According to Hans Selye, people are most susceptible to illness in the _____ stage of the general adaptation syndrome (GAS) model.

Answers

Answer 1

Answer:the exhaustion stage

Explanation:

According to Hans seyle, the body responses to stressors in three stages.

The first stage is the alarm stage where there is a burst of energy and the body is very active.

The second stage is the resistance stage where the body tries to resist this stressors.

The third stage is the exhaustion stage where the body have used up energy and at this stage the body is the weakest and susceptible to illness.


Related Questions

Select all that apply.

Regular exercise will enable you to perform daily tasks with an increased amount of:

energy
enthusiasm
knowledge
time

Answers

Energy enthusiasm hope that helps if not sorry

Answer: energy and enthusiasm

At 38 weeks' gestation a client is admitted to the birthing unit in active labor, and an external fetal monitor is applied. Late fetal heart rate decelerations begin to appear when her cervix is dilated 6 cm and her contractions are occurring every 4 minutes and lasting 45 seconds. What does the nurse conclude is the cause of these late decelerations?a. 1Imminent vaginal birthb. 2Uteroplacental insufficiencyc. 3Pattern of nonprogressive labord. 4Reassuring response to contractions

Answers

Answer:

Uteroplacental insufficiency

Explanation:

Ulteroplacental deficiency also known as a placental deficiency is damaging or misfunction of the placenta that causes an insufficient delivery of blood, with nutrients and oxygen, from the mother to the fetus. Ulteroplacental deficiency can be fatal for the fetus.

Lewis’s tone is complex. He moves between straightforward analysis and raw emotion, yet he is rarely ambivalent about his topic or position. How would you describe his tone? Characterize the tone as a phrase rather than a single word

Answers

Answer:

Lewis’ complex tone in which he is about his topic or position, moving between straightforward analysis and raw emotion, is called the objective or formal tone.

Explanation:

This tone is characterized by the means that the text will be referred to us in an impersonal style of writing, in a precise language which will give us rarely ambivalent information, but won´t include information about how the writer feels and won´t share writer´s opinion.

It requires a writer to do a vast amount of research to help support his ideas, to write in an official-sounding manner stating opposite viewpoints using facts and data only. It also requires adherence to some rules of language like refraining from using personal pronouns as it might indicate personal feeling and emotive words that might indicate an opinion on the part of the writer, avoid contractions and use passive voice.

The word choice in this tone needs to be considered carefully using words that are precise, objective, appropriate and impersonal, avoiding judgemental words and slangs, as it is used when a writer wants to deliver information in a neutral, factual and unbiased way so void asking questions too.

Virtue ethics is often applied to all fields of healthcare. All professionals involved in healthcare are expected to engage in behaviors that demonstrate excellence and virtue in their actions. This definition applies to which ethical term?

Answers

Answer:

This definition applies to the ethical term of responsibility.

Explanation:

Responsibility has to do with the accountability of a certain person performing a given action, following certain duties and moral codes.

Final answer:

The ethical term related to the behaviors expected of healthcare professionals that demonstrate excellence and virtue is virtue ethics. This approach emphasizes character development and well-being, with Aristotle's Nicomachean Ethics influential in its foundation.

Explanation:

The ethical term that applies to the definition provided, where healthcare professionals are expected to engage in behaviors that demonstrate excellence and virtue in their actions, is virtue ethics. Virtue ethics is a philosophical approach that focuses on cultivating good character traits or dispositions, emphasizing personal excellence and well-being. This moral theory advocates for individuals to develop virtues through self-reflection and aimed self-improvement, which aligns with the expected standards in healthcare for demonstrating excellent character and judgment in the care of patients. Aristotle's Nicomachean Ethics plays a significant role in this philosophical approach by suggesting that virtues represent a mean between extremes, which contributes to individual and societal well-being. In healthcare, virtues such as compassion, empathy, and bravery are crucial for ethical medical practice and patient care.

The term "cancer" describes a suite of diseases that differ by type, location, cause, treatment, and prognosis. Despite these differences, there are several diet and lifestyle choices that have the potential to influence the development of cancer cells in various parts of the body, either positively or negatively. True or False?

Answers

Answer:

True

Explanation:

Having a healthy and balanced lifestyle in addition to a diet where there are no toxins that can impact negatively on our body are crucial elements to prevent cancer. There are other factors such as genetics, pollution or the environment where we live that also influence the development of cancer.

A 4-year-old child has been admitted to the hospital with a diagnosis of pneumococcal pneumonia. The parents are extremely distraught over the child's condition and the fact that the child has not wanted to eat anything for the past 2 days. Which nursing approach would be most important to take to help alleviate the high anxiety level of the parents?

Answers

Allow the parents to remain with the child as much as possible.

Final answer:

Nurses can manage parents' anxiety about their child's pneumococcal pneumonia by employing therapeutic communication. This includes providing accurate information about the child's condition, facilitating communication with medical team, and providing resources for additional support.

Explanation:

The most crucial nursing approach to address the parents' anxiety related to their child's pneumococcal pneumonia and lack of appetite would be therapeutic communication. This refers to an interaction that provides emotional assistance by clarifying and explaining information. Nurses should reassure the parents and provide accurate information about the disease process, possible complications, and management. Acknowledging their concerns and fears is also vital. Additionally, they must explain that loss of appetite is a common symptom in pediatric pneumonia and it will improve as the child begins to recover.

The healthcare professionals can also facilitate communication with the pediatrician or the medical team looking after the child. This can allow the parents to get a clearer understanding of their child's situation and the prognosis. Lastly, providing resources for additional support such as social workers or psychologist counselors may also be beneficial for the parents.

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All of June's grandchildren have good appetites and enjoy eating a balanced diet. She needs to make sure they all get enough calories to grow properly. Based on her grandchildren's ages (2, 7, and 13) and genders, what are their most likely average daily calorie needs when sedentary (studying, reading, and playing on the computer), respectively?

Answers

Toddlers need 1,000 - 1,400 calories per day.
Females (2yrs) - 1,000 Males (2yrs) - 1,000

Small children need about 1,200 - 1,800
Females (7yrs) Males (7yrs)
Non-active - 1,200 Non-active - 1,400
Active - 1,600 Active - 1,600
Very active - 1,800 Very active - 1,800

Early teens need about 1,600 - 2,600
Females (13 yrs) Males (13yrs)
Non active - 1,600 Non active - 2,000
Active - 2,000 Active - 2,200
Very active - 2,200 Very active - 2,600
Final answer:

The average sedentary daily calorie needs are approximately 1000 calories for a 2-year-old, 1200-1600 for a 7-year-old, and 1600-2000 for a 13-year-old girl and 2000-2600 for a 13-year-old boy.

Explanation:

When determining the daily caloric needs for children of different ages and genders, it is important to understand that these numbers are averages and that individual needs can vary. For a sedentary lifestyle, which includes activities such as studying, reading, and playing on the computer, the estimated average daily calorie needs by age and gender are:

For a 2-year-old child: Around 1000 calories per day.A 7-year-old child: Approximately 1200 to 1600 calories per day for girls and boys, respectively.For a 13-year-old: Around 1600 to 2000 calories per day for girls and 2000 to 2600 calories for boys.

Keep in mind these are guidelines and individual requirements can differ based on factors like metabolism, growth rate, and activity level, even when predominantly sedentary. Factors such as a teenager who is an athlete will require significantly more calories than their sedentary counterpart.

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Vanessa is a new mom who is experiencing many of the pressures of having a new baby. She has always been thin and was alarmed by the weight she gained during pregnancy. In order to take the weight off, she went on a crash diet and now weighs less than she did before pregnancy. She was inspired by this weight loss and has continued to restrict her calories. She is now at 80% of her expected body weight and has expressed to her husband that she is still too fat. She avoids eating with other people and tries to eat less than 500 kilocalories per day. What eating disorder does Vanessa have?

Answers

Answer:

Anorexia nervosa

Explanation:

Anorexia nervosa is an eating disorder that affects people from all social situations, age or gender.

In this case we can easily identify Vanessa is facing it because she does not have the ideal weight according to her height, the self image of her body is distorted and she considers she is still fat and she is restricting the amount of kilocalories she needs to one that is not healthy.

Bell's palsy is ________. Bell's palsy is ________. characterized by paralysis of facial muscles often caused by inflammation of the trigeminal nerve characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles characterized by loss of vision.

Answers

Final answer:

Bell's palsy is a sudden facial paralysis usually affecting one side due to inflammation of the facial nerve. It most commonly impairs blinking and smiling, but does not induce partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles or loss of vision.

Explanation:

Bell's palsy is a condition characterized by the sudden onset of facial paralysis or weakening on one side of the face. This results from the inflammation of the facial nerve, also known as the trigeminal nerve, often due to viral infections. This paralysis usually affects one's ability to blink and smile. Bell's palsy is not characterized by partial paralysis of diaphragm muscles or loss of vision.

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Final answer:

Bell's palsy is characterized by sudden, temporary weakness or facial muscle paralysis often caused by trigeminal nerve inflammation. It should not be confused with Guillain-Barré syndrome, an autoimmune disease causing flaccid paralysis, or botulism, both of which affect the peripheral nervous system.

Explanation:

Bell's palsy is characterized by the paralysis of facial muscles, often caused by trigeminal nerve inflammation. Bell's palsy is when a person experiences a sudden, temporary weakness or paralysis of the muscles on one side of the face. This condition occurs when the facial nerve, which controls facial muscles, becomes inflamed. The symptoms are similar to those of a stroke and typically appear suddenly and reach their peak within 48 hours. They may include sudden weakness or paralysis on one side of the face, drooping of the mouth or the eyelids on one side, and increased sensitivity to sound in one ear.

It's important to differentiate Bell's palsy from Guillain-Barré syndrome, an autoimmune disease characterized by the destruction of myelin sheaths around neurons, causing flaccid paralysis. Guillain-Barré syndrome affects the peripheral nervous system and often leads to sensory symptoms or motor deficits. Another related condition is botulism, which also causes progressive flaccid paralysis.

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A nurse in the antepartum clinic is assessing a client's adaptation to pregnancy. The client states that she is, "happy one minute and crying the next." The nurse should interpret the client's statement as an indication of which of the following?a. The nurse should recognize and interpret the client's statement as an indication of emotional lability.b. Many women experience rapid and unpredictable changes in mood during pregnancy.c. Intense hormonal changes may be responsible for mood changes that occur during pregnancy.d. Tears and anger alternate with feelings of joy or cheerfulness for little or no reason.

Answers

Final answer:

In pregnancy, emotional lability is common and reflects the intense hormonal changes occurring in the body. These mood swings, which can alternate from tears and anger to joy and cheerfulness, are often unpredictable.

Explanation:

The nurse should interpret the client's statement as an indication of emotional lability, which is a common phenomenon in pregnancy. This is characterized by rapid, often unpredictable mood swings. These sudden shifts in mood, from happiness to tears, can be attributed to the intense hormonal changes that occur during pregnancy. Thus, such emotional experiences, where tears and anger alternate with feelings of joy or cheerfulness for little or no reason, are quite normal and to be expected.

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Final answer:

The nurse should interpret the client's rapid changes in emotions as an indication of emotional lability, a typical manifestation during pregnancy due to profound hormonal shifts.

Explanation:

Based on the client's statement that she experiences rapid changes in emotions, the nurse should interpret this as an indication of emotional lability. Emotional lability is common during pregnancy due to the intense hormonal changes that occur. These hormonal changes can trigger unpredictable mood swings, causing a woman to alternate rapidly amongst different emotions such as tears, anger, happiness, or cheerfulness, often for little to no apparent reason. Therefore, the client's changing emotional states are a typical adaptive process to pregnancy.

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Low alveolar po2 can be caused by one of two mechanisms. One of them is that the inspired air has low oxygen content. What is the other reason?

Answers

Answer:

Hypoventilation

Explanation:

The prefix hypo means below, or less than normal. Hypoventilation is the other reason that can cause low alveolar po2. When this situation happens it means that the amount of ventilation is not the adequate to perform the correct gas exchange.This condition is considered a medical emergency and it is necessary to act immediately.

Approximately _____ percent of all women and _____ percent of all men will have at least one depressive episode in their lifetimes.

Answers

Answer:

25% women and 10% men

Explanation:

10.4 percent women and 5.5 percent men

47. Although Francesca has been obese for as long as she can remember, she is determined to lose excess body weight with a low-calorie diet. When dieting, Francesca is most likely to have difficulty becoming and staying thin because :

Answers

Final answer:

Francesca is likely to have difficulty becoming and staying thin due to factors such as inactivity, genetics, metabolism, and the body's set point. Obese people can struggle to lose weight due to their bodies becoming more efficient when caloric intake is reduced.

Explanation:

When dieting, Francesca is most likely to have difficulty becoming and staying thin because of a combination of factors including inactivity, genetics, metabolism, and the body's set point (ideal weight). When a person cuts caloric intake, the body reacts as if it is starving and becomes more efficient, making it harder to lose weight. Obese people may also have difficulty in losing weight because of the adaptation of their bodies to certain weights and the fact that they often consume more calories than they burn.

Francesca is most likely to have difficulty becoming and staying thin because of adaptive thermogenesis.

Adaptive thermogenesis refers to the process by which the body's metabolism slows down in response to a reduction in calorie intake. When Francesca starts a low-calorie diet, her body may respond by decreasing its resting metabolic rate to conserve energy, making it harder to lose weight. This is a natural physiological response that can persist even after weight loss, contributing to the difficulty in maintaining a lower body weight.

Other factors that can make it challenging for individuals like Francesca to lose weight and keep it off include:

1. Hormonal changes: Dieting can lead to changes in hormones that regulate hunger and satiety, such as ghrelin and leptin, which can increase appetite and decrease feelings of fullness.

2. Reduced energy expenditure: As Francesca loses weight, her body requires fewer calories to maintain its new, lower weight, which can make it easy to regain weight if she returns to her previous eating habits.

3. Psychological factors: The psychological stress of dieting, along with the social and emotional challenges associated with changing eating habits, can lead to overeating or abandoning the diet altogether.

4. Genetic predisposition: Genetics play a role in obesity, influencing metabolism, fat storage, and the body's response to food.

5. Lifestyle and environmental factors: Physical inactivity, lack of sleep, and other environmental factors can contribute to obesity and hinder weight loss efforts.

Although Maria can encode and consciously recall new information, she is unable to consciously recall events that happened prior to the brain damage that she suffered as an adolescent. Maria's memory difficulty most clearly illustrates _____.

Answers

Answer:

The correct answer is - retrograde amnesia.

Explanation:

Amnesia is a medical condition in which an individual loses the memory of a period of time that can be affected by the different causes. Amnesia can be of four types Retrograde amnesia, Anterograde amnesia, Transient global amnesia, and Infantile amnesia.

Retrograde amnesia is memoryless to the events or the knowledge or information that was learned that occurred before the injury or the due to some onset of disease. Maria is experiencing retrograde amnesia as she is not able to remember events before adolescents before the injury or damage.

Thus, the correct answer is - retrograde amnesia.

A client had been withdrawn in the client's room for 3 days, not eating or sleeping, prior to his admission to the inpatient unit. Upon interview, the client demonstrates difficulty answering questions, appears to have no facial expressions, and cannot follow simple instructions. This cluster of symptoms can be described as what?

Answers

Answer:

negative symptoms.

Explanation:

Which of the following roles would require the knowledge of psychological, social, economic, and cultural determinants of behavior and methods to promote healthy lifestyles?

a. public information specialists
b. health educators
c. public health administrators
d. epidemiologists

Answers

B health educators educate people about health care services and teach others about behavior that promote wellness

On e theory about the development of neurocognitive disorder due to Alzheimer’s disease suggests that the formatio n of solid waxy proteins in the brain causes the disorder in a process similar to

Answers

Answer and Explanation:

  Alzheimer's disease (AD) is a neurodegenerative disease probably caused by the accumulation of beta-amyloid peptide in the brain. AD is the leading cause of dementia in the elderly people. Usually presents with gradual symptoms of loss of cognitive functions (memory, orientation, attention and language) caused by the death of neurons.  

  Similar to AD, we have Lewy body dementia and Parkinson's disease dementia, which may be variations of the same disease. In this disease, synuclein (a protein in the brain that helps nerve cells to communicate) changes shape (remains "badly folded") and slowly accumulates mainly in the brain, but also in the digestive tract and heart. These abnormal synuclein deposits are called Lewy bodies. Misfolded synuclein in Lewy bodies triggers more misfolded synuclein, resulting in the formation of more Lewy bodies. Brain damage results from the accumulation of Lewy bodies. Lewy bodies also is develop in some people with Alzheimer's disease,

Robin, a 30-year-old woman, has a strong sexual preference for men. Rodney has always had strong erotic inclinations for men since he attained puberty. Which of the following can be definitely said of the brain structures of Robin and Rodney?

Answers

Answer:

The brain structure of Robin and Rodney is symmetrical.

Explanation:

Robin and Rodney have symmetrical brain hemispheres. They have strong different sexual orientations since puberty, Robin for men and Rodney for men, but sexual orientation or erotic inclinations are not related to the shape or asymmetry of the brain.

An adult client is suspected of having an androgen deficiency and has spoken with his primary care provider about the possibility of treatment with testosterone. The use of testosterone would be most complicated by the presence of what pre existing health problem

Answers

Answer:

Benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).

Explanation:

Androgen may be defined as the group of different hormones that play an important role in the development of male traits and reproductive ability of human male.

Testosterone hormone can be used in androgen deficiency. But the individual suffering from BPH cannot be given the hormonal therapy. The testosterone hormone therapy in case of BPH worse the sign and symptoms of BPH. This also increases the complication of lower urinary tract.

Thus, the correct answer is benign prostatic hyperplasia (BPH).

Which exposure technique do the American Academy of Oral and Maxillofacial Radiology and the American Dental Education Association recommend?

Answers

Answer:

parallel

Explanation:

Based on the information provided within the question it can be said that all of these associations recommend the parallel exposure technique. This is a technique for dental radiography, in which you place a film parallel to the clients teeth and then place the central ray perpendicular to the teeth. This creates a radiograph with very little geometric distortion. Which is why it is the most recommended.

The recommended exposure techniques to minimize radiation include using fast films (time), maintaining a safe distance, and utilizing lead shielding. These precautions protect both patients and dental technicians during X-ray procedures.

The American Academy of Oral and Maxillofacial Radiology and the American Dental Education Association recommend using techniques that minimize patient and technician exposure to radiation. This involves three primary methods:

Time: Utilizing fast films and digital sensors to reduce the duration of exposure.

Distance: The technician stands behind a lead-lined door with a lead glass window to minimize exposure.

Shielding: The use of lead aprons on patients and shielding around the X-ray tube to protect against unnecessary exposure.

Figure 32.10 illustrates how these techniques are applied: a lead apron on the patient, shielding around the X-ray tube, and the technician enhancing safety measures by distancing herself from the source.

Parents of a 20-month-old infant report that he refuses food or eats poorly and that he grimaces when he swallows. He also is irritable and cries a lot. The mother is worried that he ate something inappropriate this morning, because he vomited something that looked like coffee grounds. Which of the following health problems would the care team first suspect?A) Rotavirus infectionB) AppendicitisC) Esophagitis from gastrointestinal refluxD) Hirschsprung disease

Answers

Answer:

esophagitis from gastrointestinal reflux.

Explanation:

It is an inflammation and as a result it damages tissues of the esophagus. Esophagus is a muscular tube with a role of delivering food from one's mouth to stomach. It is very painful, it makes it difficult to swallow and sometimes there is even pain in the chest. There are many different reasons why it happens, some of them are strong medicaments, allergies and infections.

"The correct answer is C) Esophagitis from gastrointestinal reflux.

The symptoms described by the parents suggest that the infant may be suffering from esophagitis due to gastrointestinal reflux. Esophagitis is an inflammation of the esophagus, which can be caused by stomach acid refluxing into the esophagus. The key indicators supporting this diagnosis include:

1. Refusal of food or poor eating: The infant may associate eating with the pain of reflux and subsequent esophagitis, leading to food refusal or poor eating habits.

2. Grimacing when swallowing: This could be a sign of pain due to inflammation in the esophagus.

3. Irritability and crying: These are non-specific symptoms but can be associated with discomfort from esophagitis.

4. Vomiting that looks like coffee grounds: This is a particularly concerning symptom as it may indicate that the infant is vomiting blood that has been partially digested, which can be a sign of esophagitis or another gastrointestinal bleed.

Let's consider the other options:

A) Rotavirus infection: While rotavirus can cause vomiting and irritability, it typically presents with watery diarrhea and fever, which are not mentioned in the scenario.

B) Appendicitis: This is less likely in a 20-month-old infant and usually presents with abdominal pain, which starts around the belly button and moves to the lower right side of the abdomen, often accompanied by fever and a reluctance to move.

D) Hirschsprung disease: This condition is characterized by the absence of ganglion cells in a segment of the bowel, leading to a functional obstruction. Symptoms usually include delayed passage of meconium in the newborn period, chronic constipation, and failure to thrive. Vomiting coffee-ground-like material is not typically associated with Hirschsprung disease.

Given the symptoms of food refusal, pain with swallowing, irritability, and vomiting of what appears to be coffee grounds, esophagitis from gastrointestinal reflux is the most likely diagnosis that the care team would first suspect."

A client diagnosed with Polycythemia vera has come into the clinic because they have developed a night-time cough, fatigue, and shortness of breath. What complication would you suspect in this client?
A. Stroke
B. Tissue infarction
C. Congestive heart failure
D. Pulmonary embolus

Answers

Answer:

C) Congestive heart failure

Explanation:

Polycythema is a stem cell disorder in bone marrow or slow growing blood cancer in which marrow produces too much Red blood Cell. This blood thickening leads to Heart Failure or congestive heart failure, it's sign and symptoms are cough, fatigue and shortness of breath.

what is the "cancer" of mental illness? Explain how twin studies were used to note the differences in the brain between people who have this diagnoses and the co-twins who do not. (What looks different about the brains of the twins where only one had the disease?

Answers

Answer:

Cancer is a disease in which abnormal cells divide uncontrollably and destroy body tissue.

Explanation:

People with mental disorders, especially mood problems like clinical depression and bipolar disorder, have a high risk of developing certain cancers at younger ages, including brain and lung cancer.

The difference between the brain of the twin:

The study found that those with schizophrenia, compared with their identical twins, had smaller brain volume, especially in the critical areas involved in thinking, concentration, memory and perception. The study offers ''irrefutable evidence that schizophrenia is a brain disorder''.

Which statement is true about illness and disability in middle adulthood? A Unintentional injuries more than double from early to middle adulthood.B Men are more vulnerable than women to most health problems in midlife.C Falls resulting in bone fractures and death occur at a lower rate than in early adulthood.D Economic disadvantage is a weak predictor of poor health and premature death in midlife.

Answers

Answer:

B. Men are more vulnerable than women to most health problems in midlife.

Explanation:

Under the biological approach, one can cite the greater predisposition to the occurrence of serious diseases during middle adulthood. From a social point of view, males tend to behave more risky, favoring aggressive behavior and dangerous driving of vehicles and still consuming alcohol and cigarettes more often than women, for example. As men engage in harmful behavior more often and women have a greater habit of having regular medical appointments, we can agree that men are more vulnerable to more health problems in midlife.

When discussing gender, the focus of attention is always on women, but health indicators have shown that men also require attention and investment, based on specific public health policies and disease prevention.

Final answer:

Economic disadvantage is a strong predictor of poor health and premature death in midlife. There is also an increase in disability and chronic diseases such as arthritis, hypertension, heart disease, and cancer after 65 years. However, unintentional injuries do not necessarily double from early to middle adulthood.

Explanation:

The question asks which statement is true about illness and disability in middle adulthood. According to various studies and statistical data, the most accurate statement is the one that identifies economic disadvantage as a strong predictor of poor health and premature death in midlife. This is linked to a number of factors, including access to quality medical care and healthy food, and the stress associated with poverty.

Disability and chronic diseases such as arthritis, hypertension, heart disease, and cancer are seen to increase with age, especially after 65 years. However, unintentional injuries do not necessarily double from early to middle adulthood, many men exhibit strong health profiles into middle age, and falls leading to severe injuries may not necessarily occur at a lower rate in comparison to early adulthood.

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Shelly, a breastfeeding mom, is obtaining the equivalent of 8 cups of water per day from foods and beverages and feels that she is drinking enough water. How many more cups of fluid should Shelly really be consuming per day?

a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5

Answers

Answer:

d. 5

Explanation:

Being hydrated can help produce breast milk and also improve Shelly's health.

Final answer:

Breastfeeding mom Shelly should consume 3 more cups of fluid per day in addition to the 8 cups she is already obtaining from food and beverages, to meet the Institute of Medicine's Adequate Intake recommendation.

Explanation:

According to the Food and Nutrition Board of the Institute of Medicine (IOM), the Adequate Intake (AI) for water for adult females is 2.7 liters (11 cups), inclusive of all dietary sources of water. Breastfeeding mothers typically need to consume more water than the recommended amount for adult females due to the additional demand of milk production. Considering Shelly is already obtaining the equivalent of 8 cups of water from foods and beverages, she should increase her fluid intake to meet the AI. If we subtract the 8 cups she is already consuming from the 11 cups recommended, we find that Shelly should be consuming 3 more cups of fluid per day to reach the AI recommendation for water intake. Option b is correct .

Improved coping ability ,contributing to community, being hopeful about yourself signs of positive mental well being, signs of high self esteem, sign of positive emotional well being

Answers

Answer:

being hopeful about yourself signs of positive mental wel being

Explanation:

The mother of a 10-year-old boy with diabetes type 1 calls, very concerned about her son. He has been sick for 2 days with a fever and loss of appetite, and he now is very lethargic and is vomiting, and his breath smells fruity. What health emergency may be developing?

Answers

Answer:

Diabetic coma.

Explanation:

Diabetic coma is a very dangerous medical emergency that occurs to people diagnosed with diabetes as a consequence of either high blood sugar (hyperglycemia) or low blood sugar (hypoglycemia). It leads to unconsciousness and without adequate treatment can end in one's death.

In this scenario, the little boy is experiencing all the symptoms of hypoglycemia.

The EMT must assume that any unwitnessed water-related incident is accompanied by:_________
A. alcohol intoxication.
B. possible spinal injury.
C. cold-water immersion.
D. an air embolism.

Answers

Answer:

A

Explanation:

Where could you go for help specific to alcoholism in the ankeny/des moines area?

Answers

Answer:

The are several facilities that can help a person with alcohol addiction such as Family support Powell Chemical Dependency Center, Des Moines , IA Drug & Alcohol Rehab/ Detox & Treatment Centers among others.

Explanation:

The are several facilities that can help a person with alcohol addiction such as Family support Powell Chemical Dependency Center, Des Moines , IA Drug & Alcohol Rehab/ Detox & Treatment Centers among others. These reabilitations centers will provide all the care the addicted person needs, and his family too. They can count on specific programs, psychologists and counseling to help them to deal with this sad disease. Alcohol abuse must be taken serious, it is letal, there is no cure, it destroys families and lives.

You are assessing​ 30-year-old man who has fallen about 20 feet. He is alert and oriented but states that he cannot move or feel his legs.​ Additionally, because his blood pressure is​ 82/48 mmHg, you suspect neurogenic shock. Which of the following additional assessment findings reinforces your suspicion of neurogenic​ shock?
A. Warm and dry skin
B. Heart rate of 144
C. Heart rate of 44
D. Shallow rapid respirations

Answers

Answer:

A.

D.

Explanation:

Neurogenic shock is a type of shock that's manifested through low blood pressure, slower heart rate than usual. It is a result from damaging the central nervous system, like brain injury and spinal cord injury.

Some of the symptoms: Enormous pain in the chest, low heart rate (bradycardia, the opposite from tachycardia), very warm and dry skin, discolored lips and fingertips,  shallow but fast breathing, feeling of weakness, etc.

Other Questions
1. What is the central idea of the section "Service Record." Use two text details tosupport your answer. Seventeen-year-old Ashley is driving her brothers car when she has her first-ever flat tire. She realizes that she needs to find where the spare tire, the jack, and other tools are stored in the car, remove the flat tire, and install the spare tire. Ashley is approaching the problem by: Fred decides that he would rather buy the new refrigerator. How much more will he pay for the new refrigerator than he would for the old model? Consider repairs as part of the cost of the old model.A. $51.00B. $108.05C. $65.00D. $415.00 PLS HELP!I really wanna cry I dont understand this Which of the following is TRUE about the Seattle Longitudinal Study?a.New waves of participants are added periodically.b.Participants have been assessed in two-year intervals since 1985.c.It involves extensive evaluation of sexual abilities during adulthood.d.It was initiated by John Horn. How can classical conditioning be used to explain the development of a panic disorder? what symbol compare fractions 5/7 1/13 The atomic number of an element is the same as the number of its 1. According to the passage, why does the narratorspend time in his mother's parents' home?A) He always goes with his mother when shevisits there.B) His grandmother insists that he come withhis mother.C) He lives with his grandmother most of theyear.D) His grandmother needs extra help. During the early part of the 20th century, new governments often grew out of the strong emotions and social attitudes of a country's people. What emotions were reflected in the fascism that arose during this era?a.confidence and optimismb. expectation and prosperityc. despair and hopelessnessd. anger and resentment Which of the following is an example of fixed ratio reinforcement schedule?a.feeding your fish every day at 8 a.m.b.checking your e-mail at random times throughout the day instead of every time you hear the new e-mail notification.c.knowing you will get to play miniature golf as soon as you collect 10 gold stars for your reward chart.d.playing the slot machine.Difficulty: ModerateAPA Standard: 1.2, 1.3, 2.1 A healthy way to gain weight would be to simply add more calories to your diet. Group of answer choices Given the example of Serbias independence from the Ottoman Empire in 1885, do ethnicities seeking their own nations have other methods to address their concerns beyond resorting to terrorism? Explain. The specific heat capacity of copper is three times the specific heat capacity of lead. Equal masses of copper and lead are heated from room temperature to the temperature of boiling water. To achieve this, the amount of heat added to the copper is ___________ the amount of heat added to the lead. write the product in its simplest form 3w^57w^5 A program is seeded with 30 faults. During testing, 21 faults are detected, 15 of which are seeded faults and 6 of which are indigenous faults. What is the Mill's estimate of the number of indigenous faults remaining undetected in the program? Arthur reads an article describing an experiment to test the effects of caffeine on the reaction time of humanshow long it took them to respond to a particular signal. In the experiment, the subjects' reaction times were measured, then they were divided into three groups. One group was given a high dose of caffeine. The second group was given a medium dose of caffeine. The third group was given a sugar pill that had no caffeine. After waiting 45 min for the caffeine to take effect, the reaction times were measured again.In the experiment Arthur read about, what was the dependent variable? A. the amount of caffeine given to each person B. the type of signal each person responded to C. the amount of time the caffeine was given to take effect D. the change in reaction times for each person Who bursted into a mens only meeting to convince the Patriots not to surrender to the British Difference between first degree and second degree murder Which of the following actions by the American Indian Movement gained itnational attention?A. It took over the Bureau of Indian Affairs in Washington, D.C. and the South Dakota town of Wounded Knee.B. It worked to have a number of American Indians elected to theHouse of Representatives and the Senate.C. It organized a sit-in in New York City to protest the sale of Manhattan for $24 worth of beads.D. It got over 100 different tribes to meet in a conference in Arizonato plan self-determination goals.