Answer: The answer is; location of entries, exits, and stairs
Explanation:
The RN should always access the home situation before discharging a patient. The RN should take into account where the stairs, exits, etc are in case the patient is unable to get around in the home. If the patient is unable to walk and lives in a 2 story apartment building and can't manage the stairs, other arrangements must be made.
The family's understanding of the client's needs should be given priority consideration, as it directly impacts the client's safety and post-discharge recovery. Option d is correct.
This is because the family's comprehension directly influences the client's safety and adherence to post-hospitalization care plans. Without adequate understanding, the family might not effectively support the client, which could lead to adverse outcomes.Assessing family understanding is vital as it helps ensure they can assist with medication management, recognize signs of potential complications, and provide emotional support. Moreover, involving the family in the discharge planning process fosters a supportive home environment that can significantly impact the client's overall recovery and well-being.While other factors like financial status, home's physical safety aspects (entries, exits, stairs), and proximity to emergency care are also important, the immediate and ongoing understanding of the client's needs by their family is paramount for a smooth transition and recovery.Complete question as follows:
A RN is assessing a client's home situation, support systems and resources in preparation for discharge. Which of these observations should be given priority consideration?
a. Financial status overall
b. Location of entries, exits, stairs
c. Distance to the nearest hospital/emergency care
d. Family's understanding of the client's needs
Being overweight can contribute to high blood pressure primarily by increasing blood vessel length.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Being overweight contributes to high blood pressure but the internal blood vessel length is smaller. The high blood pressure result is due to the obstruction of the vessels caused by the cholesterol accumulated in those vessels. If the cholesterol keeps obstructing the vessels, the heart must beat faster getting hypertrophyed, by the time the vessels should become bigger because of the hypertrophy os the muscle but the lumen will be always smaller.
Answer:
b. False
Explanation:
We should be concerned about obesity because it is associated with a number of serious health problems. Obesity is known to be related to various types of cancer, orthopedic problems, varicose veins of the lower limbs, and especially the development of adult diabetes (type 2) and high blood pressure or high blood pressure. In relation to hypertension, obesity reduces the length of blood vessels, due to the excess fat that accumulates in these vessels.
Body Cavities:
For each organ below, identify the body cavities using the following: cranial, vertebral, thoracic, pleural, pericardial, peritoneal, abdominal and pelvic.
*Note: more than one term may be necessary to correctly answer the following below.
Stomach ________________
Ovaries _________________
Small intestine ___________________
Brain __________________
Kidneys _____________________
Lungs ____________________
Spinal cord _________________
Heart ________________
Urinary bladder _____________________
Liver _____________________
Answer:
The answer are:
- Stomach: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
- Ovaries: pelvis and peritoneal cavity
- Small intestine: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
- Brain: cranial cavity
- Kidneys: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
- Lungs: thorax and pleural cavity
- Spinal cord: spine
- Heart: pericardic and thorax
- Urinary bladder: Pelvis and peritoneal cavity
- Liver: abdominal and peritoneal cavity
Final answer:
The stomach, small intestine, kidneys, and liver are located in the abdominal cavity and peritoneal cavity, the ovaries and urinary bladder are in the pelvic cavity, the brain in the cranial cavity, the lungs in the thoracic and pleural cavities, the spinal cord in the vertebral cavity, and the heart in the thoracic and pericardial cavities.
Explanation:
Body Cavities and Organ Locations
For each organ listed, the body cavity or cavities in which it is located are specified
Stomach: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity
Ovaries: pelvic cavity, peritoneal cavity
Small intestine: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity
Brain: cranial cavity
Kidneys: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity (technically, they are posterior to the peritoneum, in the retroperitoneal space)
Lungs: thoracic cavity, pleural cavity
Spinal cord: vertebral (spinal) cavity
Heart: thoracic cavity, pericardial cavity
Urinary bladder: pelvic cavity
Liver: abdominal cavity, peritoneal cavity
The body is divided into two main cavities: dorsal and ventral. The dorsal cavity contains the cranial cavity and the spinal (vertebral) cavity. The ventral cavity includes the thoracic body cavity (further divided into the pleural and pericardial cavities) and the abdominopelvic cavity (which further divides into the abdominal and pelvic cavities). The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominopelvic cavity by the diaphragm.
Name the 2 thyroid hormones with metabolic function.
Answer: Calcitonin and Thyroxine T4
Explanation:
Thyroid gland is found at the front of the neck, which makes the hormone whose main function is to control the metabolism of the body.
The hormone calcitonin is one of the hormone secreted from thyroid which functions by controlling the level of calcium and phosphate in the body. This hormone is secreted by the C-cells that is present in very small amount in the body.
Another hormone is T4 which is converted into T3 in organ and tissues of the body. This functions by controlling the metabolism of the body, such as digestion, body temperature, breathing, burning calories.
Please provide a definition of an unconditioned reflex.
Answer: Hola my name is Marissa and im here to help!:)
Explanation: an unconditioned reflex is basically an instinctive response to something it is NOT a taught reflex in example "justin yanks his hand back from the hot stove" his stimuli tell his nerves that it is hot and to quit touching it"
brainliest?
A nurse is instructing a client who has a new prescription for a daily dose of lovastatin extended release. Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching?
a. Report to the clinic for quarterly monitoring of kidney function while taking this medication.
b. Mix with applesauce after crushing if the medication is difficult to swallow.
c. Avoid consuming dairy products while taking this medication.
d. Take the medication with the evening meal.
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Which of the following information should the nurse include in the teaching, would be: D: Take the medication wiht the evening meal.
Explanation:
Lovastatin is a medication that is used to lower the production of cholesterol by the body, in order to reduce is depositing on the blood vessel walls. Given its form of action, and its effects, and since the medication given to the patient is the extended-release version, then the indications are to instruct the patient that he should be taking it once a day, and it needs to be during a meal, preferably the evening meal. He should never chew, split, or crush the tablet, no matter what. This is why the correct answer is D.
Explain how atherosclerotic plaques are formed and why they are unhealthy.
Answer:
Arteriosclerosis are plaques that form within the arteries, producing a decrease in arterial lumen. These plaques are usually made up of fatty tissue, calcium, cholesterol, fats found in the blood.
They are not healthy because they reduce the flow of oxygenated blood to the tissues, producing ischemia or cellular necrosis, for example acute myocardial infarction (when it comes to coronary artery obstruction) or vascular brain disease when the aortic artery is clogged.
Most E. coll strains encountered in a lifetime are harmless and simply contribute to natural flora.
a) True
b) False
Answer:
a) True
Explanation:
It's true, most strains of E. coli with which we have contact are harmless. They are found in the intestines of healthy animals and humans forming part of our flora. However, there are strains that can make us sick if we ingest them. We can found them in contaminated water, poorly washed vegetables and raw meats.
Which stratum/sub layer is found in the dermis?
A) Subcutaneous
B) Papillary
C) Basale
D) granulosum
E) lucidum
Answer:
The correct option is B) Papillary
Explanation:
The thick layer of skin present between the subcutaneous tissues and the epidermis (outermost layer of skin), is known as the dermis. The dermis consists of elastic and fibrous tissues, which cushions the body from any external stress.
The dermis consists of two sub layers- the papillary region and the reticular dermis.
The papillary dermis is the uppermost layer present in the pepillary region of the dermis.
Therefore, papillary is a stratum or sub-layer of the dermis.
Which disease is usually spread from infected animal to humans via a bite?
a) Polio
b) Small pox
c) Measles
d) Rabies
e) Amoebic dysentery
Answer:
D, rabies
Explanation:
Rabies is a very dangerous virus that is spread by a bite or scratch of an animal. It remains a problem in many countries in the world and people still die from its causes.
If a person is bitten by an animal in a rabies infected area, he should seek medical treatment immediately, as treatment must be given before the symptoms appear. The symptoms include fear of light and water, neurological problems and the most visible one, foam coming out of the mouth. The virus causes inflammation of the brain which leads to death.
Without early treatment, rabies is fatal.
Which of the following is an irigation catheter used after transurethral prostatic surgery?
A. ureteral stent
B. three-way Foley
C. Robinson
D. Malecot
Answer: B. Three-way Foley
Explanation:
In the case of this postoperative, the catheter that is used is a Three-way Foley.
After the surgery, the physician needs to know who much blood and how much urine is going out by the urethra; and how much of those are produced after the surgery. It helps to know if the tissue is healing, I mean, if there is less blood every day, then the outcome of the surgery could be better.
The Three-way Foley also has a bag at the end that allows to measure the quantity of the urine that is expected to produce every day.
The three-way Foley is also a catheter with a balloon that inflates inside the bladder in order to keep the catheter in position, until the physician tell the patient, it is time to pull out.
Which classification best suits the pancreas?
a) Exocrine
b) Endocrine
c) Exocrine and endocrine
d) Holocrine
Answer:
c) Exocrine and endocrine
Explanation:
The pancreas has both function exocrine and endocrine. The exocrine function is developed by the acinar cells that synthesize digestive enzimes.
The endocrine is developed by differents cells producing hormones, the alpha cells (glucagon), beta cells (insuline), delta cells (somatostatine), epsilon (ghrelin) and PP cells (pancreatic polypeptide).
Chronic obstructive pulomonary diseases (COPD), include:
a. chronic bronchitis
b. emplysema
c. pneumonia
d. a and b are correct
e. a, b and c are correct
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary diseases (COPD), include:____, would be, D: a and b are correct.
Explanation:
COPD, or best known as Chronic Obstructive Pulmonay Disorder, is the general name given to a disease in which the lungs are incapable of performing their task of oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange, because of an obstruction either of the airways, or the alveoli, which are the sacks in which the actual exchange takes place. This obstruction can happen either because of an overproduction of mucus, or because the airways become fibrous, and therefore, oxygen cannot be exchanged. The other reason is when the alveoli are damaged and destroyed and air sacks form in the lungs. In COPD, we have two types: Chronic Bronchitis, in which due to continuous coughing, and mucus production, the bronchi become inflamed and fibrous and therefore exchange is much more difficult. In the second form, we have emphysema, in which the constant coughing starts affecting the lining of the alveoli, until it can literally be destroyed and pockets of air can form inside the actual lung tissue.
What happens to alveolar volume and intra-alveolar pressure during exhalation?
1. Decrease alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure
2. Increase alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure
3. Decrease alveolar volume causes a decrease alveolar pressure
4. Increase alveolar volume causes an increase alveolar pressure
Answer:
The correct answer will be option A.
Explanation:
Exhalation is a mechanism of breathing which exhales out the gases from the lungs to the atmosphere.
During the exhalation process the thoracic volume decreases which decrease the lung volume. This decreases alveolar volume. Due to this decrease in alveolar volume the intra- alveolar pressure increases above atmospheric pressure up to +2 cm of H₂O which results in the release of the gas or air out of the lungs.
Thus, option A is the correct answer.
Final answer:
During exhalation, the alveolar volume decreases, resulting in increased intra-alveolar pressure, leading to air being expelled from the lungs.
Explanation:
The relationship between the pressure and volume of a gas in the context of alveolar function during respiration can be explained by Boyle's Law, which states that pressure and volume have an inverse relationship. When a person exhales, the muscles of the lungs and chest wall contract, causing alveolar volume to decrease. This decrease in volume leads to an increase in intra-alveolar pressure because the same amount of gas is confined to a smaller space. Consequently, intra-alveolar pressure becomes higher than atmospheric pressure, causing air to flow out of the lungs.
Heritability describes the:
a. genetic composition for a trait in a particular population.
b. phenotypic variation of a trait in a particular population.
c. variation in a phenotype caused by the environment.
d. proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population.
Heritability describes the proportion of variation in a trait in a particular population that is due to genetic influences. It does not account for the direct influence of the environment on a phenotype, but rather the genetic contribution to a trait.
Explanation:Heritability describes the proportion of variation in a trait in a particular population that is due to genetic influences. Thus, the correct answer is (d) the proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population.
The variation in a phenotype could be influenced by both genetic and environmental factors. However, heritability specifically refers to the degree to which genetic differences contribute to differences in the trait among people.
For instance, if we say the heritability of height is 0.6, it means that approximately 60% of the variance in height within a population can be attributed to genetic influences.
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Heritability describes the genetic contribution to a trait's variability within a population. It's a estimation of how much variability is due to genes or environment.
Explanation:Heritability describes the proportion of genetic contribution to a trait in a particular population. It gives us an estimate of how much of the variation of a trait in a population is due to genes versus the environment. For example, if heritability of a trait like height is 0.6, it means that 60% of the variation in height in the population is due to genetic factors.
The alternative options a, b and c are different from heritability.
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Icd 10 code for lumbar stenosis with radiculopathy
Answer:
Radiculopathy which was a nonspecific code of 724.4 now is covered with the following ICD-10-CM codes: M54.15 Radiculopathy, thoracolumbar region. M54.16 Radiculopathy, lumbar region.
Explanation:
Which is the most numerous type of blood cell?
a. erythrocyte
b. plasma cell
c. leukocyte
d. macrophage
Answer:
A. erythrocytes
Explanation:
Erythrocytes are red blood cells. There are about 600x as many RBCs as there are white blood cells (leukocytes) in the blood. Plasma cells and macrophages are both types of leukocytes. If there's more RBCs than WBCs, there's definitely more RBCs than plasma cells or macrophages.
The most numerous type of blood cell is the erythrocyte, which is responsible for transporting oxygen to the body's tissues.
Explanation:The most numerous type of blood cell is the erythrocyte, which is also known as a red blood cell. These cells are responsible for transporting oxygen to the body's tissues. In a healthy individual, there are about 4-6 million erythrocytes per microliter of blood.
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Which of the following statements is FALSE about nutrition?
(a) Someone in positive nitrogen balance should be expected to gain muscle mass due to increased protein intake
(b) Excess acetyl CoA molecules react to form compounds called ketone
(c) High-density lipoprotein (HDL) has a higher density of lipids than
(d) Essential amino acids are those that the body must ingest from the bodies which usually are a sign that a person may be starving proteins environment
Answer:
d sounds absurd!
Explanation:
Atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response icd 10
Answer
In some cases of afib, the fibrillation of the atria causes the ventricles, of lower chambers of the heart, to beat too fast. This is called a rapid ventricular rate or response. (RVR) if you have afib with RVR you'll experience symptoms, typically a rapid or fluttering heart beat.
Explanation:
Symptoms of Salmonella food poisoning include?
a) Vomiting and nausea
b) Abdominal pain and Diarrhea
c) Both A and B
Answer:
C, both A and B
Explanation:
A salmonella infection is an infection in the intestinal track. Some of the sources of the infection are contaminated water and food, meat, fertilizer and pets.
Symptoms of salmonella include abdominal pain with cramps, diarrhea, vomiting with accompanying nausea. Some people also experience chills and fever.
The illness usually goes away on its own but some patients may need hospital treatment.
Prevention of salmonella include hand washing, cooking well of all foods and avoiding contact with unknown animals.
Answer:
c)Both A and B
Explanation:
hope this help you answer your question
Which word means elevated blood pressure?
a. hypercholesterolemia
b. hypolipidemia
c. hypertension
d. hypotension
The correct answer is C. Hypertension
Explanation:
In medicine, the tension or pressure blood generates on the walls of blood vessels is commonly known as blood pressure. Additionally, concerning blood pressure in medicine a low blood pressure is known as hypotension, considering "hypo" means under; while a high or elevated blood pressure is known as hypertension as "hyper" means over or in excess. Indeed, hypertension occurs because there is excessive pressure on the wall of blood vessels which is a medical condition that can lead to diseases such as vision loss, artery disease, heart failures, among others. On the other hand, hypercholesteremia refers to high levels of cholesterol and hypolipidemia refers to low levels of lipids. Therefore, the word that means elevated pressure is Hypertension.
Lateral forces likely to cause damage to the tibial collateral ligament, ACL, and medial meniscus:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
Surfactant ______ surface tension in the alveoli, making the lung ______ compliant and thereby ________ the work required to inflate it.
A. Decrease, less, increasing
B. Increase, more, decreasing
C. increase, less, increasing
D. decrease, more, decreasing
Answer: Option D " decrease, more, decreasing"
Explanation:
Pulmonary surfactant can be defined as the surface-active proteins which is made of type II alveolar cells. These surfactant is made of protein and lipids which are both hydrophobic and hydrophillic in nature.
It greatly reduces the surface tension in the alveoli, which make the lungs more compliant (ability of the lungs to stretch and expand) and hence, decreases the work required to inflate it.
Thus the correct answer is option D
Renal failure may lead to:
a. nevous system problems
b. high blood pressure
c. azotemia or an increase in nitrogenous wastes
d. all of the above
Answer: Option D.
Explanation:
Renal failure can be defined as the condition of kidneys in which the functional ability of kidneys to remove waste and balance fluids is loss.
Renal failure can lead to azotemia, high blood pressure, and nervous system problems.
In renal failure, blood vessels of kidneys get narrower that increases the amount of force through the blood vessels and results in hypertension (high blood pressure), Uraemic toxins produced during chronic renal failure contribute to central nervous system (CNS) injury, and Azotemia is severe cause of renal failure that allows elevation of blood urea nitrogen (BUN) and serum creatinine levels.
Hence, the correct option D.
Rolling friction is less than sliding friction.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The given statement is TRUE
Explanation:
Friction is a force experienced by a body that resists its motion.
In other words, Friction is the force experienced by the two bodies (with uneven or rough surfaces) when moving against each other.
When an object slides on a surface, the surface area of the object in contact with the surface is more as compared to an object which is rolled on the surface. Therefore, the friction force experienced by the sliding body is greater than the rolling body.
Therefore, we can say that the rolling friction is less than the sliding friction.
Describe the effects of aging on joints.
Answer:
With the aging of the joints, wear on them occurs. The most affected joints are those with greater mobility and weight support, such as the knee, shoulders and elbows. The changes that occur most are:
- decrease in synovial fluid.
- reduction of intra articular space.
- joint stiffness.
The joint becomes arthrosic, that is to say a worn joint, which will manifest itself with pain, functional limitation and inflammation.
Select the correct statement concerning the trachea, it:
A) conducts air from the larynx into the bronchi.
B) is lined with pseudostratified cillated columnar epithelum
C) is usually located posterior to the esophagus.
D) A and B are correct
E) A, B and C are correct.
Answer:
The answer is A conducts air from the larynx into the bronchi.
Explanation:
The trachea, component of the respiratory system is formed by cartilaginous rings and goes from the larynx in front of the esophagus to the middle of the chest, approximately where it is divided into the right bronchus and left bronchus.
Why do the different skeletal muscle fiber types vary in the speed and duration of their twitches?
a) They vary in the flow of K* across the membrane.
b) They vary in the rate of hydrolysis of ATP
c) They vary in the removal of Ca+ from the cytosol
d) a & b
e) a & c
f) b & c
g) a, b & c
Answer:
The different skeletal muscle fiber types vary in the speed and duration of their twitches due to -
b) They vary in the rate of hydrolysis of ATP
c) They vary in the removal of Ca+ from the cytosol
Explanation:
There are mainly two types of muscle fibers , i.e.
a) slow twitching, long contraction duration( type I fibers)
b) First twitching but short duration of contraction. ( type II fibers).
Now think of the physiology of muscle. Two components are important, cytosolic Ca++ concentration and Availability of ATP. K+ is related to the action potential ( none or all law, there is no relation to the duration with respect to the potassium). For long contraction muscle fibers need a more steady supply of ATP, and also consistent high concentration of cytosolic Ca++ for muscle contraction to happen. So, these two factor is important for the duration of twitching. So the answer is option f .
Which medical word is used to refer to cancer of the white blood cells?
a. leukemia
b. anemia
c. multiple myeloma
d. adenocarcinoma
Answer:
A, leukemia
Explanation:
Cancer of white blood cells is called leukemia. White blood cells are very important in the body as they fight infections. When a person has leukemia, his bone marrow produces abnormal white blood cells which don't function properly.
It is a form of blood cancer that starts in the bone marrow. Symptoms of this disease may include bleeding and bruising, feeling tired and being at higher risk for infections. The diagnosis is made during a blood test or a bone marrow biopsy.
An abnormal sound (murmur) due to narrowing or stenosis of the mitral valve might be heard during:
a. diastole
b. systole
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: An abnormal sound (murmur) due to narrowing or stenosis of the mitral valve might be heard during:____, would be, A: Diastole.
Explanation:
It is first important to know that a murmur comes from the sound the blood makes as it passes either through a hardened tissue, like is the case of stenosis of a valve, or because it leaks back from where it came, due to regurgitation, because the valve is defective and cannot close properly. During the cardiac cycle, there is a process of systole, and of diastole, that ensure the filling and expulsion of the blood inside the heart towards the body, and from the body into the heart, so that a constant flow is ensured. In the process of filling and emptying, two sets of valves, the mitral and tricuspid, and the aortic and pulmonary, open and close to allow blood flow towards the different chambers of the heart, and out into the blood vessels of the body, and prevent the blood from returning towards where it came. In the case of mitral stenosis, which is the toughening of the mitral valve of the heart, the blood flowing through it makes a murmuring sound that can be caught up through a stethoscope. This sound is prominent during diastole, and that is why medically this murmur is known as a diastolic murmur.
What is electrical firing mechanism of the heart?
Answer:
The process of contraction and relaxation to pump blood to heart by atria and ventricles together is called electrical firing mechanism of the heart.
The electrical system regulates the timing of heartbeat through sending electrical signal.
The electrical signal originates in a group of cells at the top of heart known as sinoatrial (SA) node and send the signal to right and left atria that triggers the atria muscles to get contract. after atria contraction the blood transfer to left and right ventricles and electrical signal arrives at atrioventricular node (AV node) that slows down the electrical signal and provide time to receive blood from atria to ventricles. electrical signal then move to ventricle muscles and allow them to contract. The left ventricle pumps blood to all body parts and right ventricle pumps blood to lungs.
After contraction of both atria and ventricles the electrical mechanism resets itself and follows the same process again.
The electrical firing mechanism of the heart coordinates the rhythmic contractions of the heart muscles and is responsible for pumping blood. It starts with the sinoatrial (SA) node and involves the atrioventricular (AV) node, bundle of His, bundle branches, and Purkinje fibers. The resulting electrical currents can be measured as an electrocardiogram (ECG).
Explanation:The electrical firing mechanism of the heart is responsible for coordinating the rhythmic contractions of the heart muscles, allowing it to pump blood through the circulatory system. The process starts with the heart's natural pacemaker, called the sinoatrial (SA) node, which sends out electrical impulses that cause the atria to contract. From there, the impulses travel to the atrioventricular (AV) node, the bundle of His, the bundle branches, and finally the Purkinje fibers, which stimulate the ventricles to contract. This coordinated electrical activity produces the characteristic electrical currents that flow through the body and can be measured as an electrocardiogram (ECG).