An open container holds ice of mass 0.550 kg at a temperature of -15.3 âC . The mass of the container can be ignored. Heat is supplied to the container at the constant rate of 900 J/minute .The specific heat of ice to is 2100 J/kgâK and the heat of fusion for ice is 334Ã103J/kg.a) How much time tmelts passes before the ice starts to melt?tmelts=___minutesb)From the time when the heating begins, how much time trise does it take before the temperature begins to rise above 0âC?trise=____minutes

Answer:

a. the frequency of the record player

f = 1.3 rev per second = 1.3 Hz

b. the period of the record player.

T = 0.77 seconds

Explanation:

Given;

Speed of record player v = 78 rpm

a) frequency of the record player is the number of revolutions the record player makes per second.

f = 78 rev/minute = 78/60sec = 1.3 rev per second

f = 1.3 Hz

b) period of the record player is the amount of time needed by the record player to complete one revolution.

T = 1/f (or 60s/78rev = 0.77 s)

T = 1/1.3

T = 0.77 seconds

Answer:

(a) The frequency of the record player is 1.3 Hz

(b) The period of the record player is  0.77 s

Explanation:

Given number of revolution per minute = 78 RPM

Part (a) the frequency of the record player

One revolution per minute, 1 RPM = ¹/₆₀ Hz

                                             78 RPM = ?

Thus, 78 RPM = 78 ( ¹/₆₀ HZ) = 1.3 Hz

The frequency of the record player is  1.3 Hz

Part (b) the period of the record player

Period is inverse of frequency

T = 1 / f

T = 1 / 1.3 Hz

T = 0.77 s

The period of the record player is 0.77 s

Answer:

Acceleration due to gravity is 20 [tex]m/sec^2[/tex]

So option (E) will be correct answer

Explanation:

We have given length of the pendulum l = 2 m

Time period of the pendulum T = 2 sec

We have to find acceleration due to gravity g

We know that time period of pendulum is given by

[tex]T=2\pi \sqrt{\frac{l}{g}}[/tex]

[tex]2=2\times 3.14 \sqrt{\frac{2}{g}}[/tex]

[tex]0.3184= \sqrt{\frac{2}{g}}[/tex]

Squaring both side

[tex]0.1014= {\frac{2}{g}}[/tex]

[tex]g=19.71=20m/sec^2[/tex]

So acceleration due to gravity is 20 [tex]m/sec^2[/tex]

So option (E) will be correct answer.

Final answer:

Using the formula for the period of a simple pendulum and given values for length and period, the acceleration due to gravity on the planet is calculated to be approximately 9.87 m/s², which is closest to 10 m/s².

Explanation:

To determine the value of acceleration due to gravity (g) at the surface of a planet using a simple pendulum, we use the formula for the period (T) of a simple pendulum: T = 2π√(L/g), where T is the period, L is the length of the pendulum, and g is the acceleration due to gravity.

Rearranging the formula to solve for g gives us: g = (4π²L) / T². Given that the length (L) is 2 m and the period (T) is 2 s, we plug these values into the formula: g = (4π² × 2 m) / (2 s)².

Calculating this gives us: g = (4π² × 2 m) / 4, simplifying further gives g = π² × 2 m. Now substituting π = 3.14159, we find g = (3.14159)² × 2 m ≈ 9.87 m/s², which is closest to choice D: 10 m/s².

Answer:

a) t = 1051.6 sec = 17.5 min

b) t = 795.5 sec = 13.25 min

Explanation:

First of all we use the initial data to find out constant 'K'.

T - Ts = (T₀ - Ts) e^(-kt)

Here, we have:

T = Final Temperature = 60° C

Ts = Surrounding Temperature = 20° C

T₀ = Initial Temperature = 90° C

t = time = 10 min = 600 sec

k = constant = ?

Therefore,

60° C - 20° C = (90° C - 20° C).e^(-k600)

40° C/70° C = e^(-k600)

ln (0.57142) = -600k

k = 9.327 x 10⁻⁴ sec⁻¹

a)

Now, for this case we have:

T = Final Temperature = 35° C

Ts = Surrounding Temperature = 20° C

T₀ = Initial Temperature = 60° C

t = time = ?

k = constant = 9.327 x 10⁻⁴ sec⁻¹

Therefore,

35° C - 20° C = (60° C - 20° C).e^(-9.327 x 10⁻⁴ sec⁻¹ x t)

15° C/40° C = e^(-9.327 x 10⁻⁴ sec⁻¹ x t)

ln (15/40) = - 9.327 x 10⁻⁴ sec⁻¹ x t

t = 1051.6 sec = 17.5 min

b)

Now, for this case we have:

T = Final Temperature = 35° C

Ts = Surrounding Temperature = -15° C

T₀ = Initial Temperature = 90° C

t = time = ?

k = constant = 9.327 x 10⁻⁴ sec⁻¹

Therefore,

35° C + 15° C = (90° C + 15° C).e^(-9.327 x 10⁻⁴ sec⁻¹ x t)

50° C/105° C = e^(-9.327 x 10⁻⁴ sec⁻¹ x t)

ln (50/105) = - 9.327 x 10⁻⁴ sec⁻¹ x t

t = 795.5 sec = 13.25 min

Answer:At the top of the page is a transvers wave

C= crest

B= wavelingth

D= trough

A= amplatud

The next wave is a longitudinal wave

Answer:

a. scattering of lower frequencies by larger particles in the air.

b. light's longer path through the air at sunset.

Explanation:

Sun light has to travel several distances through the earth's atmosphere during Sun set and Sun rise. This light gets scattered by air molecules present and the shorter wave length blue gets upwards and red comes down. That is why the sun light appears red in our eyes.

Answer:

The tropic of Capricorn

Explanation:

This line runs 23.5 degrees south of the equator.

Answer:

[tex]\frac{1}{12}ML^2[/tex]

Explanation:

The moments of the whole object is the sum of the moments of the 2 segments of rod at their ends of which length is L/2 and mass M/2:

[tex]I = 2I_{end} = 2\frac{1}{3}\frac{M}{2}\left(\frac{L}{2}\right)^2[/tex]

[tex]I = \frac{1}{3}M\frac{L^2}{4}[/tex]

[tex]I = \frac{1}{12}ML^2[/tex]

Answer:

In a metal circuit, the charges which are free electrons flow opposite to the flow of conventional current(which is assumed as the flow of positive charges)

Explanation:

Conventional current is defined as the direction that positive charge would flow, which is opposite to the actual flow of electrons in a circuit.

From the statements given, we can conclude that charges actually flow opposite the conventional current. This is because conventional current assumes that positive charge is moving in the direction of the electric field, whereas in actuality, in metal wires, it is the electrons— which have a negative charge—that are moving.

Electrons flow in a direction opposite to the defined conventional current. The designation of the direction of conventional current dates back to Benjamin Franklin's time, and despite later discovery that electrons are the primary charge carriers in circuits, the convention has remained the same.

Answer:

Explanation:

Given that,

A space ship is separated into two part

Mass of first part

M1 = 1200kg

Mass of second part

M2 = 1800kg

Magnitude of impulse on each part is

I = 300Ns

We want to find the relative velocity at which the two parts separate

Now,

Impulse is give as

I = ft = mv - mu

Since the body is considered to be at rest before detonation

Then, I = mv

So for first part

I = M1•V1

V1 = I / M1

V1 = 300 / 1200

V1 = 0.25m/s

Also, for second part

V2 = —I / M2

V2 = —300 / 1800

V2 = —0.167 m/s

NOTE: the negative sign is due to the fact that the two bodies are moving away from each other.

The relative speed of the two masses because of detonation is

V = V1 — V2

V = 0.25 — (—0.167)

V = 0.25 + 0.167

V = 0.417 m/s

The relative speed of the two masses because of detonation is 0.417 m/s

Answer:

(1) [tex]\frac{5}{12} m/s[/tex]

(2)  [tex]-\frac{5}{12} m/s[/tex]

Explanation:

Lets say two parts went left and right, one with 1200Kg, call it A ,went right and one with mass 1800Kg went left. Let's establish right as positive and left as negative for our speed convention.

Both have initial acceleration of 300N, assuming for one second, by newton's second law F=ma, 'A' will have acceleration of 1/4m/s^ which will induce velocity of 0.25m/s as well.

So A has velocity of [tex]\frac{1}{4} m/s[/tex] towards right direction.

and B has velocity of - [tex]\frac{1}{6} m/s[/tex] towards left direction.

Relative Velocities.

and 'B' will have acceleration of [tex]\frac{1}{6} m/s^2[/tex] which will also produce velocity of [tex]\frac{1}{6} m/s[/tex].

[tex]V_{AB} = V_{A} -V_{B}[/tex] = [tex]$\frac{1}{4} --\frac{1}{6}= \frac{5}{12}m/s[/tex] (Read as Velocity A with respect to B) (1)

[tex]V_{BA} =V_{B} -V_{A} = -\frac{1}{6}-\frac{1}{4} =-\frac{5}{12} m/s[/tex] (Read as Velocity B with respect to B). (2).

Answer:  

The minimum temperature of hot reservoir is 586K or 313°C

Explanation:

The Carnot cycle is defined as ideal reversible process thermodynamic process which has four successive step. During the expansion and compression of  the substance it can done upto desired point and then reversed up.

Here the energy is used from the hot reservoir to do work and deposited into the cold reservoir. As is it reversible the efficiency of the carnot cycle is the theoretical maximum of the heat engine.

The efficiency of carnot cycle is

η = 1 - [tex]\frac{Tc}{Th}[/tex]    eq 1

Where Tc is the temperature of cold reservoir = 20° = 20°+273K = 293K

           Th is the temperature of hot reservoir.

            η  is the efficency 50% = 0.5

The minimum temperature of the reservoir is related to the maximum efficiency,

Substituting values in eqn 1

0.05 = 1-[tex]\frac{293}{Th}[/tex]

Th = [tex]\frac{293}{1 - 0.5}[/tex] =586 K

The minimum temperature of hot reservoir is 586K.

ie 586K-273 = 313°C

Final answer:

The minimum hot-reservoir temperature required for a heat engine to have 50% efficiency with a cold reservoir at 20°C is 313.15°C.

Explanation:

To determine the minimum hot-reservoir temperature for a heat engine with 50% efficiency where the cold reservoir is at 20°C, we can use the efficiency formula for a Carnot engine: efficiency (e) = 1 - (Tc/Th), where Tc is the cold reservoir temperature and Th is the hot reservoir temperature, both in kelvins. Rearranging the formula to solve for Th gives: Th = Tc / (1 - e).

First, convert the cold reservoir temperature from Celsius to Kelvin: Tc = 20°C + 273.15 = 293.15 K. Now, plug in the efficiency value: Th = 293.15 K / (1 - 0.50) = 293.15 K / 0.50 = 586.3 K. Convert this back to Celsius to get the minimum hot-reservoir temperature required: Th - 273.15 = 586.3 K - 273.15 = 313.15°C.

Therefore, the minimum hot-reservoir temperature required for the proposed heat engine to reach 50% efficiency is 313.15°C.

Answer:

The gravitational force between proton and an electron is [tex]4.06 \times 10^{-47}[/tex] N

Explanation:

Given:

Mass of proton [tex]m_{1} = 1.67 \times 10^{-27}[/tex] kg

Mass of electron [tex]m_{2} = 9.11 \times 10^{-31}[/tex] kg

Separation between electron and proton [tex]r = 5 \times 10^{-11}[/tex] m

According to the gravitational law,

   [tex]F = \frac{Gm_{1} m_{2} }{r^{2} }[/tex]

Where [tex]G = 6.674 \times 10^{-11}[/tex] = gravitational constant.

   [tex]F = \frac{6.674 \times 10^{-11} \times 1.67 \times 10^{-27} \times 9.11 \times 10^{-31} }{(5 \times 10^{-11} )^{2} }[/tex]

   [tex]F = 4.06 \times 10^{-47}[/tex] N

Therefore, the gravitational force between proton and an electron is [tex]4.06 \times 10^{-47}[/tex] N

The gravitational force between a proton and an electron is 40 * 10⁻⁴⁸ N

Newton's law of gravitation is given by:

F = Gm₁m₂/r²

Where F is the force, m₁, m₂ are masses, r is the distance between the two masses and G is the gravitational constant = 6.67 * 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg²

Given that:

m₁ = 1.67 * 10⁻²⁷ kg, m₂ = 9.11 * 10⁻³¹ kg, r = 5 * 10⁻¹¹ m, hence:

F = 6.67 * 10⁻¹¹ Nm²/kg² * 1.67 * 10⁻²⁷ kg * 9.11 * 10⁻³¹ kg/ (5 * 10⁻¹¹ m)²

F = 40 * 10⁻⁴⁸ N

The gravitational force between a proton and an electron is 40 * 10⁻⁴⁸ N

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Answer:

Pressure exerted by statue = [tex]15 kN/m^{2}[/tex]

Explanation:

Weight of the statue (F)= 3600 N

Area of the base of statue(A) = Length of the base x Width of the base

                                              =0.6 m x 0.4 m =0.24 m

Pressure is defined as  force per unit area.

[tex]Hence,\ pressure\ by\ statue= \frac{Force(F)}{Area(A)}=\frac{3600}{0.24} = 15000\ N/m^{2}[/tex]

Pressure exerted by statue = 15000 [tex]N/m^{2} = 15 kN/m^{2}[/tex]

The pressure exerted by the deer statue on the ground is approximately 15000 Pa.

Pressure is a measure of the force exerted per unit area. In physics, it is defined as the force acting perpendicular to the surface of an object divided by the area over which the force is applied.

To calculate pressure (P), we use the formula [tex]\(P = \frac{force}{area}\).[/tex] The force exerted by the statue is its weight, which is the gravitational force acting on it, given by [tex]\(F = mg\)[/tex], where (m) is the mass and (g) is the acceleration due to gravity (approximately 9.8 m/s²).

Given the weight of the statue [tex]\(3600 \, N\),[/tex] we find the mass using [tex]\(F = mg\)[/tex], rearranging to [tex]\(m = \frac{F}{g}\)[/tex], which gives [tex]\(m \approx \frac{3600 \, N}{9.8 \, m/s^2} \approx 367.35 \, kg\)[/tex].

Now, we find the area (\(A\)) of the base of the statue:[tex]\(A = \text{length} \times \text{width} = 0.60 \, m \times 0.40 \, m = 0.24 \, m^2\).[/tex]

Finally, we use the pressure formula [tex](P = \frac{F}{A}\): \(P \approx \frac{3600 \, N}{0.24 \, m^2} \approx 15000 \, Pa\).[/tex]

Answer:

Explanation:

The rate of change of angular momentum of a particle equals the torque of the net force acting on it is called CONSERVATION OF ANGULAR MOMENTUM

ΣIα = τ

τ(net) = I•α

Where,

α is angular acceleration

τ is Torque

Answer:

Conservation of angular momentum

Explanation:

The rate of change of angular momentum of a particle equals the torque of the net force acting on it is called conservation of angular momentum.

L = ΣF x r = τ

where;

L is the angular momentum of the particle

τ is torque on the particle

r is the distance through which the force act on the particle

ΣF is the net force on the particle

Thus,  the rate of change of angular momentum of a particle equals the torque of   net force acting on it, (L = τ) and it is called conservation of angular momentum.

Answer:

83000 m/s

Explanation:

Using

F = Bqv....................... Equation 1

Where F = Force experienced by the charge, B = magnetic field q = charge of the particle, v = speed of the particle.

make v the subject of the equation

v = F/Bq.................... Equation 2

Given: q = 5.2×10⁻¹⁹ Coulombs, F = 9.5×10⁻¹⁵ Newtons, B = 2.2×10⁻¹ Tesla

Substitute into equation 2

v = 9.5×10⁻¹⁵ /(5.2×10⁻¹⁹×2.2×10⁻¹)

v = 8.3×10⁴ m/s

v = 83000 m/s

Answer:

The new angular velocity of the two stones = 160.064 rad/s

Explanation:

This is a case of conservation of angular momentum.

For initial case:

Mass = 50 kg

Radius = 0.75 m

Angular velocity N = 30 rev/s

We must convert to rad/s w

w = 2¶N = 2 x 3.142 x 30 = 188.52 rad/s

Moment of inertia I = m x r^2

I = 50 x 0.75^2 = 28.125 kgm2

Angular momentum = I x w

= 28.125 x 188.52 = 5302.125 kgm2-rad/s

For second case smaller stone has

m = 20 kg

Radius = 0.5 m

I = m x r^2 = 20 x 0.5^2 = 5 kgm2

Therefore,

Total moment of inertia of new system is

I = 28.125 + 5 = 33.125 kgm2

Final angular momentum = I x Wf

Where Wf = final angular speed of the system.

= 33.125 x Wf = 33.125Wf

Equating the two angular moment, we have,

5302.125 = 33.125Wf

Wf = 5302.125/33.125 = 160.064 rad/s

Answer:

[tex]\dot n = 25.471\,\frac{rev}{s}[/tex]

Explanation:

The situation is described reasonably by the Principle of Angular Conservation:

[tex]\frac{1}{2}\cdot (50\,kg)\cdot (0.75\,m)^{2}\cdot \left(30\,\frac{rev}{s} \right) = \frac{1}{2}\cdot \left[(50\,kg)\cdot (0.75\,m)^{2}+ (20\,kg)\cdot (0.5\,m)^{2} \right] \cdot \dot n[/tex]

The final angular velocity is:

[tex]\dot n = 25.471\,\frac{rev}{s}[/tex]

Final answer:

To find the magnetic field inside a solenoid, use the formula B = μ₀ * n * I, where B is the magnetic field, n is the number of turns per unit length, and I is the current through the solenoid.

Explanation:

To find the magnetic field inside the solenoid, we can use the formula B = μ0* n * I, where B is the magnetic field, μ0 is the permeability of free space, n is the number of turns per unit length, and I is the current through the solenoid.

Given that the solenoid has a diameter of 5.0 mm, we can calculate the radius by dividing the diameter by 2, which is 2.5 mm or 0.0025 m. Using the radius, we can find the number of turns per unit length by dividing the total number of turns (200) by the length of the solenoid (unknown in the given information).

Once we know the number of turns per unit length and the current (0.10 A), we can calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field using the formula mentioned earlier.

Final answer:

To calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field on the axis of the solenoid near its center, we can use the formula B = μ0 * n * I.

Explanation:

To calculate the magnitude of the magnetic field on the axis of the solenoid near its center, we can use the formula:

B = μ0 * n * I

Where B is the magnetic field, μ0 is the permeability of free space, n is the number of turns per unit length, and I is the current.

In this case, the solenoid has a diameter of 5.0 mm, so the radius is 2.5 mm. The circumference of the solenoid is 2 π * r, and the length is 200 * this circumference. The number of turns per unit length (n) can be calculated by dividing the number of turns by the length of the solenoid. Finally, plug in the values into the formula to calculate the magnetic field.

La fuerza normal sobre el cuerpo es de [tex]\(5 \, N\)[/tex].

El problema implica un cuerpo de [tex]\(10 \, N\)[/tex] de peso que está siendo sometido a una fuerza de tracción de [tex]\(15 \, N\)[/tex] a un ángulo de [tex]\(60^\circ\)[/tex] con la horizontal. La fuerza normal es la componente perpendicular de la fuerza peso, ya que no hay movimiento vertical. Utilizamos la relación trigonométrica [tex]\(F_{\text{normal}} = F_{\text{peso}} \cdot \cos(\theta)\)[/tex], donde [tex]\(F_{\text{peso}}\)[/tex] es el peso del cuerpo y [tex]\(\theta\)[/tex] es el ángulo entre la fuerza peso y la horizontal.

En este caso, la fuerza peso [tex]\(F_{\text{peso}}\) es \(10 \, N\)[/tex] hacia abajo, y el ángulo [tex]\(\theta\)[/tex] es [tex]\(60^\circ\)[/tex]. Aplicando la fórmula, obtenemos [tex]\(F_{\text{normal}} = 10 \, N \cdot \cos(60^\circ)\)[/tex]. Calculando esto, encontramos [tex]\(F_{\text{normal}} = 10 \, N \cdot 0.5 = 5 \, N\)[/tex].

La fuerza normal es, por lo tanto, [tex]\(5 \, N\)[/tex], lo que significa que la superficie horizontal ejerce una fuerza hacia arriba de [tex]\(5 \, N\)[/tex] para equilibrar la componente vertical de la fuerza aplicada.

Este resultado es consistente con el principio de equilibrio en el plano horizontal. La fuerza normal contrarresta la componente vertical de la fuerza aplicada, manteniendo el cuerpo en equilibrio sin movimiento vertical. Este enfoque, basado en las leyes de la trigonometría y el equilibrio, proporciona una solución clara y precisa para el problema.

Answer:

Waves with high frequencies have shorter wavelengths that work better  than low frequency waves for successful echolocation.

Explanation:

To understand why high-frequency waves work better  than low frequency waves for successful echolocation, first we have to understand the relation between frequency and wavelength.

The relation between frequency and wavelength is given by

λ = c/f

Where λ is wavelength, c is the speed of light and f is the frequency.

Since the speed of light is constant, the wavelength and frequency are inversely related.

So that means high frequency waves have shorter wavelengths, which is the very reason for the successful echolocation because waves having shorter wavelength are more likely to reach and hit the target and then reflect back to the dolphin to form an image of the object.

Thus, waves with high frequencies have shorter wavelengths that work better  than low frequency waves for successful echolocation.

Answer:

Supercells

Explanation:

supercells are rotating thunderstorms that has a well-defined radar circulation called a mesocyclone. They can sometimes produce destructive hail, severe winds, frequent lightning, and flash floods.

Answer:

The study of Maxwell's equations and Ampere's law are used for analysis

Explanation:

Though There's a magnetic field associated with a changing electric field in TEM propagation of an EM wave through space (which is how it propogates, the changing E field begets the M field, the changeing M field begets the E field, leapfrogging each other).

But between capacitor plates, according to Maxwell and Ampere law, the displacement current in Ampere law was exactly to solve cases like that of a capacitor. A magnetic field cannot have discontinuities, unlike the electric field because there are electric charges, but there are no magnetic monopoles, at least as far as we know in the Universe in its current state. We can therefore conclude that there cannot be a magnetic field outside the capacitor and nothing inside

Answer:

Gravity at a distance of 4R will be reduced to 1/16 th.

Explanation:

Given:

At the surface of the moon, the acceleration due to the gravity of the moon is x.

We have to find the gravity a t a distance of 4 times from the center of the moon.

Let the radius of the moon be "R".

And

The value of acceleration due to gravity is [tex]g_m[/tex] .

Formula:

⇒ [tex]g_m=\frac{GM}{R^2}[/tex]   ...where M is the mass of the moon.

Now

Gravity of the moon at the its surface:

⇒ [tex]g_m=\frac{GM}{R^2}[/tex]    ...equation (i)

Gravity of the moon at a distance of  [tex]4R[/tex]:

⇒ [tex]g_m_1=\frac{GM}{(4R)^2}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]g_m_1=\frac{GM}{16R^2}[/tex]   ...equation (ii)

Dividing equation (i) with (ii) to find the relationship between the two.

⇒ [tex]\frac{g_m_1}{g_m} =\frac{GM}{16R^2}\times \frac{R^2}{GM}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]\frac{g_m_1}{g_m} =\frac{1}{16}[/tex]

⇒ [tex]g_m_1 =g_m(\frac{1}{16})[/tex]

⇒ [tex]g_m_1 =x(\frac{1}{16})[/tex]    ...as gm=x at the surface.

So,

We can say that the gravity at a distance of 4R will be reduced to 1/16 th.

Answer: The acceleration due to gravity on the surface of the moon is 1.620 m/s2. 2) The radius of the Earth is 6.38 x 106 m.

Answer:

460 ohms

Explanation:

Resistance=Voltage/Current

=115/0.25=460

The resistance of the lamp can be calculated using Ohm's law, which states that resistance is equal to voltage divided by current. In this case, the resistance of the lamp is 460 ohms.

To find the resistance of a lamp, we can use Ohm's law, which states that resistance is equal to voltage divided by current.

R = V/I

From the given information, the voltage is 115 volts and the current is 0.25 amperes. Plugging these values into the equation, we get:

R = 115 V / 0.25 A = 460 ohms

Therefore, the lamp's resistance is 460 ohms.

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Answer:

It was made possible by the new methods of making steel

Explanation:

The Bessemer process was the first inexpensive industrial process for the mass production of steel from molten pig iron prior to the development of the open hearth furnace. The key principle used was the removal of impurities from the iron by process of oxidation with air being blown through the molten iron. The oxidation also enhances the temperature of the iron mass and keeps it molten. So with the presence of this, building of skyscraper was made possible.

Skyscrapers in the 1800s were made possible by the invention of steel girders and elevators, along with the high prices of real estate in city centers.

The construction of skyscrapers in the 1800s was made possible by several key advancements. One important development was the invention of steel girders that could support the weight of tall buildings. These girders allowed for the construction of buildings beyond the previous limit of 10 to 12 stories.

Another crucial factor was the invention of elevators, both passenger and freight elevators. The introduction of elevators made it feasible for people and goods to reach higher floors easily, making taller buildings more practical.

Additionally, the price of real estate in city centers played a significant role. As the cost of land increased, developers turned to building upwards to maximize space and value. These advancements in construction technology and the need for efficient use of space contributed to the rise of skyscrapers in the 1800s.

Answer:

The ray passes through a focal point of the lens only if the lens is a converging lens.

Explanation:

By the principles of geometric optics, we know that all rays parallel to the principal axis of converging lens, change its direction to a point situated in the axis of the lens. This last point is know as the focal point.

Hence, the only truth choice is:

The ray passes through a focal point of the lens only if the lens is a converging lens.

I attached an image to illustrate this situation

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Answer:

When we change the distance, the universal attraction force increases, so that the system is free to reach a new equilibrium, the linear speed of the earth must rise to the calculated value.

v = √ (G M / r)

Explanation:

For this exercise it is asked that if you maintain the linear speed of the Earth and bring it closer to the sun that would pass.

We pass the distance from Ro = 1.49 10¹¹ m to r = 0.736 10¹¹ m shortens, we write Newton's second law

             F = m a

where the force is the universal force of attraction

            F = G mM / r²

acceleration is central

            a = v² / r

           G m M / r² = m v² / r

            v = √ (G M / r)

When we change the distance, the universal attraction force increases, so that the system is free to reach a new equilibrium, the linear speed of the earth must rise to the calculated value.

We can compare this value with that of the normal orbit

           v₀ = √ (GM / R₀)

            v / v₀ =√ (Ro / r)

           v² r = v₀² R₀

 either of these two expressions gives the relations gives the change in velocity with the radius of the orbit

Answer:

When the charge body touches the other body, charge pass from it to the other body until get the charge is distributed over the largest possible surface, when separating the two bodies they are charged, but with half the initial charge, this phenomenon is called contact charge

Explanation:

When a charged body approaches another body, it attracts or repels the electrons of the other body, until the net charge is zero, that effect disappears when the body moves away.

When the charge body touches the other body, charge pass from it to the other body until get the charge is distributed over the largest possible surface, when separating the two bodies they are charged, but with half the initial charge, this phenomenon is called contact charge

A stationary charge does not experience a force in a magnetic field. A moving charge experiences a force perpendicular to both its velocity and the magnetic field. A ferromagnetic object is attracted to a magnet regardless of its movement.

The magnetic force between a bar magnet and different charged materials can be understood in respect to the properties of the magnetic field, and these forces can range from attractive to repulsive depending on the orientation of the objects in the field and the type of materials involved. For a stationary charge, magnetic forces do not act on it because the magnetic force on a charged particle is always perpendicular to the direction of its motion. Hence, a stationary charged particle does not experience a force.

In the case of a moving charge, a magnetic field exerts force on it. This force is perpendicular to both the velocity of the charge and to the magnetic field, and is dependent on the magnitude of the charge, its speed, and the magnetic field. For example, if you place a moving charge in a magnetic field, the charge will experience a force that's oriented at right angles to both its direction of movement and the field itself. Ferromagnetic objects like iron or nickel will experience attraction to the magnet irrespective of their movement. It is the property of the ferromagnetic material to align its domains in the direction of the external magnetic field (from the bar magnet), thus the entire object acts like a small magnet and feels an attraction.

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Answer:

Precipitate

Explanation:

When a double displacement reaction occurs, the cations and anions switch partners, resulting in the formation of two new ionic compounds AD and CB, one of products is in the solid state and forms an insoluble ionic compound called a precipitate.

Answer:

The arc measure is 20°.

Answer:160

Explanation:edg