Answer:
The answer is C: primary oocyte
Explanation:
Ovogenesis is the process by which the ovary gives rise to a mature ovum (oocyte). The primary oocyte is the first to form during ovogonia, once the process of meiosis begins. It is compared with spermatogonium as it is also the initial phase for sperm formation.
A polarized cell:
a. has a charge imbalance across its membrane
b. includes most cells of the body
c. exhibits a membrane potential
d. includes most cells of the body and exhibits a membrane potential
e. all of these choices are correct
Answer:
e. all of these choices are correct
Explanation:
A cell in human body becomes polarized by storing and moving different types of the electrically-charged molecules on the different sides of cell membrane.
Cell polarity corresponds to the spacial differences in structure, shape, and the function within the cell. All types of the cell almost exhibit some polarity, that enables the cells to accomplish specified and specialized functions. Some examples of the polarized cells are epithelial cell with the apical-basal polarity, neurons in which the signals propagate, etc.
Polarization is existence of the opposite electrical charges on the either side of a cell membrane. Hence, a polarized cell has a charge imbalance across its membrane which is also responsible for some membrane potential which is the difference in electric potential between interior and exterior of a cell.
Hence, option e is correct which states that all the options are correct.
Final answer:
the correct answer to the student's question would be e. A polarized cell has a charge imbalance that creates a membrane potential, which is a feature of most cells in the body, particularly nerve and muscle cells. All the choices stated in the question are correct regarding a polarized cell.
Explanation:
A polarized cell has some key characteristics:
It has a charge imbalance across its membrane, which results in a membrane potential.This membrane potential is due to the separation of charges across the cell membrane, with negatively charged ions inside the cell and positively charged ions outside, typically resulting in a resting potential of about -70mV to -90mV.The majority of cells in the body are polarized and exhibit a membrane potential, including nerve and muscle cells which have larger membrane potentials.Active transport mechanisms, like the Na⁺/K⁺ ATPase pump, contribute significantly to the maintenance of the membrane potential.Therefore, the correct answer to the student's question would be e. all of these choices are correct because a polarized cell exhibits all the stated features.
It is believed that at least 1/5 of all pregnancies ends in spontaneous abortion before the end of the second month.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
true
Explanation:
The claim that at least 1/5 of all pregnancies end in spontaneous abortion before the two-month mark is generally accepted as true. This is due to numerous studies suggesting a similar miscarriage rate.
Explanation:The statement 'At least 1/5 of all pregnancies ends in spontaneous abortion before the end of the second month.' is generally considered to be true. A spontaneous abortion, also known as a miscarriage, is the loss of a pregnancy before the 20th week. Most miscarriages occur before the 12th week of pregnancy. The rates of miscarriage can vary, but many studies suggest that approximately 20% (1 in 5) of recognized pregnancies end in miscarriage.
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There are seven processes that project from the vertebral arch. Which one articulates with the vertebra above it?
a. inferior articular process
b. superior articular process
c. transverse process
d. spinous process
e. lamina
Answer:
The correct option is : a. inferior articular process
Explanation:
One of the seven processes that project out from the vertebral arch is the articular processes. The articular processes serve the purpose of fitting with the adjacent vertebra.
There are two types of articular processes: the inferior and the superior.
The inferior process articulates with the vertebra above it.
What are the different types of vegetarianism? Veganism?
a. Recommendations for nutrients vegans to potentially supplement?
Answer:
Vegetarianism, as well as veganism, are defined as diets in which in one way or another, there is either a restriction in the type of animal products that are consumed, or no consumption of these products. However, in veganism, there is even more restriction, as essentially, vegans of different types will eat some types of plant foods, while not others. In vegetarianism, there is absolutely no consumption of animals flesh, but there can be consumption of dairy products and eggs. In veganism, depending on the type, there may be restrictions to some types of meat, or all types, consumption of dairy and eggs, or limitations in these consumptions as well.
As such, the vegetarians are just that, people who do not consume animal flesh of any kind, but can eat dairy and eggs. There are no further groups here
But in Vegans, there are several groups, and their name depends on what they eat, and do not eat. As such we have: Strict Vegan, Lacto-Ovo-Vegan (will eat eggs and dairy), Lacto-Vegan (Only dairy), Fruitarian (only fruits, nuts and certain plants), Flexitarians (sometimes eat meat), Pescatarians (will eat fish), and Raw Foodists (Only fruits, nuts and plants on their raw state)
The types of nutrients that will be lacking, especially for strict vegans and strict vegetarians are: Vitamin B-12, Folic Acid, Calcium, Iron and Zinc. These are all nutrients that must be supplied through supplements on these diets.
Vegetarianism has various forms including veganism which excludes all animal products. Vegans should ensure adequate intake of essential nutrients and may benefit from supplements like vitamin B12. Plant-based diets can offer health benefits and environmental advantages, but cost savings vary.
Explanation:There are various types of vegetarianism, including lacto-vegetarianism (includes dairy), ovo-vegetarianism (includes eggs), lacto-ovo vegetarianism (includes both dairy and eggs), pescatarianism (includes fish), and veganism, where no animal products are consumed at all. Vegans need to pay special attention to their diet to ensure they receive all essential nutrients, particularly protein, iron, zinc, omega-3, and vitamin B12. To get all essential amino acids, vegans can combine different plant sources of protein, as no single plant food contains all essential amino acids.
A plant-based diet has numerous health benefits, including the potential for reducing the risk of chronic diseases like cancer, heart disease, and Type 2 diabetes. It can also assist with weight maintenance and may reduce the environmental impact compared to omnivorous diets. However, financial savings are variable and depend on food choices and local prices. Vegans may need to supplement their diet with specific nutrients such as vitamin B12, which is predominantly found in animal products.
What are three major regions of the large intestine?
Answer:
The three major regions of the large intestine are the cecum, the colon and the rectum.
Explanation:
Large intestine, the last organ of the gastrointestinal tract and digestive system.
The main function of the large intestine is the absorption of water and storing the remaining waste material as feces, before removed it by defecation.
The three major regions of the large intestine are-
1. cecum
2. colon
3. rectum
which of the following x-ray procedures involves Injecting contrast media into the ureters to visualize the renal pelvis?
A. intravenous pyelogram
B. cystourethrogram
C. retrograde pyelogram
D. renal arteriogram
Answer:
The correct option is A. Intravenous pyelogram
Explanation:
Intravenous pyelogram (IVP) is a radiology technique and a type of X-ray which is used to visualize any abnormality present in the urinary system. The urinary system includes the kidneys, ureters and the bladder.
This method involves intravenously injecting a contrast media to highlight the urinary tract. After the contrast media is injected, it travels to the ureters, renal pelvis and then into the bladder.
Therefore, making the urinary system and thus the renal pelvis visible on the X-ray by injecting contrast media in the ureters.
Adhering junctions are based on two different types of cytoskeleton filament systems. Name those systems.
Answer:
Actin filament and intermediate filament.
Explanation:
Adhering junction is a type of cell-cell junction that is present in endothelial and epithelial cells. Cadherin, catenin and plakoglobin are the different proteins present in the adhering junction.
Adhering junction cytoplasmic face is attached with the actin filament of the cell. This junction also show attachment with the intermediate filament of the cell. Desmosomes joins the intermediate filament of adheren junction.
Thus, the answer is Intermediate filament and actin filament.
Blood is transported from the intestine to the liver in a large vessel known as the ___________.
Answer:
Hepatic portal vein , is responsible for the transport of blood from the intestine to the liver.
Explanation:
The Hepatic portal vein also called the portal vein ,
The blood vessel carries blood from the gastrointestinal tract , pancreas , gallbladder and spleen to the liver .
The blood in the blood vessel contains toxins and nutrients absorbed from the digested contents.
Around one third of the total blood of liver flows via Hepatic Portal Vein.
Hence,
Blood is transported from the intestine to the liver in a large vessel known as the Hepatic Portal Vein.
Which of the following structures are gonads?
A) seminal vesicles.
B) vas deferens.
C) prostate gland .
D) testes.
E) A, B and C are correct
Answer:
D) testes
Explanation:
Gonad is also known as a sex gland or a reproductive gland. It is a gland that primarily produces both sex cells and sex hormones.
In females,
The reproductive cells are egg cells that are produced by the ovary.
In males,
The reproductive/sex cells are the sperms that are produced by the testes in the form of spermatozoa.
Seminal vesicles, vas deferens, prostate gland are parts of male reproductive system and are not gonads. They do not produce sperms.
Option D is correct.
Answer:
D) testes
Explanation:
Layer of connective tissue that separates a muscle into small bundles called fascicles.
Answer:
Perimysium
Explanation:
Perimysium is a layer of connective tissue that strengthen and increases the muscle fitness. Perimysium shows direct connection with muscle fibers and epimysium.
The perimysium layer separates the muscle into the small bundles called fascicles with different dimensions. Perimysium regulates the role of epimysial fascia in motor coordination.
Thus, the answer is perimysium.
Describe the tests you would use to assess a patient's hearing acuity. What results would you expect if the patient's ability to hear and localize sounds was suspected to be below normal?
Answer:
An audiometry that assesses the airway and nerve at the same time.
When a person has hearing impairment, will be seen a fall in the audiometric graph both at the level of the bone or neurological pathway above 30 decibels and 250 hertz.
Audiometry is the key test for assessing hearing acuity. Increased dB measurements on the audiogram indicate below-normal hearing ability.
Audiometry is the primary test used to assess a patient's hearing acuity. This test measures the hearing threshold in decibels (dB) relative to the normal threshold across various frequencies, depicted in an audiogram.
If a patient's ability to hear and localize sounds is suspected to be below normal, the results on the audiogram would show an increase in dB measurements, indicating a loss of hearing acuity, especially at higher frequencies.
What are the 3 hallmarks of diabetes mellitus?
Answer:
The three hallmarks of diabetes mellitus, are: polyuria, polyphagia and polydipsia. Polyuria, is the excessive production of urine and it is seen when people constantly need to pee. Polyphagia, is excessive hunger, in which, people constantly express their need to eat something. And finally, polydipsia, is excessive thirst, present in diabetics, who constantly feel the sensation of thirst and tend to drink a lot of fluids. When these hallmarks are present, even sometimes without a test, it can be ascertained that a person suffers from diabetes mellitus, or simply, diabetes.
Explanation:
Diabetes mellitus was the term used to define diabetes in general. Diabetes is defined as a metabolic disorder in which, usually, sugar levels are very high in the blood, due to a problem either with production of insulin, or the insulin present being incapable of performing its function. There are three types of diabetes mellitus: diabetes type 1, with onset in youth, and also called insulin-dependent diabetes, type 2, with onset in the adult, also known as non-insulin dependent diabetes, and type 3, which is gestational diabetes. In all three cases, the three symptoms mentioned above appear, and they are the clearest signs of a possible diabetes.
How would you explain the application of social network theory to a group of teenagers who smoke cigarettes.
Answer:
Social Network Theory, is a theory that arose in the 1960´s and which began to explain an alternative viewpoint to how people related to each other, not on the basis of their individual characteristics, but rather, on the relationships they formed, and what was brought into that relationship. It has been characterized because it is always diagramed as a series of points (individuals), and connecting lines between them (relationships).
Social Network Theory is used to explain the appearance of certain mass behaviors in people, and trends, even if individually, the person does not display a specific characteristic that would explain the behavior.
In the case of smoking, especially in teenagers, this theory applies perfectly, as it is known that teenagers, as they are still in the process of forming their own identity, tend to depend on social networking, and especially, the acceptance by peers. This means, usually, that they will adapt to whatever the social group where they are is doing, in order to form a positive relationship with the others, and feel a part of it. This means, that even if personally the teenagers in the group did not have specific characteristics that would explain why they took smoking as an activity, they still did it because it was the social behavior of the group, and this activity strengthened the relationship among the members of the group.
Final answer:
Social network theory explains how social connections and interactions can influence the smoking behavior of teenagers.
Explanation:
Social network theory can be applied to a group of teenagers who smoke cigarettes to understand how their social connections and interactions influence their smoking behavior. According to social network theory, individuals are influenced by the people they are connected to in their social network. In the case of teenage smokers, their peers who also smoke can play a significant role in shaping their smoking habits. Teenagers may experience social pressure to smoke in order to fit in with their smoking friends or to be part of a specific social group.
For example, if a group of teenagers forms a close-knit peer group where most members smoke, there is a higher chance that non-smokers within the group may start smoking in order to conform to the group norm. This can be explained by the concept of social contagion, which suggests that behaviors, attitudes, and beliefs can spread through a social network.
Furthermore, the reach and influence of social media platforms among teenagers can amplify these social connections and social pressure. Teenagers who follow influencers or celebrities on social media who promote smoking may be more likely to perceive smoking as socially desirable. This perception can reinforce their own smoking behavior or motivate them to start smoking.
The hormone released from the hypothalamaus in response to low blood pressure or loow blood volume is:
a. aldosterone
b. angiotensin II
c. renin
d. ADH
e. ACTH
Answer:
D. ADH
Explanation:
ADH also known as the antidiureitc hormone is secretated in response to low production. The angiotensin II (produced in the lungs) increase the volumen os ADH. As its name says this hormone avoids the water losses in the kidneys in order to do that ADH associates with the AVPR1A recpetors, those receptors open calcium compartiments inside the cells, once opened the vessel constrictions starts avoiding the water losses. Those receptos also stimulates platelet aggregation and coagulation factor VIII, by this way the ADH also avoid hemorrhages.
The structure which is the pacemaker of the heart is the:
a. bundle of HIS
b. AV bundle
c. SA node
d. AV node
Answer:
The correct answer to the question: The structure which is the pacemaker of the heart is:____, would be, C: The SA node.
Explanation:
The heart has an autonomic, and automatic, electrical system that is responsible for the heart being able to perform its functions. This structure, known as the conducting system of the heart, is formed by a series of specialized neural cells capable of generating and conducting electrical charges that stimulate the myochardial cells, and activate them, so that they will contract and relax during a heart cycle. The starting point of this conducting system, is the SA node, at the atria of the heart. It will be the neural cells in the SA node which will autonomically, and automatically generate an electrical current that will move downwards in the same way as it happens in the nervous system, towards the AV node at the top of the ventricles, then down towards the bundle of His and finally to the Purkinje fibers. Therefore, the SA node is known as the pacemaker of the heart.
What is the neurotransmitter used by the SNS
a)Ach
b)NE
c)E
d)Serotonin
e)GABBA
Answer:
B) Norepinephrine
Explanation:
The sympathetic nervous system uses norepinephrine as their neurotransmitter. The neurons originate in the locus ceruleus in the pons of the medulla oblongata. Norepinephrine modulates attention, sleep-wake cycle, learning, anxiety, and pain.
Which of the following is NOT part of the larynx?
a. thyroid cartlage
b. carina
c. cricoid cartilage
d. arytenoid cartilage
Answer:
Carina.
Explanation:
Larynx is also known as voice box. This organ is involved in food aspiration and produce sound. Larynx manipulates the pitch and voice of an individual.
The main parts of larynx are cricoid cartilage, thyroid cartilage and arytenoid cartilage. The carina is a part of trachea, not the larynx.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Which of the following muscles is located at the shoulder?
A. platysma
B. sternocleidomastoid
C. deltoid
D. pectoralis minor
Answer:
Pectoralis minor
Explanation:
Pecoralis minor is a thin, triangular muscle lies beneath the pectoralis major muscle. This muscle arises from the third ribs, fourth and fifth ribs.
The pectoralis muscles fans out from the shoulder upper ribs area. This muscle is involved in the coracoid process of scapula. The pectoralis muscle helps in the depression point of the shoulder.
Thus, the correct answer is option (D).
Which of the following does NOT apply to an enzyme:
a. Catalyst
b. Inorganic
c. Protein
d. All of the above apply to an enzyme
Answer:
Inorganic
Explanation:
Enzymes are bio catalyst that increase the rate of a biochemical reaction occurring in living organisms. Enzymes lowers the activation energy of the reaction and increases the rate of formation of product
Enzymes are organic molecules and works at optimum temperature and pH. Inorganic cannot apply to the enzymes because they are made upof protein.
Thus, the correct answer is option (B).
Enzymes are organic molecules and do not contain inorganic elements. Therefore, the correct answer is b. Inorganic.
Explanation:A. Catalyst: Enzymes are biological catalysts that speed up chemical reactions in cells by lowering the activation energy required for the reaction to occur.
B. Inorganic: Enzymes are organic molecules, composed mainly of proteins, and do not contain inorganic elements.
C. Protein: Enzymes are proteins, which are long chains of amino acids that fold into complex three-dimensional shapes.
D. All of the above apply to an enzyme: This statement is incorrect as enzymes are not inorganic, but rather organic molecules.
Therefore, the correct answer is b. Inorganic.
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Please explain what is a seizure.
Answer: hola i am marissa and im here to help !:)
a seizure happens when a surge of abnormal electrical activity happens in the brain, there are multiple types of seizures, the most common types are
"tonic" ,"clonic" "tonic,clonic"
Explanation:
first-aid for seizures
note:if the siezure lasts longer than for minutes call 911
move all objects out of the victims paths to prevent them form injuring themselves, provide head support(do not try to hold them down it could lead to further injury of the victim or yourself)
once the seizure has ended roll them on to there side and tilt the victims head back to prevent choking in case the victim vomits the vomit r acid that comes up can block the air ways
do not offer food or water until the victim is completely aware of there surroundings.
brainliest?
Which of the following is not included in the autonomic reflexes?
A) withdrawal
B) cardiovascular
C) pupillary
D) gastrointestinal
Answer: A) withdrawal is not included in the autonomic reflexes.
Explanation:
As autonomic reflex involves the response of glands, cardiac muscles, regulates organs and smooth muscles. So, that is why cardiovascular, pupillary and gastrointestinal are autonomic reflexes. Whereas, withdrawal is somatic type as it involves the skeletal muscles and spinal cord. The main difference between both the reflexes is that target tissues are effectors.
Intracapsular ligaments include the ACL, and PCL:
a. Hip
b. Knee
c. Ankle
Answer:
Knee.
Explanation:
Knee joins the legs with the thighs. Knee consists of patellofemoral joint and tibiofemoral joint. Knee helps in the process of extension and flexion.
Cruciate ligamnets stabilize the knee structure. The anterior cruciate ligament (ACL) and posterior cruciate ligament (PCL) are the intracapsular ligaments of knee.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
The ACL and PCL are intracapsular ligaments found in the knee joint, providing necessary stability by limiting certain movements.
Explanation:The intracapsular ligaments mentioned, the Anterior Cruciate Ligament ( ACL ) and the Posterior Cruciate Ligament ( PCL ), are found within the knee joint. So the answer to the question is: 'b. Knee'. These two ligaments are key structures contributing to stability in the knee joint. They prevent unwanted forward and backward movement as well as rotation within the knee.
Intracapsular ligaments include the ACL (anterior cruciate ligament) and PCL (posterior cruciate ligament).
These ligaments are found in the knee joint, which is responsible for stabilizing the knee and preventing excessive movement.
They play a crucial role in maintaining the integrity of the knee joint and are often injured during activities involving sudden changes in direction or impact.
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Compare and contrast the two thienopyridines: clopidogrel and parasugrel. Why would one drug be better suited for the clinic than another?
Answer:
Clopidogrel is a thienopyridine that belongs to the class of drug [tex]P2Y_{12}[/tex] ADP receptors. Clopidogrel inhibits the platelets aggregation and activation. This drug can reduce the rate of myocardial infarction in the patients. The chances of bleeding increases if the drug is coadministered with serotonin.
Parasugrel is a thienopyridine that belongs to the class of drug [tex]P2Y_{21}[/tex] ADP receptors. Parasugrel inhibits the platelets activation by the irreversible binding with its receptor. This drug can reduce the rate thrombotic cardiovascular events. The chances of bleeding increases if the drug is coadministered with warfarin.
Parasugrel is better suited than clopidegrol in case of stent thrombosis because this drug works faster and can easily be absorbed in the small intestine.
Inherited disease of the respiratory system include:
a. coryza
b. cystic fibrosis
c. pneumonia
d. SARS
e. tuberculosis
Answer:
The answer is B: Cystic fibrosis.
Explanation:
Cystic fibrosis is a SERIOUS hereditary disease, which not only damages the lungs but also the digestive system and is characterized by affecting the cells that produce mucus, sweat and gastric juices. These fluids are altered in their composition, becoming thick and sticky which lead to an obstruction of the ducts.
White matter of the brain and spinal cord is formed from aggregations of?
a. the brain and spinal cord
b. myelinated axons from many neurons
c. The lipid part of myelin
Answer:
The correct option is b. myelinated axons from many neurons
Explanation:
White matter is an area which is present in the brain and the spinal cord, that are mainly consists of bundles of myelinated axons, also called tracts. The myelinated axons are the nerve fibres that are surrounded by a lipid-rich substance called myelin.
The presence of the myelin gives the tissue the white colored appearance in contrast to the cerebral cortex which is the grey matter.
Therefore, the myelinated axons from many neurons aggregate together to form the white matter present in the brain and the spinal cord.
Write a brief description of the following:
a. synovial membrane
b. mesothelium
c. articular cartilage
d. cutaneous membrane
e. mucous membrane
f. goblet cell
g. bursa
h. lamina propria
i. keratohyalin
j. serous membrane
Answer:
i think its a.b.c.d.e.f.g.h.i.j
Explanation:
because they all have to be in one sentence.
An 82-year-old preoperative patient expresses anxiety and a premonition of possible death in the surgical suite. The surgical technologist should:
A. ask the supervisor to cancel the case immediately
B. request more sedation for the patient
C. communicate this to the physician.
D. disregard the information if the patient's condition is stable.
Explanation:
disregard the information if the patient's condition is stable.
A fundus is a portion of an organ opposite its opening. The fundus of the uterus is opposite which opening?
a. What organ in the digestive system has a fundus?
Answer:
The correct answer is the stomach.
Explanation:
The thick walled organ located between the esophagus and the duodenum of the small intestine is the stomach. It lies on the left side of the abdomen. The fundus is the upper part of the stomach which is inferior to the diaphragm. The fundus is the upper body and below it is the main part of the stomach.
The fundus has an important function as it stores both gases that are formed during chemical digestion and undigested food. Food may rest in the fundus for a while before being mixed with the chyme.
Thus, the correct answer is the stomach.
The fundus is a part of an organ that is opposite from its opening. The fundus of the uterus is opposite of the cervix. In the digestive system, the organ with a fundus is the stomach, which is opposite to the pyloric canal.
Explanation:The term fundus is used in anatomy to refer to the part of an organ that is opposite from its opening. In the context of the uterus, the fundus of the uterus is located at the top, opposite to the cervix which is the opening.
Just like the uterus, a part of the digestive system also has a fundus. The organ in the digestive system with a fundus is the stomach.
The fundus of the stomach is labeled so because it is opposite to the pyloric canal, which is the opening of the stomach leading into the small intestine. Because the fundus is the highest point of the stomach, it often contains a gas bubble when the person is in the upright position.
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The recording of the electrical currents produced by contraction of skeletal muscle is called a(n): _______
Answer:
An Electromyography (EMG)
Explanation:
An electromyography is a technique of recording the electric activity produced by the contractions of the skeletal muscles. An electromyography is performed with the help of the instrument called Electromyogram.
It is a medical diagnosis in which the electrical activity of the body is recorded or the response of the body to external stimuli signals is measured, to find out information about the disease present in the body.
Therefore, the electrical currents produced by the contraction of the skeletal muscles are recorded by an Electromyography (EMG).
You have a patient who has a very strange disorder. In this disorder, ADP sticks permanently to the myosin head. From your knowledge of excitation contraction coupling, describe how this patient will present.
Answer:
one thing might be muscle contractions
Explanation: