Answer:
a. mental deterioration, memory loss, and personality changes
Explanation:
This disease is common in the elderly, and is a common form of dementia. It affects the parts of the brain that control thinking, memory and language. People may have difficulty remembering things that happened recently.
People may not recognize their family members. They may have difficulty speaking, reading or writing.
All embryos appear female during early development.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
True
Explanation:
Geneticists have discovered that all human embryos start life as females. In the early development in the embryonic stage, this is true both for humans and mammals. This changes only at the 2nd month (in the case of humans, since different mammals have different gestating periods) if the embryo can elaborate enough androgens (dominant male hormone) to offset the maternal estrogens (dominant female hormone) then, maleness develops.
Which of the following involves metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic cells?
a.binary fission c.biofilms
b.endospore formation d.photoautotrophy
Answer: c. Biofilm
Explanation:
Metabolic cooperation between prokaryotes
allows them to use the resources that they could not use when they are living as single cell. Bio film is the example of the metabolic cooperation.
Bio films are formed by the colonizing of single type of prokaryote such as bacteria and they facilitate the growth of other bacteria on the surface by secreting the substances essential for their growth.
Hence, the correct option is (c) biofilms.
The process that involves metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic cells is biofilms. These are communities of microorganisms that cooperate metabolically to carry out functions
Explanation:The process that involves metabolic cooperation among prokaryotic cells is c. biofilms. Biofilms are communities of microorganisms that stick to each other and often to a surface. These adherent cells are frequently embedded within a self-produced matrix of extracellular polymeric substances (EPS). Biofilms may form on living or non-living surfaces and can be prevalent in natural, industrial, and hospital settings. They certainly demonstrate the metabolically cooperative characteristics of prokaryotic cells, where the cells work together to carry out functions that they couldn't perform individually.
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Garrod's concept regarding the relationship between the gene and metabolism can best be described as:
a. one gene - one polypeptide
b. one mutant gene - one metabolic block
c. one gene - one metabolism
d. one gene - one transcript
Answer:
b. one mutant gene - one metabolic block
Explanation:
Garrod studied inborn errors of metabolism and explained the molecular causes of various genetic diseases such as albinism and alkaptonuria.
Accordingly, the individuals homozygous for the recessive allele exhibit metabolic defect responsible for the disease.
For example, alkapton is normally degraded into maleylacetoacetic acid by the reaction catalyzed by the enzyme homogentisic acid oxidase. A mutation in the respective gene produces nonfunctional enzyme and leads to alkaptonuria as the individuals are not able to degree alkapton in absence of functional enzyme.
Hence, one mutation blocks one metabolic pathway and leads to a genetic disorder.
Vitamins are inorganic compounds used by the body for metabolism.
a. True
b. False
The correct answer is A. False
Explanation:
Vitamins are organic compounds or molecules rather than inorganic ones which means they are mainly composed of carbon and they are related to living organism different from minerals that come from non-living elements such as water or earth. Vitamins are essential for the metabolism in an organism including functions such as growth due to this, they are necessary but in most cases only in small quantities. Additionally, vitamins are obtained through diet or similar rather than synthesize by the organism. According to this, it is false "Vitamins are inorganic compounds used by the body for metabolism" because even though they are necessary for the metabolism, vitamins are organic and not inorganic compounds.
If 24% of an organism's DNA is thymine, what percent is cytosine?
a. 24%
b. 26%
c. 48%
d. 52%
Answer:
B. 26%
Explanation:
According to the Chargaff rule, we know that the quantity of thymine and adenine, and the quantity of cytosine and guanine are exactly the same in the DNA.
We can conclude that if there is 24% of thymine, there is also 24% of Adenine. Because those bases pair with each other and there is going to be the same percentage of them both in the DNA.
The sum of the 4 bases is going to be 100% in the DNA
[tex]A+T+C+G=100%[/tex]
Since 24% of the organism is thymine 24% is going to be adenine
[tex]24+24+C+G=100[/tex]
To know how much is missing from the equation we would have to subtract the total 48%
[tex]C+G=100-48\\C+G=52\\[/tex]
This means that the remaining 52% is composed by the cytosine-guanine pairs. Since the pairs are equal in quantity in the DNA, we have to divide this number by 2 to have the amount of each one
[tex]C=\frac{52}{2} \\C=26[/tex]
The answer is: B.26% is going to be the percent of cytosine and also guanine in the DNA
Which (if any) of the following statements about the major histocompatibility complex (MHC) is not correct?
If all of the statements are correct choose the last answer.
a. all human cells, including red blood cells, possess MHC I
b. each person has a unique MHC (except for identical twins).
c. in order for organ transplantation to be successful, the organ donot and the recipient must have a similar MHC
d. the MHC allows the immune cells to differentiate the host cells from "foreign" cells
e. all of the above statements about the MHC are correct.
Answer:
a. all human cells, including red blood cells, possess MHC I
Explanation:
MHC is a group of genes involved in the immunological recognition of self (cells of the organism) and nonself (exogenous agents), it's found un all nucleated cells of the body, this means it can't be found in red blood cells because they lack a nucleus.
MHC genes are highly polymorphic, this means different alleles exist in different individuals except for identical twins that share the same genetic profile.
When transplantation happens, the organ donor and receiver need to have similar MHC, otherwise, the receptor's dendritic cells will recognize the new organ as non-self molecules. Since MHC are highly polymorphic, choosing a sibling as a donor increases the chances to find a match since the receptor shares genetic information with the donor.
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Which of the following is a palindromic sequence?
a. AGGTCC
TCCAGG
b. CCTTCC
GCAAGG
c. GAATCC
CTTAGG
d. GGATCC
CCTAGG
e. GTATCC
CATAGG
Answer:
GGATCC
CCTAGG.
Explanation:
Pallindromic sequence may be defined as the sequence of the nucleotides that reads in the certain direction on which the strand reads and they are complementary to each other.
These sequences when read in 5' to 3' direction, the sequence is similar from 3' to 5' direction as well. The sequence GGATCC when reads from the oppposite direction results in the same sequence CCTAGG. Hence, these are pallindromic sequences.
Thus, the correct answer is option (d).
Describe the outcome of irregular mitosis, meiosis I and meiosis II. be sure use all relevant terminology and to note the impact on chromosomal number in each circumstance.
Answer:
Outcome of irregular mitosis:
Mitosis may be defined as the process of cell division in which a single diploid parent cell divides to form two diploid daughter cells. The irregular mitosis may result in aneuploidy condition of chromosome in which the the extra (trisomy) or missing (nullisomy) of one or more chromosome may occur. This condition also leads the genetic disease and cancer condition. Non disjunction may occur in which the sister chromatid are unable to separate.
Outcome of irregular meiosis I and meiosis II.
Meiosis is the cell division in which a single diploid parent cell divides into four haploid daughter cells. Nondisjunction at meiosis I prevent the segregation at least one homologous chromosomes. This causes the two cells with extra copy of chromosome and two cells with deleted chromosome. Nondisjunction at meiosis II. Two cells have normal chromosomes and two cells with the abnormal (missing and extra) chromosomes.
what is a substance that cannot be broken down to other substances by ordinary chemical means?
Answer:
The correct answer is an element.
Explanation:
An element refers to a component whose atoms comprises a similar number of protons, or it can be said that the atoms of a specific element exhibit the same atomic number. Chemically, they are the simplest components, which cannot be further differentiated by any chemical means. The elements can get converted into other elements with the help of nuclear methods.
Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as aldosterone, cross the membranes of all cells but affect only target cells because
a. only target cells retain the appropriate DNA segments.
b. intracellular receptors are present only in target cells.
c. only target cells have enzymes that break down aldosterone.
d. only in target cells is aldosterone able to initiate the phosphorylation cascade that turns genes on.
Answer: The correct answer is option b.
Explanation:
Aldosterone is a mineralocorticoid, that is, a steroidal hormone that plays important role in regulating blood pressure as well as the levels of sodium and potassium in the plasma.
It is released from adrenal gland. Being steroidal in nature, it is capable of bypassing plasma membrane easily.
However, its receptors are present inside the cell, that is, in cytoplasm.
These receptors are expressed or present only in the target cells due to which this hormone produces its effects only in the target cells.
Once bound to intracellular receptor, the cell signalling results in alterations in gene expression which produces the desired effects.
Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, like aldosterone, affect only target cells because intracellular receptors are present only in target cells.
Explanation:Lipid-soluble signaling molecules, such as aldosterone, affect only target cells because intracellular receptors are present only in target cells. These receptors are specific to the signaling molecule and are located inside the cell. When aldosterone enters a target cell, it binds to its corresponding intracellular receptor, leading to a series of events that ultimately activate or inhibit specific genes responsible for cellular responses. This selectivity ensures that only certain cells respond to aldosterone.
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The primary storage site for sperm is the seminal vesicles.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer is option B. false.
Explanation:
The seminal vesicles are the site of production of the seminal fluid which makes 60 % of the total seminal vesicles. The seminal vesicles do not store the sperm.
The primary storage site of the sperm in seminiferous tubules and tubular storage sites for the sperm is epididymis.
Thus, the correct answer is option B. false.
The concentration of CO2 in the atmosphere globally (choose any/all that apply, points deducted for incorrect answers):
a. has a greater annual variation in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere
b. has a greater annual variation in the southern hemisphere than in the northern hemisphere
c. has an annual variation globally that is constant regardless of location
d. varies annually depending on rates of marine NEP
e. varies annually depending on rates of terrestrial NEP
Answer:
a. has a greater annual variation in the northern hemisphere than in the southern hemisphere
Explanation:
These latitudinal fluctuation variations are the consequence of plant photosynthetic activity. As plants begin to photosynthesize in the spring and summer, they consume CO2 from the atmosphere and eventually use it as a carbon source for growth and reproduction. This leads to the decline in CO2 concentrations beginning in May each year. By reducing photosynthesis, crops save energy once winter comes. The dominant method, without photosynthesis, is ecosystem CO2 exhalation (cellular respiration and decomposition), including bacteria, crops, and livestock.
Two latitudes of Earth contain most of land plants: Northern Hemisphere mainlands and the tropics that envelop, among different territories, the immense downpour woods of the Amazon basin. Close to the equator temperature are constant all year long. Shifts in CO2 are hence most articulated in the Northern Hemisphere, where the regular changes in temperature bring about enormous contrasts in plant photosynthesis from summer to winter.
Which of the following is an advantage to co-evolving with a pollinator, rather than using wind pollination?
a. Pollinators require more energy to attract
b. Pollinators reduce the chance of hybridization
c. Pollinators are susceptible to climate change and deforestation
d. Pollinators rely on the flowers for food and have to pollinate to survive
Answer:
d. Pollinators rely on the flowers for food and have to pollinate to survive
Explanation:
Insect pollination is more successful as compared to wind pollination which is completely a chance event. Insect pollinated plants have evolved several strategies to attract pollinators.
The co-evolution of insect-pollinated plants further ensures the mutualism between them. Pollinators derive their food from the flowers they visit in the form of nectar.
Due to their food requirements, insects visit the flowers and in turn pollinate them. If insects do not visit the flowers, they will face the food scarcity. To ensure food availability, insects visit the flowers and pollinate them.
Final answer:
The advantage to co-evolving with a pollinator rather than relying on wind pollination is that pollinators rely on the flowers for food and have to pollinate to survive.
Explanation:
The advantage to co-evolving with a pollinator rather than relying on wind pollination is that pollinators rely on the flowers for food and have to pollinate to survive (option d). This means that the pollinators actively seek out and visit flowers, increasing the chances of successful pollination. In contrast, wind pollination relies on chance and the movement of air to carry pollen from one flower to another, which is less efficient.
Which of these groups of animals currently has the greatest percentage of threatened species?
a. amphibians
b. birds
c. mammals
d. reptiles
e. fishes
Answer:
Amphibians, the total threated species is 31,8%
Explanation:
The IUCN ( International Union for Conservation of Nature) is an environmental organization that helps and influences societies around the world to preserve biodiversity so that human progress, economic diversity and the conservation of nature can work together, to ensure that any natural resource usage is ecologically sustainable.
The IUCN created a list of threatened species. A threatened species is an organism that is vulnerable to lose all of its population shortly. The list was created to state and report the status of conservation of animals and plants. The IUCN studies species under several conditions and criteria to create a list of categories directed toward classifying animals and taking action when needed:
Extinct (EX): the last individual of the species has died. Extinct in the wild (EW): the last individuals is known only to survive in captivity Critically endangered (CR): the species is in extremely high risk of extinction in the wild in the immediate futureEndangered (EN): the species is in very high risk of extinction in the wild shortly.Vulnerable (VU): the species is a high risk of extinction in the wild in medium-term futureNearly Threatened (NT): the species is close to being at high risk of extinction soon Low Concern (LC): the species is unlikely to become extinct soon.Deficient Data (DD): Not enough information about the species to classify it. Not Evaluated (NE) : the species have not been evaluated yetThe definition of threatened according to the IUCN is a species that is classified in CR (Critically endangered) , EN (Endangered) , and VU (Vulnerable)
So according to this definition in the IUCN red list finder, you would have the following numbers:
a. Amphibians
Total: 6771Threatened: CR: 575, EN:944; VU: 638 Total threatened: 2157Percentage: 31,8%b. Birds
Total: 11133Threatened by category: CR: 225, EN: 469, VU: 799Total threatened: 1493Percentage: 13,4%c. mammals
Total: 5801Threatened by category: CR: 203, EN: 489, VU:528 Total threatened: 1220Percentage: 21%d. reptiles
Total: 7541Threatened by category: CR: 303, EN: 547, VU: 517Total threatened: 1367Percentage: 18,1%e. fishes
Total: 18449Threatened by category: CR: 549, EN: 771, VU: 1174Total threatened: 2494Percentage: 13,5%Answer: Amphibians, the total threated species is 31,8%
Final answer:
Amphibians have the greatest percentage of threatened species among the groups listed, with 29% of all amphibians classified as threatened. This calls for urgent conservation efforts to mitigate further losses.
Explanation:
Among the options provided, the group of animals currently with the greatest percentage of threatened species is amphibians. According to the International Union for the Conservation of Nature, up to 29 percent of all amphibians are classified as threatened, a rate higher than that for other groups mentioned, such as mammals, birds, reptiles, and fishes. This alarming percentage highlights the urgent need for conservation efforts to prevent further losses within this class.
Amphibians are facing numerous threats, including habitat loss, pollution, climate change, and infectious diseases, which collectively contribute to their high rate of endangerment. Efforts like the Biodiversity Action Plan, ratified by 188 countries, aim to protect these vital species and their habitats. Understanding and supporting such conservation initiatives is crucial for preserving the biodiversity of our planet.
The large surface area of the alveoli allows for efficient diffusion of oxygen and removal of carbon dioxide from the blood. What is the approximate surface area of the alveoli?
A. 70 miles
B. 7 miles
C. 0.7 square meters
D. 7 square meters
E. 70 square meters
Answer:
The correct option is: E. 70 square meters
Explanation:
Pulmonary alveoli is described as the cup-shaped hollow cavity, found in the alveolar sacs of mammalian lungs.
The alveolar membrane, also called the respiratory membrane, allows the exchange of gases. Across this membrane, carbon dioxide is released from the capillaries into the alveoli and oxygen is diffused from the alveoli into the capillaries.
About 300 million alveoli are present in the lungs of a human, which makes about 70m² of surface area.
What is the molecule of inheritance?
a. DNA
b. RNA
c. protein
d. maltose
Answer:A
DNA
Explanation:
The surgical removal of male reproductive organs is known as _______________.
Answer: The surgical removal of male reproductive organs is known as Orchidectomy.
Explanation: By the process of Orchidectomy male reproductive organs ( one or both the testes ) removed surgically. Orchidectomy is also known as Castration.
Orchidectomy is very helpful in case of testicular cancer. Because in that case it serve as treatment of cancer.
Orchidectomy is of three types -:
1 : Simple -: In this type of orchidectomy male gonads and spermatic cord is removed by incision. For the treatment genetic infection.
2 : Subcapsular -: In this type of orchidectomy not the entire gland only glandular tissues are removed. It is a Prostrate cancer treatment.
3: Inguinal :- In this type one or both the testes or entire spermatic cord is removed in incision in lower abdomen.
Which of the following structures is NOT a part of the respiratory system?
a. external nares
b. uvula
c. epiglottis
d. choanae
e. mouth
Answer:
Uvula.
Explanation:
Respiration may be defined as the process of exchange of gases between the body tissue, lungs and the environment. Oxygen is inhaled and carbon dioxide is exhaled out during the process of respiration.
The choanae, external nares, epiglottis and mouth plays an important role in respiration. Uvula is mainly involved in the production of the salivary gland. The uvula moistens the area and also involved in the speech process. Hence, uvula do not play important role in respiration.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Among the listed structures, the uvula is not a part of the respiratory system, it is a part of the digestive system and contributes in swallowing and speech.
Explanation:The structure that is NOT a part of the respiratory system among the given options is (b) the uvula. The respiratory system includes structures through which air passes when we breathe, such as the external nares (nostrils), epiglottis (a flap that prevents food from entering the windpipe), choanae (rear openings of the nasal cavities), and the mouth. But the uvula, a dangling structure at the back of the throat, is a part of the digestive system, not the respiratory system. It plays a role in swallowing and speech.
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Cyanide cause cellular death because it prevents the electron transport chain from producing ATP.
a. True
b. False
Answer:
The correct answer will be option-true.
Explanation:
Cyanide is a class of molecules which contains CN group in their structure. They are mostly considered deadly poisons as they inhibit ATP synthesis.
The cyanide ions of the cyanide bind with the cytochrome C oxidase enzyme of electron transport chain in mitochondria. The main role of the enzyme is to transfer the electron to the oxygen during electron transport chain.
Since cyanide ions binding prevents the cytochrome C oxidase to perform its function, therefore ATP will not be synthesized in the mitochondria.
Thus, option-true is the correct answer.
Is the Gram stain a useful tool for understanding the phylogeny of eubacteria? Explain why or why not.
Answer
Yes, Gran stain is a useful tool for unterstanding the phylogeny of eurobacteria.
Explanation
The Gram staining method is used to classify two broad groups: gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria. This technique is widely used in clinical analysis and microbiology laboratories to monitor infections in pus smears or organic fluids.
In the Gran staining method, we subject the bacteria to dye treatments and, depending on the chemical composition of the cell wall of these bacteria, each one will react differently with the dyes and thus identify them by their biochemical characteristics.
The Gram stain is pivotal for classifying bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative groups but is not a dependable method for elucidating the phylogeny of eubacteria, as it focuses on cell wall characteristics rather than genetic relationships.
Explanation:The Gram stain is a differential staining technique that was developed as an efficient method to differentiate bacteria based on the structural differences in their cell walls. Although invaluable for identifying and classifying bacteria into gram-positive and gram-negative groups based on their reaction to the stain, the Gram stain itself is not a reliable tool for understanding the phylogeny of eubacteria.
Phylogeny involves the evolutionary relationships among organisms, which require more comprehensive genetic analysis rather than just cellular characteristics discerned from staining techniques. Nevertheless, the Gram staining method is a foundational first step in identifying bacterial species and understanding aspects of their cell wall structure that can hint at broader taxonomic relationships.
The size of one copy of the human genome is approximately 3 billion base pairs, and it contains about 25,000 genes organized into 23 chromosomes. a. Human chromosomes vary in size. What would you predict is the size of the average chromosome? b. Assuming that genes are spread evenly among chromosomes, how many genes does an average human chromosome contain? c. About half of the DNA in chromosomes contains genes. How large (in base pairs) is an average human gene?
Answer:
a. Average size of chomosomes = [tex]130.435*10^6[/tex].
b. Average amount of genes per chromosome = 1086,95 genes per chromosome in average.
c. Average length of chromosomes = 1,5 billion base pairs.
Explanation:
a. Assuming the whole human genome is about 3 billion base pairs representing 23 chromosomes (one set), the size of an average chromosome can be estimated as [tex]3*10^9[/tex] base pairs /23, which equals to more [tex]130,435*10^6[/tex] (more than 130 million base pairs).
This results due to the fact that 23 chromosomes contain [tex]3*10^9[/tex] base pairs (3 billion bp). Then 1 one them (in average) contains [tex]3*10^9[/tex] base pairs/23. So,
Average size of chomosomes: [tex]3*10^9[/tex] /23=[tex]130.435*10^6[/tex]
b. If one assumes that genes are spread evenly among chromosomes, then the total amount of genes would be spread among the 23 chromosomes. Then, if one divides 25000 by 23, we are getting the amount of genes per chromosome.
Average amount of genes per chromosome: 25.000/23=1086,95 genes per chromosome in average.
c. If about half of the DNA in chromosomes contains genes, then half of 3 billion base pairs (representing 23 chromosomes) would be representing genes. Thus:
Average length of chromosomes: 3 billion base pairs / 2= 1,5 billion base pairs= [tex]1,5*10^9[/tex] base pairs
The average human chromosome is approximately 130 million base pairs and contains about 1087 genes. The average gene size is roughly 238,000 base pairs.
Explanation:a. The size of one copy of the human genome is about 3 billion base pairs. Given that human chromosomes number 23, the size of an average human chromosome would be roughly 130 million base pairs (approximately, 3 billion divided by 23).
b. If we take into account that the total number of genes is about 25,000, and they are spread evenly among the chromosomes, following the same logic, an average human chromosome would contain about 1,087 genes (approximately, 25,000 divided by 23).
c. Regarding the size of a gene in base pairs, it's worth noting that only half of the DNA in chromosomes contains genes, so each gene occupies a space of 2 times its actual size. If we take an average chromosome size of 130 million base pairs, each gene will comprise roughly 238,000 base pairs (130 million divided by 1087 times 2).
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The molecular structure of water contains rwo atoms of hydrogen and one atom of oxygen when water reaches its boiling point and turns into water vapor what happens to its molecular structure
.
Answer:
Water molecules are isolated in its vapour form.
Explanation:
Water has polar molecules in all its form but when water becomes vapour its molecules became isolated. Their bond angles were bent at 105 degree. All the negative charges that is produced in water’s boiling point started concentrating the oxygen molecules and the positives were concentrating the hydrogen molecules.
However, the protons were partially positively charged. The electrons become 10 times greater near the oxygen than hydrogen.
Choose the pair of terms that correctly completes this sentence: Catabolism is to anabolism as _____ is to _____.
a. exergonic; spontaneous
b. exergonic; endergonic
c. free energy; entropy
d. work; energy
Answer:
exergonic; endergonic.
Explanation:
Exergonic reactions may be defined as the reactions in which the energy is released during the reaction. Endergonic reaction are the reaction in which energy is required for the occurrence of reaction.
Catabolism reaction in which the large substance is broken down into simpler substance. Large amount of energy is released during the reaction and considered as exergonic reaction. Anabolism reaction in which small substance combine together to form a large molecule. A large amount of energy is required in this reaction and considered as endergonic reaction.
Thus, the correct answer is option (b).
Catabolism is to anabolism as exergonic is to endergonic. and the correct option is option B.
Catabolism and exergonic reactions are both types of chemical reactions that release energy. However, there are some key differences between the two.
Catabolism is a type of metabolic reaction that breaks down complex molecules into smaller molecules. This process releases energy, which can be used for cellular processes such as muscle contraction, protein synthesis, and cell growth.
Exergonic reactions are chemical reactions that release energy in the form of heat or light. These reactions are spontaneous, meaning that they occur without the need for an input of energy.
Thus, the ideal selection is option B.
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What are baroreceptors? Chemoreceptors?
Answer:
Baroreceptors:
Baroreceptors are the type of mechanical receptors. These receptors are located in the carotid sinus and become active in response to the change in the pressure in the heart. They have the ability to sense the information and relay it to the brain.
Chemoreceptors:
Chemoreceptors area also known as chemo sensors as they have the ability to detect the change in the chemical substance of the body. These receptors are present on the taste buds. They have the ability to generate the action potential and relay information.
If a female who is a carrier for a sex-linked trait mateswith
a male who expresses the trait, what is the chace that her sonwill
express the trait?
A) 1/4
B) 1/2
C) all of her sons will express the trait
D) none of her sons will express the trait
for lifesaver, explain the reasoning for
youranswer.......
Answer:
B) 1/2
Explanation:
A sex linked trait is passed via sex chromosomes. Here the given trait is X linked recessive because female carrier is not possible for X linked dominant trait.
For X linked recessive trait:
Carrier female = XCXc
Affected male = XcY
Their progeny:
XC Xc
Xc XCXc XcXc
Y XCY XcY
Out of the sons, half will be not affected ( XCY ) and half will be affected ( XcY )
Hence, half of the sons will express the trait.
What is typically attached to the acceptor end of a tRNA?
a. a protein
b. an amino acid
c. a ribosome
d. a nucleosome
Answer:
The correct answer is b. an amino acid
Explanation:
A tRNA is called adaptor RNA which have cloverleaf-like secondary structures. These structures contain stems and loops which make up the acceptor arm, anticodon stem and loop, D- stem and loop, and T- stem and loop.
Acceptor arm contains seven base pairs and four single stranded nucleotide which include conserved CCA sequence. The function of acceptor arm is attach amino acids require for protein synthesis.
The anticodon loop gives information to acceptor to attach a specific amino acid according to the sequence present in mRNA. The first amino acid which attaches to acceptor arm is methionine.
Thus, the correct answer is b. an amino acid.
Which method allows the rapid and simultaneous screening of the expression of thousands of genes?
a. RT-PCR
b. Northern blot analysis
c. immunoprecipitation
d. microarray
e. haplotype identification
Answer:
d. microarray
Explanation:
Microarray is a type of chip that is allows high-throughput screening of multiple genes. They are quicker and produce large data that is usually analyzed using bioinformatic tools.
Both the change in the genetic material and the process by which the change occurs is referred to as a/an:
a. mutation
b. error
c. reparation
d. mutation and error
e. recombination
Answer: a. mutation
Explanation:
A mutation is a change or alteration and a process that occurs in the DNA sequence of the organism. This happens due to the mistake in the DNA replication process or because of the environmental factors for example exposure to the UV radiation or due to smoking. These mutations either favors the survival of the organisms or they are lethal for the organisms.
Explain how the nucleolus, ribosomes, endoplasmic
reticulum,Golgi apparats function together in protein
synthesis.
Answer:
The nucleolus refers to a condensed region of chromatin where the production of ribosomes takes place. Ribosomes are the regions of protein synthesis, which perform this function by aligning the amino acids in a suitable sequence, as directed by the messenger RNA.
The ribosomes are generally found entrenched in the endoplasmic reticulum. The production of a huge amount of proteins is possible due to the presence of very large surface area provided by the ER to the ribosomes. The prime function of the ER is to transport the newly formed proteins over to the Golgi apparatus.
The main function of the Golgi apparatus is to amend the proteins and administer them into the vesicles. From here they are mediated towards different cell parts. Hence, the mentioned cell organelles are associated with their activities of synthesis of proteins and transportation.
Differentiate between parental and recombinant gametes.
Answer: The two types of gametes are possible for when they are following genes that are on the same chromosomes. If they are crossing over, it does not occur, the products are known as Parental Gametes. If they are crossing over, the products are Recombinant Gametes. It is usually the simple matter that determine which of these gametes are recombinant gametes.
The difference between these two genes, is that are far apart and the frequency of recombination of genes is fifty percent. These genes that are closely located on the chromosome exhibit only have a few cross overs. The gametes that have recombined chromosomes, are known as Recombinant Gametes while the Parent Gametes are carrying on non-recombinant chromosomes.
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