Answer:
Explanation:
ND-630 decreases fatty acid synthesis. It stimulates fatty acid oxidation in cultured cells. Further, it reduces hepatic steatosis, enhances insulin sensitivity, reduces weight gain without having an impact on food intake.
ND-630 is an allosteric inhibitor of acetyl-CoA carboxylase (ACC) dimerization. It that inhibits ACC1 and ACC2 activity (IC50s = 2.1 and 6.1 nM, respectively, for the human enzymes). It is selective for ACC over 101 enzymes, receptors, growth factors, transporters, and ion channels up to a concentration of 10 µM. ND-630 prevents dimerization of ACC by interacting within the phosphopeptide-acceptor and dimerization site.
HD-630 affects dyslipidemia and reduces hepatic steatosis, improves glucose-stimulated insulin secretion. It reduces haemoglobin A1c in Zucker diabetic fatty rats. ND- 630 modulates key metabolic parameters in liver and muscle. Also, it modulates key plasma and liver lipids in-vivo (decreases liver free fatty acids, decrease plasma triglycerides, decrease plasma cholesterol).
ND- 630 may be beneficial in the treatment of metabolic disorders (metabolic syndrome, diabetes II, fatty liver disorder). ND-630 is effective in disorders such as liver disease progression from nonalcoholic fatty to non-alcoholic steatohepatitis and hepatocellular carcinoma.
ND-630 is hepatoselective inhibitor of Acetyl-CoA carboxylase to affect these liver disorders. It is a selective allosteric inhibitor and is modulating NASH-relevant endpoints.
It has an ability for tissue targeted ACC inhibition to improve metabolic syndrome pathways, decrease liver steatosis, decrease expression of inflammatory markers and improve fibrosis.
ND-630 can reduce acutely malonyl-CoA in the liver (reducing hepatic FASyn) and in certain muscles of rats; the soleus (containing primarily type slow-twitch oxidative fibres), the extensor digitorum longus (containing primarily type II fast-twitch glycolytic fibres), the gastrocnemius (containing both fibres).
In recent research, no ND-630–related clinical signs and no changes in body weight, food consumption, haematology, coagulation, or clinical chemistries were observed. There were no toxicologically significant findings in clinical chemistry associated with liver, kidney, or muscle integrity or function.
Certain allosteric proteins such as acetyl-CoA carboxylase inhibitors may inhibit enzymatic activity.
AMPK, or AMP-activated protein kinase are the regulatory molecule that will act as an antagonist to ND-630.
The regulatory molecule that will act as an antagonist to ND-630 is AMPK, or AMP-activated protein kinase. AMPK phosphorylates and inhibits acetyl CoA carboxylase, thereby reducing fatty acid synthesis.
In contrast, ND-630 inhibits acetyl CoA carboxylase directly. Therefore, AMPK counteracts the inhibitory effects of ND-630 by phosphorylating and inactivating acetyl CoA carboxylase, ultimately reducing fatty acid synthesis."
An obese Hispanic client, age 65, is diagnosed with type 2 diabetes. Which statement about diabetes mellitus is true?
A. Nearly two-thirds of clients with diabetes mellitus are older than age 60.
B. Approximately one-half of the clients diagnosed with type 2 diabetes are obese.
C. Diabetes mellitus is more common in Hispanics and Blacks than in Whites.
D. Type 2 diabetes mellitus is less common than type 1 diabetes mellitus.
Answer:
C. Diabetes mellitus is more common in Hispanics and Blacks than in Whites.
Explanation:
According to a research carried by an Endocrine Society diabetes mellitus, also known as diabetes type 2, is more common in Hispanic and Black people than in white people due to biological and clinical factors as well as social conditions and lifestyle.
Answer: C
Explanation:
African Americans used to not be exposed to many diseases white on the other hand caught it and developed a resistance against most of the diseases
Define the following disorders associated with cranial nerves and the brachial plexus. In your response include, the name of the cranial and peripheral nerves involved, signs and symptoms associated with the disorder and current treatment. Bell’s Palsy (unilateral facial paralysis) Sixth nerve palsy Klumpke’s paralysis Erb’s palsy Saturday night palsy Tic Douloureux
Answer:
Bell’s Palsy (unilateral facial paralysis)
Bell’s palsy is an idiopathic, peripheral facial nerve paralysis which is associated with parasympathetic stimulation to the lacrimal, salivary glands and anterior tongue area.
Sixth nerve palsy
Sixth nerve palsy is an eye movement disorder caused due to sixth cranial nerve damage. The sixth cranial nerve send signals to lateral rectus muscle located on the outer side of eye.
Klumpke’s paralysis
Klumpke’s paralysis is a birth injury of the brachial plexus nerve located in the shoulder region. Klumpke’s paralysis is a brachial plexus injury that paralyses the lower arm and hand.
Erb’s Palsy
Erb’s Palsy is another brachial plexus injury that causes paralysis of the upper extremity and causes shoulder dystocia.
Saturday night palsy
A lipoma near the deep radial nerve may cause paralysis, wrist drop and loss of sensation in the fingers known as Saturday night palsy or sleep paralysis.
Tic Douloureux
Tic douloureux is also known as trigeminal neuralgia is a painful disorder of the fifth cranial nerve. The fifth cranial nerve or trigeminal nerve is responsible for detecting touch, pain, temperature and pressure sensations.
Explanation:
Bell’s Palsy (unilateral facial paralysis)
It is characterized as a facial muscle weakness, swelling and inflammation of facial nerves. Facial drop, drooling, jaw and ear pain, changes in taste buds and salivation, increased sensitivity to sound are some of the symptoms of Bell’s palsy. Bell’s palsy is generally caused due to viral infections and antiviral drugs are given to treat the condition. Corticosteroids are also added to the drug regimen to manage swelling, pain and inflammation. Physical therapy and decompression surgery is also indicated for patients who did not improve with medications alone.
Sixth nerve palsy
The damage to this nerve weakens the lateral rectus muscle and eye crossing away from nose cannot take place. The most common symptom of sixth nerve palsy is double vision and impaired vision when looking in direction away from nose. This poor eye alignment is also known as crossed eye defect. Corticosteroids are given to patients of sixth nerve palsy so that bacterial inflammation can be treated. Prism glasses are given to patients of sixth nerve palsy to align their eyes and improve cross vision. Botulinum toxin injections are also given to these patients as it paralyzes muscles of one side of eye and corrects crossed vision.
Klumpke’s paralysis
Symptoms of Klumpke’s paralysis are weakness and loss of movement in lower arm and hand. The affected arm is massaged gently and range of motion (ROM) exercises are performed. If the paralysis persists, infants are taken into nerve grafting surgery, tendon transfers etc.
Erb’s Palsy
The cranial nerves C5 and C6 responsible for control and movement of upper extremity are injured. Therefore, child has difficulty in moving arm, bending elbow, and gripping objects. A diverse team of specialist including physical therapist, neurosurgeons, orthopedic surgeons, neurosurgeons and occupational therapist are needed to devise a treatment plan for Erb’s palsy patients. Surgical approach for Erb’s Palsy is recommended in the first six months of birth to get most effective results.
Saturday night palsy
Clinical symptoms of Saturday night palsy include motor weakness, sensory disturbance, and cervical disc problems. Treatment of Saturday night palsy can be done by supporting the radial nerve with splint and surgery for removal of lipoma can also be performed in suitable condition.
Tic Douloureux
The disease is characterized by sudden onset of excruciating pain in the jaw and forehead which might be triggered any type of facial movement such as talking, brushing the teeth, shaving, or changes in temperature. The treatment of choice for trigeminal neuralgia is carbamazepine which decrease the ability of trigeminal nerve to produce painful impulses. Other drugs in the medication regimen may include gabapentin, phenytoin, valproic acid, baclofen, oxycodone, and topiramate.
The correct option is Bell’s Palsy (unilateral facial paralysis) .
Explanation of various cranial nerve and brachial plexus disorders including symptoms and treatment.
Bell’s Palsy: Cranial nerve involved: Facial nerve (CN VII). Signs and symptoms: Unilateral facial paralysis, drooping of the mouth, difficulty closing the eye on the affected side. Treatment: Steroids, antiviral medications, eye care, physical therapy.Sixth nerve palsy: Cranial nerve involved: Abducens nerve (CN VI). Signs and symptoms: Difficulty moving the eye outward, double vision. Treatment: Address underlying cause, prism glasses, eye muscle surgery.Brachial plexus disorders: - Klumpke’s paralysis: Lower trunk of brachial plexus (C8-T1). Signs and symptoms: Paralysis of hand and forearm muscles. Treatment: Physical therapy, possible surgical intervention. - Erb’s palsy: Upper trunk of brachial plexus (C5-C6). Signs and symptoms: Weakness or paralysis of the arm, inability to raise the arm. Treatment: Physical therapy, possible surgery.Saturday night palsy: Radial nerve. Signs and symptoms: wrist drop, weakness in the wrist and hand. Treatment: Rest, splinting, physical therapy.Tic Douloureux: Trigeminal nerve (CN V). Signs and symptoms: Intense, shooting facial pain. Treatment: Medications, nerve blocks, surgery if needed.The time management skill of knowing your limits mean
The correct answer would be, Keeping realistic expectations of what you can accomplish
The time management skill of knowing your limits means keeping realistic expectations of what you can accomplish.
Explanation:
It is very important for a person to know the potential within himself. He must know that what he is capable of doing. He must set realistic goals for himself to achieve anything.
So the time management skill of knowing you limits means, a person must know what he can accomplish within a given time period.
For example, if you set a goal of reading a 500 pages book in 2 hours, it won't be realistic. You won't be able to accomplish this goal. So you must set realistic expectations.
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Answer:
The answer is A
Explanation:
You have probably noticed that urine is not always the same. The body is capable of adjusting the volume and the osmolarity of its urine output depending on a number of factors. The kidneys are regulated by hormones such as antidiuretic hormone (ADH) and aldosterone. These hormones are secreted in response to changes in the animal's internal water and salt balance. For example, sweating or blood loss can disrupt water and/or salt balance in the body, leading to a hormonal response that returns the system to homeostasis. Mechanisms for adjusting blood volume or osmolarity include increasing water and/or sodium reabsorption in the nephrons and collecting ducts. How do the following stimuli affect water and sodium (Na+) reabsorption in the kidneys?
Match each item to appropriate category
1) eating salty food
2) blood loss
3) alcohol consumption
4) aldosterone release
5) severe diarhea
6) sweating
7) diabetes insipidus
8) caffine consumption
9) ADH secretion
10) dehydration due to inadequate water intake
a) increases both water and Na+ reabsorption
b) does not increase water or Na+ reabsorption
c) increases water reabsorption
Answer:
1) eating salty food= c) increases water reabsorption
2) blood loss= a) increases both water and Na+ reabsorption
3) alcohol consumption= a) Increases both water and Na+ reabsorption
4) Aldosterone release= a) Increases both water and Na+ reabsorption
5) Severe diarrhea= a) Increases both water and Na+ reabsorption
6) Sweating= a) Increases both water and Na+ reabsorption
7) diabetes insipidus= c) Increases water reabsorption
8) caffeine consumption= b) does not increase water or Na+ reabsorption.
9) ADH secretion= c) increases water reabsorption
10) dehydration due to inadequate water intake= c) increases water reabsorption.
Explanation:
1) eating salty food
An acute renal Na+ conversion occurs because of eating salty food and is mediated by angiotensin II enzymes and aldosterone. Aldosterone promotes the conversion of sodium in sweating and feces. Increased water intake is also indicative of diluting excess of Na+ also known as dilutional hyponatremia.
2) blood loss
Blood loss cause release of angiotensin II enzyme which has a vasoconstrictor effect and immediately improves blood pressure. This enzyme causes constriction of both afferent and efferent arterioles in the kidneys and reduces the glomerular filtration rate (GFR). As a result, decrease in fluid loss from kidneys helps in preserving the blood pressure.
3) alcohol consumption
Low sodium blood levels are reported in alcoholic patients due to electrolyte disorder and reset of cerebral osmolarity.
4) Aldosterone release
Aldosterone is also known as the salt-retaining hormone and is released in response to decrease Na+ and increased K+ in plasma. Therefore, Na+ reabsorption by the nephrons is promoted by water retention.
5) severe diarrhea
Severe diarrhea is also managed by secretion of aldosterone from the pituitary gland. This hormone is responsible for increased water and sodium reabsorption from the distal convoluted tubule in the kidneys.
6) sweating
Sweating is responsible for loss of electrolytes i.e. Na+ and Cl. Hence, aldosterone hormone is released which increases the reabsorption of both Na+ and water.
7) diabetes insipidus
People suffering from nephrogenic diabetes insipidus excretes large amount of diluted urine and has severe dehydration. ADH is released to control the excessive urination and reduce hypernatremia.
8) caffeine consumption
Caffeine containing beverages does not cause serious fluid loss or increase Na+ retention. However, they may produce a mild diuretic effect and increase urgency to urinate but does not cause dehydration.
9) ADH secretion
ADH is produced by the hypothalamus in response to increase in blood osmolarity and causes water retention by decreasing urine volume.
10) dehydration due to inadequate water intake
Chronic regulation of increased plasma sodium is performed with release of anti-diuretic hormone (ADH). Na+ imbalance occurs due to abnormal water intake and decrease amount of water is indicative of hypernatremia. Hence, increased thirst mechanism is initiated by ADH and fluid retention is observed.
Answer:
Increases water reabsorption:
ADH Secretion. Dehydration due to inadequate water intake. Eating salty food. Sweating
increases both water and Na+ reabsorption:
Aldosterone release. Blood loss. Severe diarrhea
does not increase water or Na+ reabsorption:
Caffeine consumption. Diabetes insipidus. Alcohol consumption.
Which of the following was a problem with the earlier editions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM)?A. The text was cumbersome and clinicians had difficulty using the classification.B. The theoretical assumptions of the criteria had no empirical support.C. The criteria were impressionistic, and also influenced by humanistic theory.D. The descriptions of the disorders were abstract and theoretically based.
Answer:
A problem with the ealier editionS of DSM was: A. The text was cumbersome and clinicians had difficulty using the classification.
Explanation:
There was a conffusing diagnostic criteria, therefore there was difficult for the clinicians to diagnose. The differential diagnose for instance had troubles, this means that not possible to distinguish one classification from another. A lot of similarities among different patologies. It was too general an had lack of specifications there for the criteria was not clear.
Final answer:
The earlier editions of the DSM had problems such as abstract descriptions and impressionistic criteria based on theories rather than empirical evidence. These issues made the classification system difficult to use and resulted in inaccurate diagnosis and treatment.
Explanation:
One problem with the earlier editions of the Diagnostic and Statistical Manual of Mental Disorders (DSM) was that the descriptions of the disorders were abstract and theoretically based. The earlier editions relied heavily on subjective interpretations and theories, which made it difficult for clinicians to use the classification system effectively. Another problem was that the criteria were impressionistic and influenced by humanistic theory, lacking empirical support. These issues made the text cumbersome and hindered accurate diagnosis and treatment.
Select the incorrect statement.
A. Sympathomimetics in OTC cold products can cause jitters and insomnia, like caffeine can.
B. Psychological dependence on caffeine is usually minor.
C. Caffeine has been proven to cause cancers of the bladder, colon, and kidneys.
D. The symptoms of caffeinism include agitation, tremors, and insomnia.
Answer:
C. Caffeine has been proven to cause cancers of the bladder, colon, and kidneys.
Explanation:
Caffeine effects include increased wakefulness and alertness, provide a feeling of well-being and decreased fatigue. In addition to these effects it may lead to undesirable effects such as increased gastric secretion, increased gastroesophageal reflux, risk of miscarriage, may lead to feelings of anxiety, distress and sleep changes. However, let us not forget that recent research has shown that caffeine can cause bladder, colon and kidney cancer.
Nam works as a customer service manager at the Tiger Health Clinic. Nam consulted an alternative medicine specialist to see if it is feasible to incorporate certain treatments as part of the clinic's services. Nam is performing a(n) _____ activity of the boundary spanning process.
Answer:
important?? whats the word options, cant answer the question
Explanation:
Krishna is a 7 year old boy who lives in a small village in India. Vegetables are expensive and he has only had carrots once in his life. His parents can’t afford pumpkin, squash, or the rich dark greens at market. After years of not understanding why their son is not responding well and cannot play with other kids, his parents finally can afford a doctor. The doctor can only tell the parents that the child is blind and has been since an early age. His parents are surprised, but the doctor isn’t, as the parents have poor night vision. Krishna is likely suffering from a deficiency of which micronutrient?
Answer:
Krishna is probably suffering from vitamin A deficiency.
Explanation:
Vitamins are considered micronutrients as the body only needs small amounts of them to function perfectly.
Vitamin A is an indispensable element for ensuring not only visual acuity, but proper growth and tissue differentiation. Lack of this vitamin can cause blindness, poor night vision, xerophthalmia, also called dry eye or keratoconjunctivitis sicca, a disorder that is not only characterized by changes in tear production or composition, but also produces dryness of the skin, cornea, conjunctivae and the appearance of small white spots in the sclera (Bitot patches). In the most severe cases of xerophthalmia, corneal ulceration and necrosis may occur.
According to the symptoms that Krishina and her parents have, we can say that she is likely to be vitamin A deficient.
Krishna is likely suffering from a deficiency in Vitamin A. This micronutrient is crucial for eye health, and its lack can lead to night blindness and severe blindness. His parents' poor night vision also suggests a possible Vitamin A deficiency.
Explanation:Krishna's condition appears to align with a common health issue resulting from a deficiency in Vitamin A. This micronutrient is crucial for proper eye health and functioning, and its deficiency can result in night blindness and even total blindness in severe cases. Vitamin A is found abundantly in foods such as carrots, pumpkins, squash, and dark green leafy vegetables – foods that Krishna's family struggles to afford.
Poor night vision in Krishna's parents suggests that they too might have a Vitamin A deficiency, which could be hereditary or, more likely, due to their diet. It's important to note that while Krishna's blindness and his parents' poor night vision are both associated with Vitamin A deficiency, these conditions can also be caused by other health factors. Therefore, a thorough medical examination is important for a definitive diagnosis.
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A client with dysphagia is being prepared for discharge. Which outcome indicates that the client is ready for discharge?
A. The client doesn't exhibit rectal tenesmus.
B. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.
C. The client has normal gastric structures.
D. The client reports diminished duodenal inflammation.
Answer:
B. The client is free from esophagitis and achalasia.
Explanation:
Dysphagia is the medical condition that causes difficulty or absolute impossibility when swallowing solid and liquid foods. When dysphagia exists, the swallowing process becomes very difficult and complicated, and can include serious patients and find alternative ways to maintain basic nutrition.
Types of dysphagia
As for the types of dysphagia, there are two depending on where we find the difficulty in swallowing:
The oropharyngeal dysphagia is the one that originates in the area of the pharynx, making it difficult for solid and liquid foods to pass from the first moment of the swallowing process. Severe cases may suffer from constant aspiration with what food passes into the trachea, choking the patient.
The second type is esophageal dysphagia. In this case, the swallowing process manages to take solid and liquid food beyond the pharynx, but seemingly difficulties while they go down the esophagus. In severe cases, there may be constant vomiting that completely precludes nutrition.
When it comes to dysphagia, treatment should always aim first to prevent it from getting worse. Once this is achieved, the original cause is treated and important improvements are sought until the symptoms cease and the problem of evidence of having disappeared.
When an infection dysphagia is diagnosed, the course of action is the controlled use of antibiotics. In cases where dysphagia is a consequence of neurological problems, motor therapy is usually the most efficient resource to allow the patient to overcome it.
The existence of esophageal dysphagia may require medications to reduce heartburn and reflux, treating this gastric condition to prevent stomach rejection of solid and liquid foods consumed.
Also, doctors usually treat cases of achalasia and esophageal stenosis with manual dilation. To achieve this, a suitable endoscope is used with a balloon that widens the esophagus.
Answer:
b
Explanation: