomal subunits which utilize the aminoacyl tRNA used to attach the amino acids corresponding to the codons. The peptidyl tRNA interferes with the process of the protein elongation.
Thus, option-D is the correct answer.
Ceruminous glands are ________. Ceruminous glands are ________. saliva glands found at the base of the tongue modified taste buds modified apocrine sweat glands glands found in the lateral corners of your eye
Answer:
Modified apocrine sweat glands
Explanation:
The ceruminous glands are similar to sebaceous glands, belonging to the group of sweat glands. These glands secrete a sticky material, the ear wax, that protects the thin skin lining the ear canal.
As soon as a dust, dirt or an insect enters the ear canal at the beginning of the ear wax, the wax retains, wraps and pushes it outside the ear canal.
This secretion is lubricating as well as acidic, which helps to kill potentially harmful bacteria and fungi in the ears.
In bacterial cells, the replication of DNA begins at a specific site called the ____ of replication, and proceeds in both direction around the circular DNA until a specific _______ site is reached
In bacteria, replication of DNA starts at a specific site called the origin of replication (oriC) and proceeds in both directions in the circular DNA until a specific termination site is reached.
What is DNA replication?DNA replication is the biological process of producing two identical replicas of DNA from single original DNA molecule. This process of DNA replication requires a machinery which is assembled on the original DNA molecule.
In bacteria, the DNA replication machinery is assembled at the single origin of replication site in a characteristic location. The origin of replication (oriC) is a particular sequence in a genome at which replication is initiated in bacteria.
Bacterial chromosomes have a single, unique replication oriC sequences.
DNA replication in the circular DNA of bacteria proceeds until a specific site called termination site is reached. The termination is of two types: Intrinsic termination and Rho-dependent termination.
Learn more about DNA replication here:
https://brainly.com/question/16464230
#SPJ2
Consuming alcohol inhibits the release of ADH. As a result __________.
a.urine volume will increase.
b.there will be more aquaporins in the membrane of cells from the distal convoluted tubule.
c.obligatory water reabsorption will decrease.d.urine is more concentrated.
a. urine volume will increase .
HOPE THIS HELPFUL
Consuming alcohol inhibits the release of ADH. As a result urine volume will increase. Thus, option A is correct.
What is Antidiuretic hormone?Antidiuretic hormone is the major hormone that regulates the amount of water in the body which is based on electrolyte balance. The high-salt diet will increase the electrolyte concentration in the blood hence ADH hormone will increase to enable increased re-absorption of water in the kidneys.
This is achieved by increasing aquaporin 2 channels in the distal tubule and collecting tubes of the nephrons that are responsible for water reabsorption. ADH acts in conjunction with aldosterone that regulates the concentration of sodium ions in the blood.
The excretory system is well known to have a transitional epithelium required to regulate the amount and frequency of urine. Transitional epithelium is a type of stratified epithelium that has different shapes (cuboidal, squamous) depending on its relaxed state.
Therefore, Consuming alcohol inhibits the release of ADH. As a result urine volume will increase. Thus, option A is correct.
Learn more about alcohol on:
https://brainly.com/question/4698220
#SPJ6
The hypothalamus is the area where afferent impulses from all senses and all parts of the body are sorted out and then relayed to the appropriate area of the sensory cortex.A.TrueB. False
Answer:
False
Explanation:
Hypothalamus is responsible for performing vital functions such as regulating the release of hormones and body temperature, controlling the appetite and sexual behaviour and also manages the emotional responses and thus is an essential part of the brain.
Structurally it has three main parts and all the three parts have individual nuclei whose major function is to release hormone which then interact with pituitary gland and modulate release of further more hormones. It has no role in receiving the impulses from different parts of the body and then sending it to relevant section of the sensory cortex
Hence, the given statement is false
how do the nervous system and endocrine system work together
Answer:
the endocrine system and the nervous system are the two major regulating and communicating systems of the body. During rest and exercise, the nervous system along with endocrine system regulate the body mechanism to initiate the maintenance of Homeostasis in the body.
both endocrine and nervous system are both together involved in the transmission of chemicals signals which are important for physiological processes in the body . The difference is that endocrine system uses Hormones while nervous system uses neurotransmitters for chemical signalling.
The main area of the brain where these system work together and perform their function collectively is Hypothalamus where they signal each other when they receive proper stimulus.
Answer:
Nerves tell glands when to release chemicals.
Explanation:
A P E X
The concentration of ions in the chemical environment surrounding the neurons must be tightly regulated for neurons to function properly. Which of the following cells is most responsible for this?
A) satellite cells
B) astrocytes
C) Schwann cells
D) oligodendrocytes
Answer:
Astrocytes.
Explanation:
Astrocytes are the star shaped cells that are present in the brain and spinal cord. The exact constitution of astrocytes in the brain is not known and almost 20% to 40% astrocytes are present in brain.
The astrocytes acts as the blood brain barrier and involved in the process of brain scarring. Astrocytes also regulate ions concentration by propagating the calcium ion channels in response to the stimulus. Astrocytes also generate a response by the calcium dependent release of glutamate.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
A bacterial cell that is resistant to a particular antibiotic may spend a large amount of energy, producing the modified proteins that are needed for resistance. In such a case, what would be the effect on this cell's fitness if no antibiotic was present?
Answer:
Its fitness would lower.
Explanation:
An organism has an optimal fitness when the organisms spend their energy in performing tasks that are most appropriate to survive in the given environment.Organisms that possess the traits that are best suited to survive in a given condition is termed to be the fittest in that particular environment. In the given situation the fitness of the bacteria would be lower than other strains that lack resistance because it is spending energy that the resistant strains can use for other purposes, such as reproduction this is because even though the bacteria are resistant to a particular antibiotic there is no point of producing those resistant proteins if the antibiotic is absent in the surroundings and hence, this is not the best trait it be possessed.How is food transferred in flatworms without a circulatory system?
Answer:
By diffusion
Explanation:
Flatworms are acoelomates, that is, they do not have coeloms or body cavities. This results in a flattened body that is devoid of circulatory or respiratory organs.
The flattened body enables easy diffusion of much needed nutrients and oxygen from their surroundings into their bodies. Excretory products within the body are removed by diffusing the other way round.
Each of the following phrases describes the structure, function, or regulation of either the hypothalamus, posterior pituitary, or anterior pituitary.
Sort the phrases into the appropriate bins depending on whether they describe the hypothalamus, posterior pituitary gland, or anterior pituitary gland.
A) Releases oxytocin
B) Synthesizes and releases PRL
C) Synthesizes and releases TSH
D) Synthesizes some hormones that are released into blood vessels bound for another gland
E) Regulated by hormones released into portal blood vessels
F) Is an extension of the Hypothalamus
G) Synthesizes oxytocin and ADH
H) Integrates nervous and endocrine systems
F) Is an extension of the Hypothalamus
H) Integrates nervous and endocrine systems
D) Synthesizes some hormones that are released into blood vessels bound for another gland
E) Regulated by hormones released into portal blood vessels
Posterior Pituitary:G) Synthesizes oxytocin and ADH
A) Releases oxytocin
Anterior Pituitary:C) Synthesizes and releases TSH
B) Synthesizes and releases PRL
An outgrowth of the brain, the hypothalamus combines the functions of the neurological and endocrine systems, producing hormones and controlling their entry into portal blood arteries. It interacts with the posterior pituitary, which is responsible for the synthesis and release of oxytocin and ADH.
Hormones such as TSH and PRL are produced by the anterior pituitary and released into the bloodstream under the direction of the hypothalamus. The hypothalamus also produces hormones that are directed toward other glands. Intricate synchronization between the pituitary and hypothalamic glands constitutes a pivotal pathway in regulating diverse physiological functions within the body.
Interneurons receiving input from sensory neurons are located in the ________.
Answer:
Dorsal horn
Explanation:
The sensory neurons cell bodies are present in dorsal horns. The front side of spinal cord consist of two arms of it. The ventral horn is the centrally located grey matter with motor neurons cell bodies.
The dorsal horns are located at each spinal cord levels that are four in number. The sensory nuclei is present in dorsal horns that perceive somatosensory information. The information is then transferred to midbrain and diencephalon. Thus, Interneurons receiving input from sensory neurons are located in the dorsal horn.
Cell signaling involves converting extracellular signals to specific responses inside the target cell. Different molecules are involved at each stage of the process. In this activity, you will sort items based on which stage they are involved in: reception, transduction, or response.
1. G protein-coupled receptor
2. Phosphorylation Cascade
3. Signaling Molecule
4. Protein Synthesis
5. Receptor Tyrosine Kinase
6. Second Messenger
7. IP₃, Ca²⁺, cAMP
8. Adenylyl Cyclase
1. G protein-coupled receptor. Reception. G-protein-coupled receptors mediate most of our physiological responses to hormones, neurotransmitters and environmental stimulants.
2. Phosphorylation Cascade. Transduction. Phosphorylation cascade is a process of cellular transduction by which a chemical signal is transmitted through a series of phophorylations.
3. Signaling Molecule. Reception. Cells communicate between them through signaling molecules. These molecules are proteins or other molecules produced by one cell and send through the extracellular space.
4. Protein Synthesis. Transduction. A protein synthesized by ribosome is the response after the reception and transduction.
5. Receptor Tyrosine Kinase. Reception. Receptor Tyrosine Kinase are receptors who has highly affinity by polypeptide growth factors, cytokines, and hormones. The receptor produce the phosphorylation of Tyrosine when it's stimulated.
6. Second Messenger. Transduction. Second messengers are intracellular signaling molecules who are released inside the cell when a first messenger is released.
7. IP₃, Ca²⁺, cAMP. Transduction. Those are second messengers.
8. Adenylyl Cyclase. Transduction. Adenylyl Cyclase is a enzyymes which catalyzes the ciclization of ATP inside the cells.
Net primary production is: Group of answer choices the same thing as gross primary production. gross primary production plus chemosynthesis. gross primary production plus autotrophic respiration. gross primary production minus au
Answer:
Gross primary production - autotrophic respiration.
Explanation:
Primary production may be defined as the process of formation of organic compound from the photosynthesis. The plants are known as producers in the ecosystem.
More than 90% of the energy is lost from the one trophic level to the next trophic level. The net primary productivity can be calculated by the groos primary productivity produced by the plant minus the productivity lost during the process of respiration of plants.
Thus, the correct answer is option (4)
Net primary productivity refers to the total energy that remains after accounting for the energy consumed by primary producers for growth and reproduction. This energy is what is available for primary consumers at the next trophic level in an ecosystem.
Explanation:Net primary productivity refers to the energy that remains after accounting for the energy consumed for processes like growth and reproduction by primary producers like plants, algae, and photosynthetic bacteria. These entities, known as photoautotrophs, incorporate energy from the sun in a process known as gross primary productivity. However, not all this energy is available for organisms at the higher trophic levels. The primary consumers at the next trophic level can only utilize the energy remaining, which is referred to as the net primary productivity.
The calculation of net primary productivity is done by subtracting the energy utilized for cellular respiration from the gross primary productivity. This measures the net energy accumulation within an ecosystem, thus being a crucial element in the study of energy flow within ecosystems.
Learn more about Net Primary Productivity here:https://brainly.com/question/9940522
#SPJ12
Gene expression in all organisms depends on protein synthesis. What is the last stage in protein synthesis
Answer: protein translocation
Explanation:
Protein translocation: Termination of protein synthesis takes place at this stage which leads to the release of completed and fully synthesized proteins into cytoplasm. These proteins are then targeted to different sites for functioning by specific type of mechanisms.
Attached earlobes are recessive to free earlobes. What genotypic ratio is expected when an individual with attached earlobes mates with an individual heterozygous for free earlobes?
a) 2:1
b) 3:1
c) 1:1
d) 1:2:1
Answer:
C
Explanation:
This is a monohybrid cross between involving a gene coding for earlobe. The allele for free earlobe (F) is dominant over that of attached earlobe (f).
N.B: let F represent the gene involved.
A genotypic ratio is the ratio derived from the offsprings based on the actual genetic make-up and not based on their phenotypic appearance as in phenotypic ratio.
A homozygous individual is an individual having the same kind of alleles for a gene while a heterozygous individual is one that has two different alleles i.e. combination of the dominant and recessive allele.
The monohybrid cross is between an individual with attached earlobe (ff) i.e. homozygous recessive individual. (Note that, a recessive trait will only be expressed in a homozygous state) and a heterozygous free earlobeb individual (Ff). (See attached picture). Ff × ff
The resulting four offsprings will
be expected to have only two distinct genotypes i.e heterozygous (Ff) and homozygous recessive (ff) in an equal ratio i.e. 2:2 ~ 1:1
In mating between an individual with attached earlobes and one heterozygous for free earlobes, the expected genotypic ratio for their offspring is 1:1, representing an equal occurrence of heterozygous and homozygous recessive genotypes.
Explanation:When an individual with attached earlobes (which is a recessive trait, aa) mates with an individual who is heterozygous for free earlobes (Aa), the possible genotypes of the offspring can be determined by a Punnett square. The heterozygous individual (Aa) can contribute either the dominant allele (A) or the recessive allele (a), and the individual with attached earlobes can only contribute the recessive allele (a).
A Punnett square matching these contributions results in offspring that are 50% heterozygous (Aa) and possess free earlobes and 50% homozygous recessive (aa) and possess attached earlobes. Therefore, the genotypic ratio expected is 1:1.
Which protective covering of the brain provides passageways for cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) to drain into the superior sagittal sinus? a) arachnoid mater b) periosteal part of the dura mater c) membranous part of the dura mater d) pia mater.
Answer:
arachnoid mater
Explanation:
CSF is gradually reabsorbed into the blood at the same rate at which it is formed to maintain the constant pressure. The arachnoid mater has finger-like extensions that project into the dural venous sinuses, especially the superior sagittal sinus. The projections of arachnoid mater are called arachnoid villi and a group of arachnoid villi is called an arachnoid granulation. Arachnoid villi are the structures through which cerebrospinal fluid is drained into the superior sagittal sinus and is reabsorbed into the bloodstream.
Answer:
The answer is A
Explanation:
Arachnoid mater
Invertebrates:
a) are not a monophyletic group.
b) are animals without a backbone.
c) have more species than vertebrates.
d) All of the above. include arthropods, mollusks, and flatworms, among others.
The bulldog ant has a diploid number of two chromosomes. Therefore, following meiosis, each daughter cell will have a single chromosome. In addition to mutations, how might genetic diversity be generated in this species?
Answer:
crossing over and random fertilization
Explanation:
The bulldog ant can generate genetic diversity beyond mutations through meiotic recombination and the random assortment of chromosomes during meiosis.
The bulldog ant has a diploid number of two chromosomes, meaning that following meiosis, each daughter cell will have a single chromosome. Genetic diversity in this species, beyond mutations, can be generated through meiotic recombination and the random assortment of chromosomes during meiosis.
During meiosis, homologous chromosomes pair up and can undergo crossover, which is the exchange of genetic segments between non-sister chromatids. This recombination results in new combinations of alleles, which increases genetic variation. Additionally, the random orientation of chromosomes during meiosis I leads to different combinations of chromosomes being distributed to the daughter cells, further contributing to genetic diversity.
The fusion of two haploid gametes from different bulldog ants restores the diploid number in the offspring, ensuring a new and unique genetic makeup different from both parents. As such, even with a low chromosome number, the species maintains genetic diversity through these mechanisms.
What type of microscope would be best for studying the structures found inside of cells?
A Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM) is best for studying the structures found inside of cells because it offers high resolution. A Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) is better for studying the surface of cells.
Explanation:The type of microscope best suitable for studying the structures found inside of cells is a Transmission Electron Microscope (TEM). This is because a TEM uses a high-energy electron beam to illuminate the sample, resulting in much higher resolution than light microscopes. With a resolution of less than 0.5 nanometer, the TEM allows for the visualization of structures inside the cell such as organelles, protein complexes and even individual molecules to be viewed in detail.
A Scanning Electron Microscope (SEM) can also be used, but it is best for studying the surface of cells rather than internal structures. For example, SEM can be used to study the texture and shape of the cell membrane.
Learn more about Microscope Types here:https://brainly.com/question/35353790
#SPJ12
In cocker spaniels, black coat color (B) is dominant over red (b), and solid color (S) is dominant over spotted (s).
(a) If a red solid male was crossed with a black solid female to produce a red spotted puppy, the genotypes of the parent (with male genotype first) would be?
(b) If red spotted male was crossed with a black solid female and all the offspring from several crosses, expressed only the dominant traits, the genotype of the female would be?
Answer:
a) male : bbSs , female : BbSs
b) BBSS
Explanation:
a) Male is red and solid so it can either have bbSS genotype or bbSs genotype. The puppy is spotted though (ss) which means it got one recessive s allele from male parent. Hence, male's genotype will be bbSs.
Female is black and solid. Both of these are dominant traits so she can either be homozygous for both, heterozygous for one or heterozygous for both. Since the puppy is red and spotted (bbss) it got recessive alleles b and s for both the genes from female parent too. Hence, female has genotype BbSs.
b) Black solid female can either be homozygous for both traits, heterozygous for one or heterozygous for both. She mated with a red spotted male (bbss). All the offspring will express only dominant traits when the female has dominant homozygous genotype for both traits.
BBSS X bbss :
BS
bs BbSs
As evident, resultant progeny has BbSs genotype which means all of them will be only black and solid. Hence, genotype of female would be BBSS.
Final answer:
The genotypes for the red solid male and black solid female parents are bbS- and Bb(S)(S) respectively, where the female could be SS or Ss for the solid trait. For subsequent crosses where a red spotted male (bbss) produces offspring with a black solid female showing only dominant traits, the female must be homozygous dominant, with a genotype of BBSS.
Explanation:
Genotypes of Parent Cocker Spaniels
To determine the genotypes of the parent cocker spaniels, we must consider the inheritance of coat color and patterning. Since black coat color (B) is dominant over red (b), and solid color (S) is dominant over spotted (s), the fact that they produced a red spotted puppy means certain things about their genotypes:
The red solid male must be homozygous recessive for coat color (bb) because he expresses the red phenotype. For his solid patterning, he must have at least one solid allele (S-).The black solid female must have one copy of the red allele (Bb) since she was able to pass it to the red spotted offspring. Being solid, she could either be homozygous (SS) or heterozygous for the solid trait (Ss).Therefore, the male's genotype must be bbS-, and the female's could be BbSS or BbSs.Genotype of Female for Subsequent Crosses
Concerning the second cross: A red spotted male (genotype bbss) when crossed with a black solid female resulted in all offspring expressing only the dominant traits. This means that the female must be homozygous for both dominant traits to avoid the expression of any recessive characteristics in any of the offspring:
Therefore, the black solid female would have to be BBSS in genotype.Under ideal conditions each NADH molecule will result in three ATP molecules, and each FADH2 molecule will result in two ATP molecules during oxidative phosphorylation. Calculate the total number of ATP molecules that might be produced in this phase of cellular respiration from one glucose molecule.
Answer: 38ATP
Explanation:
In the glycolytic pathway, metabolism of one molecule of glucose will produce
Step 1. 1 ATP loss= -1ATP
Step 2. 1 ATP loss= -1ATP
Step 5. 2 NADH gain = 3*2=6ATP
Step 6. 2 ATP gain = 1*2=2ATP
Step 9. 2 ATP gain= 1*2=2ATP
Pyruvate to acetyl CoA. 2 NADH gain =3*2=6ATP
TCA Cylce
Step 3. 2 NADH gain=3*2=6ATP
Step 4. 2 NADH gain=3*2=6ATP
Step 5. 2 GTP gain=1*2=2ATP
Step 6. 2 FADH2 gain=2*2=4ATP
Step 8. 2 NADH gain=3*2=6ATP
Net ATP gain in glycolysis 10-2=8ATP
Pyruvate DH reaction = 6 ATP
TCA =24
Net ATP generated from one molecule of glucose =38 ATP
The aerobic respiration of one glucose molecule, involving glycolysis, the transition reaction, and the Krebs cycle followed by oxidative phosphorylation, could theoretically produce a total of 34 ATP molecules (30 from NADH and 4 from FADH2). However, actual ATP production may vary due to energy used in transporting intermediates into the mitochondria.
Explanation:The process of oxidative phosphorylation in cellular respiration involves the production of ATP molecules from NADH and FADH2. Under ideal conditions, each NADH molecule generates three ATP molecules while each FADH2 molecule contributes to the production of two ATP molecules.
For a single glucose molecule, the process of glycolysis, followed by the transition reaction and the Krebs cycle, generates 10 NADH molecules and 2 FADH2 molecules. These electron carriers then contribute to ATP synthesis during oxidative phosphorylation. The 10 NADH molecules could theoretically produce 30 ATP molecules (10 NADH x 3 ATP/NADH), while the 2 FADH2 molecules contribute to the generation of 4 ATP molecules (2 FADH2 x 2 ATP/FADH2). Hence, a total of 34 ATP molecules can be produced from one glucose molecule through oxidative phosphorylation under ideal conditions.
However, this is a theoretical maximum, and the actual ATP production may vary due to certain inefficiencies, including the use of energy for the transport of intermediates from the cytoplasm into the mitochondria.
Learn more about Oxidative Phosphorylation here:https://brainly.com/question/29104155
#SPJ3
After transcription occurs, an mRNA transcript enters the cytoplasm. A short section in the middle of the transcript has the following codon sequence: GUCCCUGGG. What is the sequence of amino acids that would be translated from this section of the mRNA transcript?
Choose one:
A. CAGGGACCC
B. Gln-Gly-Pro
C. Leu-Ala-Asp
D. Val-Pro-Gly
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-D
Explanation:
The process of protein synthesis is known as translation which translates the sequence of mRNA into proteins. This takes place in the ribosome in every organism where the tRNA brings the amino acids corresponding the triplet of the nitrogenous base the tRNA reads in the mRNA.
The triplet of the nitrogenous bases which codes for the specific amino acid is known as a codon. Each codons code for a specific amino acid which brought by the tRNA gets attached to the nascent peptide via peptide bonds.
Since GUC codes for Valine, CCU codes for proline and GGG codes for glycine, therefore, valine-proline-glycine is the correct answer.
Choose which adaptation allows the trees in this forest to grow so much taller than the mosses found covering the rocks and forest floor.
HighLighter PopupUnderline Selected TextGreen Color HighlightOrange Color HighlightYellow Color HighlightBlue Color HighlightPink Color HighlightRemove Color Highlight
A.
Embryo formation
B.
Vascular tissue
C.
Seeds
D.
Flowers
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-B
Explanation:
Forest moss species mostly belong to the plant group called Bryophytes which represent a group of plants with no vascular system and no flowers. Bryophytes represent the primitive group in the history of the evolution of the plants.
The long green trees belong to higher groups of plant kingdom called gymnosperms and angiosperms which is advanced due to the presence of the vascular tissues.
Since the trees posses vascular tissues which help them absorb and conduct water and minerals from the soil which is absent in the mosses therefore, Option-B is the correct answer.
Answer:
A. Choose the 2-cm-thick plastic because it will take longer to get warm on hot and sunny days
Explanation: