A system that is not influence anyway by the surroundings is called a)- control mass system b)- Isothermal system c)-- isolated system d)- open system

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:

Isolated system

Explanation:

By definition of a closed system it means that a system that does not interact with it's surroundings in any manner

The other options are explained as under:

Isothermal system : It is a system that does not allow it's temperature to change

Control Mass system : It is a system whose mass remains conserved which means the mass entering the system equals the mass leaving the system

Open system: It is a system that allows transfer of mass and energy across it's boundary without any opposition i.e freely.


Related Questions

Describe the design experiments method for product and process optimization

Answers

Answer:

Design of Experiment also known as DoE is a systematic methodology to understand how any process or parameters of any product affects the response variables like physical properties or performance of any product, etc. It serves the purpose of making the job easier.

It is technique to generate valuable information required with minimum experimentation with the use of these:

Statistical methodologyMathematical analysis to predict the output within the limits of experiments at any point.Experimental extremities

Process Optimization:

It includes the following:

Product prototype should be used in designingOptimization of significant value adding activitiesDetection and minimization of errorStrong built concept for the designTesting and validation of the process for further improvement in efficiencyTime, quality, environmental, manufacting and overall cost, safety and operational constraints should be duly noted.

What is the output of a system having the transfer function G = 2/[(s + 3) x(s + 4)] and subject to a unit impulse?

Answers

Answer:

output=[tex]\frac{2}{(s+3)(s+4)}[/tex]

Explanation:

output =transfer function ×input

here transfer function G=[tex]\frac{2}{(S+3)(S+4)} {}[/tex]

input = unit impulse

in S domain unit impulse =1

so output =[tex]\frac{2}{(S+3)(S+4)} {}[/tex]

=[tex]\frac{2}{(s+3)(s+4)}[/tex]

Why the inviscid, incompressible, and irrotational fields are governed by Laplace's equation?

Answers

Answer: Laplace equation provides a linear solution and helps in obtaining other solutions by being added to various solution of a particular equation as well.

Inviscid , incompressible and irrotational field have and basic solution ans so they can be governed by the Laplace equation to obtain a interesting and non-common solution .The analysis of such solution in a flow of Laplace equation is termed as potential flow.

Why degree of crystallinity affects polymer properties?

Answers

Answer:  

  Degree of crystallinity affects polymer properties as increasing in   crystallinity means higher the thermal stability and harder the material. Basically, crystallinity strongly affects polymer properties as it defines the degree of long range order in a material. Crystallinity is also determined by the size as well as molecular chain orientation.

The shear force diagram is always the slope of the bending moment diagram. a)True b)- False

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Shear force diagram is a diagram which is drawn by calculating the shear force either to the right of the section or to the left of the section .

shear force is also be define as the change of moment w.r.t to distance

                              V=[tex]\frac{\mathrm{d}M }{\mathrm{d} x}[/tex]

where V is shear force and M is bending moment.

from the equation we can clearly say that shear force diagram is slope of bending moment diagram.

A gear pump has a 4.25in outside diameter, a 3.25in inside diameter, and a 2in width. If the actual pump flow rate is 1800rpm and rated pressure is 29gpm, what is the volumetric efficiency?

Answers

Answer:

volumetric efficeincy = 0.315%

Explanation:

Given data:

outside diameter = 4.25 inch

inside diameter = 3.25 inch

flow rate V = 1800 rpm

actual flow rate Qa = 29gpm = 6699 inch3/min

volume of pump can be determine by using below formula

[tex]VOLUME = \frac{\pi}{4}*(D_{0}^{2}-D_{1}^{2})L[/tex]

              [tex]=\frac{\pi}{4}*(4.25^{2}-3.25^{2})2[/tex]

[tex]VOLUME = 11.78 inc^{3}[/tex]

theoretical flow rate is given as Qt

[tex]Q_{T} = V.N[/tex]

         = 11.78*1800

         =[tex]21204 inch ^{3}/ min[/tex]

[tex]volumetric efficeincy = \frac{Q_{A}}{Q_{T}}[/tex]

                                   [tex]=\frac{6699}{21204}[/tex]

volumetric efficeincy = 0.315%

I need help on Problem 2.5

I would like an explanation of how you got your answer. Thank you!!

Answers

Answer:

0.424

Explanation:

The electrical energy is the electrical power times time:

E = Pt

E = (IV)t

E = (1.5 A) (110 V) (300 s)

E = 49,500 J

The heat absorbed by the cookie dough is the mass times specific heat capacity times increase in temperature:

Q = mCΔT

Q = (1 kg) (4200 J/kg/K) (5 K)

Q = 21,000 J

So the fraction of electrical energy converted to internal energy is:

Q / E = 21,000 / 49,500

Q / E = 0.424

The remainder of the electrical energy is used to do work.

The Molybdenum with an atomic radius 0.1363 nm and atomic weight 95.95 has a BCC unit cell structure. Calculate its theoretical density (g/cm^3).

Answers

Solution:

Given :

atomic radius, r = 0.1363nm = 0.1363×10⁻⁹m

atomic wieght, M = 95.96

Cell structure is BCC (Body Centred Cubic)

For BCC, we know that no. of atoms per unit cell, z = 2

and atomic radius, r =[tex]\frac{a\sqrt{3} }{4}[/tex]

so, a = [tex]\frac{4r}{\sqrt{3}}[/tex]

m = mass of each atom in a unit cell

mass of an atom = [tex]\frac{M}{N_{A} }[/tex],

where, [tex]N_{A}[/tex] is Avagadro Number = 6.02×10^{23}

volume of unit cell = a^{3}

density, ρ = [tex]\frac{mass of unit cell}{volume of unit cell}[/tex]

density, ρ = [tex]\frac{z\times M}{a^{3}\times N_{A}}[/tex]

ρ = [tex]\frac{2\times 95.95}{(\frac{4\times 0.1363\times 10^{-9}}{\sqrt{3}})^{3}\times (6.23\times 10^{23})}[/tex]

ρ = 10.215gm/[tex]cm^{3}[/tex]

Primary Creep: slope (creep rate) decreases with time

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

Creep is known as the time dependent deformation of structure due to constant load acting on the body.

Creep is generally seen at high temperature.

Due to creep the length of the structure increases which is not fit for serviceability purpose.

When time passes structure gain strength as the structure strength increases with time so creep tends to decrease.

When we talk about Creep rate for new structure the creep will be more than the old structure i.e. the creep rate decreases with time.

An important material for advanced electronic technologies is the pure silicon.a)-True b)-False

Answers

Answer: False

Explanation:

Pure silicon is a good semiconductor, which conducts electricity when is mixed with some other component and can also work as an insulator.It is found abundantly on the earth's crust area. It is widely used in mixed form in the advanced electronic technologies but not in pure silicon form . So silicon is the important material in the advanced electronic technologies but not the pure silicon form.

In a horizontal pipeline a 150 mm diameter pipe is connected to a 250 mm diameter pipe. The flow rate in the pipeline is 0.15 m^3/s. Take the connection as a sudden enlargement and determine: (a) The pressure head loss vhen the vater flovs from the large pipe to the smaller pipe (take Cc=0.64) (b) The pressure head loss when vater flovs from the small pipe to the larger pipe (c) The loss of power in both cases

Answers

Answer:

a) [tex]h_L=1.17m[/tex]

b)[tex]h_L=1.52m[/tex]

c)[tex]P_1=1.721 kN[/tex]

  [tex]P_2=2.236 kN[/tex]

Explanation:

velocities of the pipe;

velocity of small dia pipe

[tex]v_{small}=\frac{Q}{A_{small}} =\frac{0.15}{\frac{\pi}{4}\times d^2 }= \frac{0.15}{\frac{\pi}{4}\times 0.15^2 }=8.52m/s[/tex]

velocity of larger dia pipe

[tex]v_{large}=\frac{Q}{A_{large}} =\frac{0.15}{\frac{\pi}{4}\times d^2 }= \frac{0.15}{\frac{\pi}{4}\times 0.25^2 }=3.05m/s[/tex]

a) pressure head loss when water is flowing from large to smaller pipe

  [tex]h_L=(\frac{1}{C_c} -1)^2 \times \frac{v^2}{2g}[/tex]

[tex]h_L=(\frac{1}{0.64} -1)^2 \times \frac{8.52^2}{2\times 9.81} = 1.17m[/tex]

b) pressure head loss when water flow from small pipe to large pipe

[tex]h_L= \frac{v^2}{2g}(1-\frac{A_{small}}{A_{large}} )^2[/tex]

[tex]h_L=\frac{8.52^2}{2\times9.81}(1-\frac{\frac{\pi}{4}\times 0.15^2}{\frac{\pi}{4}\times 0.25^2}} )^2= 1.52 m[/tex]

c) power loss in both cases are

[tex]P_1= \rho g Q h_{L1}= 1000 \times 9.81\times 0.15\times 1.17= 1.721 kN[/tex]

[tex]P_2= \rho g Q h_{L2}= 1000 \times 9.81\times 0.15\times 1.52= 2.236 kN[/tex]

The Poisson effect does not apply to shear strains. a)True b)- False

Answers

Answer:

true

Explanation:

Shear strains and direct strains are independent components in a strain tensor at a point. Also the poisson ratio is defined as

μ = - [tex]\frac{lateral strain}{longitudinal strain}[/tex]

Which is independent of shear strains Thus this affect does not apply on shear strains

To measure the voltage drop across a resistor, a _______________ must be placed in _______________ with the resistor. Ammeter; Series Ammeter; Parallel Voltmeter; Series Voltmeter; Parallel

Answers

Answer:

The given blanks can be filled as given below

Voltmeter must be connected in parallel

Explanation:

A voltmeter is connected in parallel to measure the voltage drop across a resistor this is because in parallel connection, current is divided in each parallel branch and voltage remains same in parallel connections.

Therefore, in order to measure the same voltage across the voltmeter as that of the voltage drop across resistor, voltmeter must be connected in parallel.

The heat rate is essentially the reciprocal of the thermal efficiency. a)- True b)- False

Answers

Answer:

a). TRUE

Explanation:

Thermal efficiency of a system is the defined as the ratio of the net work done to the total heat input to the system. It is a dimensionless quantity.

Mathematically, thermal efficiency is

        η =  net work done / heat input

While heat rate is  the reciprocal of efficiency. It is defined as the ratio of heat supplied to the system to the useful work done.

Mathematically, heat rate is

       Heat rate = heat input / net work done

Thus from above we can see that heat rate is the reciprocal of thermal efficiency.

Thus, Heat rate is reciprocal of thermal efficiency.

Which atom bond in atomic interaction combines electrons, filling its valence zone a) Van der Vaals bond; b) a covalent bond; c) ionic bond; d) metallic bond.

Answers

Answer: Covalent bond

Explanation: Covalent bond is the bond that gets created when there is a sharing of electrons among atoms  and hence creating atomic interaction. The bond formed is from the shared pair because they allow the atoms or ions to achieve stability by completely filling the outer shell of the electron and thus form the covalent bond .Therefore, the correct option is the option(b) .

An automobile having a mass of 884 kg initially moves along a level highway at 68 km/h relative to the highway. It then climbs a hill whose crest is 69 m above the level highway and parks at a rest area located there. For the automobile, determine its changes in kinetic energy, in kJ

Answers

Answer:

ΔK.E. = - 142.72 kJ

Explanation:

mass = 884 kg

initial velocity = 68 km/h = 68 \times \frac {5}{18} = 18.89 m/s

final velocity = 0 m/s

height = 69 m

change in kinetic energy :

ΔK.E. = [tex]\dfrac{1}{2}m(v_f^2-v_i^2)[/tex]

ΔK.E. =[tex]\dfrac{1}{2}\times 884 \times (0^2-18.89^2)[/tex]

ΔK.E. =-142,716.05 J

ΔK.E. =-142.72 kJ

hence change in  kinetic energy of the automobile is  -142.72 kJ

What is the Thermodynamic (Absolute) temperature scale?

Answers

Answer:

0 K

Explanation:

The thermodynamic absolute temperature is that temperature  at which there is an infinite cooling and so there is no movement of any molecules or particles it is given by kelvin. 0 K is that temperature at which there is no movement of molecule so 0 K or -273°C in degree Celsius is the absolute temperature in thermodynamic temperature scale.  

The turbine blade tip speed v for r=1m and 5 rev/sec is a) 5 m/s b) 0.25 m/s c) 0.20 m/s

Answers

Answer:

(a) 5 m/sec

Explanation:

we have given r=1 meter

angular velocity ω =5 revolution/sec

we have to find the velocity of turbine blade tip

the velocity of turbine blade tip is given by v =rω

where v = velocity of turbine blade tip

           r = radius

          ω = angular velocity

so v =5×1= 5 meter/sec

so the option (a) will be the correct option as in option (a) velocity is given as 5 meter/sec

A wooden block (SG = 0.6) floats in oil (GS = 0.8). What fraction of the volume of the block is submerged in oil?

Answers

Answer:

3/4 th fraction of the volume of block is submerged in oil.

Explanation:

We know that

density of the block, ρ[tex]_{b}[/tex] =SG[tex]\times[/tex]density of water

                                                           = 0.6[tex]\times[/tex] 1000

                                                           = 600 kg/[tex]m^{3}[/tex]

density of the oil, ρ[tex]_{o}[/tex] =SG [tex]\times[/tex] denity of water

                                                           = 0.8[tex]\times[/tex] 1000

                                                           = 800 kg/[tex]m^{3}[/tex]

Let acceleration due to gravity, g = 9.81 m/[tex]s^{2}[/tex]

Volume of block submerged in oil is [tex]V_{1}[/tex]

Volume of block above the oil surface is [tex]V_{2}[/tex]

The total volume of the block is V = [tex]V_{1}[/tex]+[tex]V_{2}[/tex]

Therefore for a partially submerged body, we know that

Buoyant force = total weight of the block

and

total weight of the block = Weight of the fluid displaced by the block

ρ[tex]_{b}[/tex]\timesV\timesg = ρ[tex]_{o}[/tex]\times[tex]V_{1}[/tex]\times g

600([tex]V_{1}[/tex]+[tex]V_{2}[/tex]) = 800 [tex]V_{1}[/tex]

600[tex]V_{1}[/tex] + 600[tex]V_{2}[/tex] = 800 [tex]V_{1}[/tex]

600[tex]V_{2}[/tex] = 800 [tex]V_{1}[/tex] - 600[tex]V_{1}[/tex]

600[tex]V_{2}[/tex] = 200[tex]V_{1}[/tex]

[tex]\frac{V_{1}}{V_{2}}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{600}{200}[/tex]

Thus [tex]V_{1}[/tex] = 600

        [tex]V_{2}[/tex] = 200

        V = 600+200

            = 800

Therefore fraction of volume of the block submerged in oil is,

       [tex]\frac{V_{1}}{V}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{600}{800}[/tex]

       [tex]\frac{V_{1}}{V}[/tex] = [tex]\frac{3}{4}[/tex]

Which of the following are not related to a materials structure? (Mark all that apply) a)- Atomic bonding b)- Crystal structure c)- Atomic number d)- Microstructure

Answers

The answer is c) atomic number

In closed forging, why is flash needed and what is the effect with the overall pressure?

Answers

Explanation:

Closed die forging:

This is also known as impression die forging.By using the two die ,impression are made to produce desired forge product.A small gap provides between these two dies ,this small gap is called flash gutter.By the help of flash gutter excess ,material can flow and forms flash.

This flash plays an important role in the closed die forging.Generally friction is high in the flash gutter due to high ratio of length to thickness.So material feels high pressure and confirm the filling of die cavity.

The melting point of Pb (lead) is 327°C, is the processing at 20°C hot working or cold working?

Answers

Answer:

Explained

Explanation:

Cold working: It is plastic deformation of material at temperature below   recrystallization temperature. whereas hot working is deforming material above the recrystallization temperature.

Given melting point temp of lead is 327° C and lead recrystallizes at about

0.3 to 0.5 times melting temperature which will be higher that 20°C. Hence we can conclude that at 20°C lead will under go cold working only.

The "view factor" Fij depends on surface emissivity and surface geometry. a) True b) False

Answers

Answer:

(B) FALSE

Explanation:

view factor [tex]F_{ij}[/tex] depends on the surface emissivity and the surface of geometry  view factor is the term used in radiative heat transfer. View factor is depends upon the radiation which leave the surface and strike the surface.View factor is also called shape factor configuration factor it is denoted by  [tex]F_{ij}[/tex]

Water flows at the rate of 200 I/s upwards through a tapered vertical pipe. The diameter at Marks(3) CLO5) the bottom is 240 mm and at the top 200 mm and the length is 5m. The pressure at the bottom is 8 bar, and the pressure at the topside is 7.3 bar. Determine the head loss through the pipe. Express it as a function of exit velocity head.

Answers

Answer: 5.35m

Explanation:

By using energy equation:

[tex]\frac{P_1}{\gamma}+z_1+\frac{v_1^{2} }{2g}  =\frac{P_2}{\gamma}+z_2+\frac{v_2^{2} }{2g}+h_{L}[/tex]

[tex]\gamma=specific weight[/tex]

[tex]v_{1} =\frac{Q_1}{A_1} =\frac{0.2}{\frac{\pi }{4} \times 0.24^2} =4.42 m/s\\v_{2} =\frac{Q_2}{A_2} =\frac{0.2}{\frac{\pi }{4} \times 0.2^2} =6.37 m/s[/tex]

[tex]h_{L}=\frac{P_1-P_2}{\gamma}+z_1-z_2+\frac{v_1^{2}-v_2^{2} }{2g}[/tex]

[tex]h_{L}=\frac{(8-7.3)\times 100 }{9.81}  +0+5+\frac{4.42^2-6.37^2}{2\times 9.81}[/tex]

[tex]h_L=7.135+3.927\\h_L=11.062m[/tex]

exit velocity head = [tex]\frac{v_2^{2} }{2g}[/tex]=2.068m

head loss as a function of exit velocity head is=[tex]\frac{11.062}{2.068}[/tex]

[tex]h_L=K\times V_e[/tex]

head loss as a function of exit velocity head =5.35m

 

An object of mass 521 kg, initially having a velocity of 90 m/s, decelerates to a final velocity of 14 m/s. What is the change in kinetic energy of the object, in kJ?

Answers

Answer:2058.992KJ

Explanation:

Given data

Mass of object[tex]\left ( m\right )[/tex]=521kg

initial velocity[tex]\left ( v_0\right )[/tex]=90m/s

Final velocity[tex]\left ( v\right )[/tex]=14m/s

kinetic energy of body is given by=[tex]\frac{1}{2}[/tex][tex]m[/tex][tex]v^{2}[/tex]

change in kinectic energy is given by substracting  final kinetic energy from initial kinetic energy of body.

Change in kinetic energy=[tex]\frac{1}{2}\times m[/tex][tex]\left ( V_0^{2}-V^2\right )[/tex]

Change in kinetic energy=[tex]\frac{1}{2}\times521[/tex][tex]\left ( 90^{2}-14^2\right )[/tex]

Change in kinetic energy=2058.992KJ

What is the no-slip condition? What causes it?

Answers

The no-slip condition is the viscosity of a fluid.This is most likely brought on by stress or stressful situations.

Answer/Explanation:

The no-slip condition for viscous fluids assumes that at a solid boundary, the fluid will have zero velocity relative to the boundary. Along with a flow when adhesion is stronger than cohesion. ... Basically the molecules of the fluid crash into the molecules of the wall and get stopped.

Which of these is not applicable to tuning for some Overshoot on Start-up? Select one: 1)-No overshoot during normal modulating control only 2)-KC-0.2 KU 3)- KC 0.33 KU 4)- KC 0.59 KU 5)- KC-0.78 KU

Answers

Answer: 5) KC-0.78 KU

Explanation:

 KC-0.78 KU is not defined for tuning of overshoot on the Start-up as, this method is only applicable for there is some turning constants and also there is no overshoot during the normally modulating control. But some overshoot at start up are applicable. For the continuous cycling method, some overshoot is same as for closed loop tuning.    

An alternating current E(t) =120 sin(12t) has been running through a simple circuit for a long time. The circuit has an inductance of L = 0.2 henrys, a resistor of R = 5 ohms and a capacitor of capcitance C = 0.043 farads. What is the amplitude of the current I?

Answers

Answer:

Explanation:

we have given E(t)=120 sin(12t)

R=5 ohm

L=0.2 H

ω=12 ( from expression of E)

[tex]X_L=0.2\times 12=2.4[/tex] ohm

[tex]X_C=\frac{1}{\omega \times C}=\frac{1}{12\times 0.043}=1.9379\ ohm[/tex]

[tex]Z=\sqrt{R^2+\left ( \omega L-\frac{1}{\omega C} \right )^2}[/tex]

[tex]Z=\sqrt{5^2+\left ( \2.4-1.9379 )^2}[/tex]

=5.021 ohm

so amplitude of current =  [tex]\frac{v}{z}=\frac{120}{5.021}=23.89[/tex]

The contact angle between the mercury surface and capillary tube wall is______ A) Less than 90 B) Equal to 90 C) Greater than 90 D) Varying with mercury level

Answers

Answer:

The Answer to the question is :

Explanation:

The contact angle between the mercury surface and capillary tube wall is Greater than 90.

If the surface of the solid is hydrophobic, the contact angle will be greater than 90 °. On very hydrophobic surfaces the angle can be greater than 150º and even close to 180º.

For a fluid with a Prandtl Number of 1000.0, the hydrodynamic layer is thinner than the thermal boundary layers. a) True b) False

Answers

Answer:

(b)False

Explanation:

Given:

 Prandtl number(Pr) =1000.

We know that   [tex]Pr=\dfrac{\nu }{\alpha }[/tex]

  Where [tex]\nu[/tex] is the molecular diffusivity of momentum

             [tex]\alpha[/tex] is the molecular diffusivity of heat.

 Prandtl number(Pr) can also be defined as

    [tex]Pr=\left (\dfrac{\delta }{\delta _t}\right )^3[/tex]

Where [tex]\delta[/tex] is the hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness and [tex]\delta_t[/tex] is the thermal boundary layer thickness.

So if Pr>1 then hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness will be greater than thermal boundary layer thickness.

In given question Pr>1 so  hydrodynamic boundary layer thickness will be greater than thermal boundary layer thickness.

So hydrodynamic layer will be thicker than the thermal boundary layer.

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